NEET Level Test (18-Dec-22) Part Syllabus

Botany - Section A

1. Match List I with List II:

List I		List II
A.	Scar of ovule	I.	Stalk of seed
B.	Outer integument	II.	Tegmen
C.	Funiculus	III.	Hilum
D.	Inner integument	IV.	Testa

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	A	B	C	D
1.	I	II	IV	III
2.	II	III	I	IV
3.	III	IV	I	II
4.	IV	I	III	II

2. (a) Thalloid
(b) Autotrophic
(c) Haplodiplontic life cycle
The above features are seen in:
1. Fucus
2. Volvox
3. Marchantia
4. Funaria

3. Which of the following is not a modification of the root?
A. Turnip
B. Potato
C. Carrot
D. Sweet potato
E. Zaminkand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A & C only
2. B, D & E only
3. B & E only
4. D & E only

4.

Identify the group that is not matched correctly to all the characters shown:

	Group	Cell Type	Cell Wall	Nuclear Membrane	Body Organization
1.	Monera	Prokaryotic	Absent	Absent	Cellular
2.	Protista	Eukaryotic	Present in some	Present	Cellular
3.	Fungi	Eukaryotic	Present	Present	Multicellular/loose tissue
4.	Plantae	Eukaryotic	Present	Present	Tissue/organ

5. Read the following statements:

(i)	Agar-agar is used to grow microbes and in the preparation of ice creams and jellies.
(ii)	Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae, rich in proteins, and are used as food supplements by space travellers.
(iii)	Porphyra, Laminaria, and Sargassum are poisonous.
(iv)	Algae are photosynthetic.
(v)	Spirogyra is a filamentous fungi.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?
1. Five
2. Three
3. Four
4. Two

6.

a.	Annual rings are bands of secondary phloem and medullary rays.
b.	The wood of Cycas has vessels.
c.	Conjoint vascular bundles are found in the leaves of sunflowers and maize.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1. a & b are correct
2. b & c are correct
3. Only a is correct
4. Only c is correct

7.

Consider the following statements and find the correct one:

a.	Living organisms are self-replicating, evolving, and self-regulating interactive systems capable of responding to external stimuli.
b.	Wheat, monocots, and plants represent taxa of the same level.
c.	Higher the category, the greater is the difficulty of determining the relation to other taxa of the same level.
d.	Lower the taxa, the more the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.

1 All are correct, except 'b'
2 All are correct
3 All are correct, except 'c'
4 All are correct, except 'd'

8. Some plants are mentioned below:
Sesbania, Lupinus Cicer, Gloriosa, Colchicum, Aloe
How many of the above plants possess vexillary aestivation (A), endospermic seeds (B), and perianth (C)?
1. A = 4, B = 2, C = 1
2. A = 2, B = 2, C = 2
3. A = 4, B = 1, C = 1
4. A = 3, B = 3, C = 3

9.

Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom because:
1 Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte.
2 Zygote does not undergo meiosis immediately.
3 Produce biflagellate male gametes.
4 Can live in soil but depend on water for fertilization.

10. What is true for the (A) and (B) types of placentation given below:

1. A = Found in sunflower, B = Found in pea
2. A = Found in marigold, B = Found in Dianthus and Primrose
3. A = Found in pea, B = Found in sunflower
4. A = Found in Dianthus and Primrose, B = Found in marigold

11.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select your answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Diatoms	a.	Protein-rich layer of pellicle
B.	Dinoflagellates	b.	Cell wall embedded with silica
C.	Euglenoids	c.	Spores with true walls
D.	Slime moulds	d.	Cellulose plates in the cell wall

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	b	a	c	d
2.	b	d	a	c
3.	b	c	a	d
4.	b	a	d	c

12.

Given below are three statements each with one blank. Select the option which correctly fills in the blanks in two statements.

(A)	_______systems gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characteristics.
(B)	Numbers and codes are assigned to all the characters and the data are then processed in ________taxonomy.
(C)	_______systems assume that organisms belonging to the same taxa have a common ancestor.

	A	B	C
1.	Artificial		Natural
2.		Phenetics	Artificial
3.	Artificial	Chemotaxonomy
4.	Artificial		Phylogenetic

13. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column I		Column II
a.	Herbarium	i.	It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.
b.	Key	ii.	A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with a brief description aiding identification.
c.	Museum	iii.	Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept.
d.	Catalogue	iv.	A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in the identification of various taxa.

	a	b	c	d
1.	i	iv	iii	ii
2.	iii	ii	i	iv
3.	ii	iv	iii	i
4.	iii	iv	i	ii

14.

Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. In Tomato, fruit is a capsule.
2. Seeds of Orchids have oil-rich endosperm.
3. Placentation in Primrose is basal.
4. Flower of Tulip is a modified shoot.

15.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding bacteria:

1.	Bacteria are the most abundant microorganisms.
2.	Bacteria live in extreme habitats where very few other life forms can survive.
3.	Bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity.
4.	They are obligate intracellular parasites.

16.

Identify the plant in the figure given below and the structure labeled A:

1 Equisetum; A - Root
2 Selaginella; A - Rhizine
3 Salvinia; A - Modified leaf
4 Selaginella; A - Rhizophore

17. Match the columns and select the correct option:

	Column I		Column II
a.	Mycoplasma	(i)	Spore producing eukaryote
b.	Nostoc	(ii)	Wall-less prokaryote
c.	Euglena	(iii)	Oxygenic photoautotroph
d.	Slime mould	(iv)	Wall-less autotroph

a b c d
1. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

18.

The protozoans that cause malaria in humans are :
1. Radiolarians
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Chrysophytes
4. Sporozoans

19.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding fungi?
1. Wheat rust-causing agent is Puccinia.
2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotics.
3. The cell walls of fungi are composed of peptidoglycans.
4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.

20. What is true for the structures marked as A and B?

1. A is evolutionarily more advanced than B.
2. A possess pits but B lack pit formation.
3. A is devoid of protoplasm whereas B possesses it.
4. A transports water and minerals and B also transports water and minerals.

21.

Match the following columns:

Column I	Column II
A. Meristem	i. Photosynthesis, storage
B. Parenchyma	ii. Mechanical support
C. Collenchyma cells	iii. Actively dividing
D. Sclerenchyma	iv. Stomata
E. Epidermal tissue	v. Sclereids

Codes:

	A	B	C	D	E
1.	i	iii	v	ii	iv
2.	iii	i	ii	v	iv
3.	ii	iv	v	i	iii
4.	v	iv	iii	ii	i

22.

Phyllotaxy is:

1. Pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch.
2. Pattern of arrangement of petals on the stem or branch.
3. Pattern of arrangement of sepals on the flower.
4. Pattern of arrangement of perianth on the flower.

23.

A flower can be said of a member of Fabaceae if:
1. It shows epipetalous stamens
2. it shows twisted petals
3. It shows standard, keel, and wings
4. It shows valvate petals

24. State true (T) or false (F) to the following statements and select the correct option.
A. Sexual reproduction is absent in Alternaria and Agaricus.
B. Few plants are partially heterotrophic.
C. Morels and truffles are club fungi.

	A	B	C
1.	T	F	T
2.	T	T	T
3.	T	T	F
4.	F	T	F

25. What is true for the diagram given below?

1. Vascular bundles are present in the form of a ring.
2. Pith is distinct.
3. Hypodermis is collenchymatous.
4. Epidermis lack trichomes.

26.

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1.	Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food.
2.	Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.
3.	Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageenan from brown algae.
4.	Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium. and Gracilaria.

27.

Study the four statements (I-IV) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

1.	Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr.
2.	Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants.
3.	Binomial nomenclature system was given by RH Whittaker.
4.	In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth.

The two correct statements are:
1. II and I
2. III and IV
3. I and IV
4. I and II

28.

Which of the following statements is true for Heterotrophic bacteria?

1.	They fix nitrogen in legume roots.
2.	The majority are important decomposers.
3.	Helpful in making curd from milk and production of antibiotics.
4.	All of these.

29.

Identify A, B, and C in the given diagram:

	A	B	C
1	Sheath	Head	Collar

2	Collar	Head	Sheath

3	Sheath	Collar	Head

4	Head	Collar	Sheath

30. How many of the following statements are correct?

a.	Venus fly trap and Cuscuta are insectivorous plants.
b.	The viruses are non-cellular organisms with inert crystalline structures.
c.	Bacterial viruses usually have ssDNA as genetic material.
d.	Viroids lack protein coat.

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	1

31.

Match column I with column II and select the correct option:

Column I		Column II
(a)	A $_{2 + 4}$	(i)	Tomato
(b)	Epiphyllous androecium	(ii)	Lily
(c)	Ovary inferior	(iii)	Mustard
(d)	Gamosepalous	(iv)	Epigynous flower

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)	(i)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)

32.

Select incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Inferior ovary	Guava
2.	Aestivation with unequal petals	Cotton sized petals
3.	Polyadelphous condition	Citrus
4.	Irregular flower	Canna

33.

Select the correct statement with respect to taxonomic key:
1 It is used for the identification of plants only.
2 Each statement in the key is called a couplet.
3 It is based on similarities and dissimilarities.
4 Similar taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category such as family, genus, and species.

34.

Select the correct statement with respect to systematics:

1.	It is the study of different kinds of organisms without their evolutionary relationships.
2.	The word systematics is derived from the Greek word System.
3.	It includes taxonomy as well as phylogeny.
4.	It is a part of the overall taxonomic arrangement that includes identification only.

35.

Which among the following is/are the life cycle pattern of colonial algae Volvox?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. All of these

Botany - Section B

36.

Which of the following characters is/are related to isobilateral leaf?

(a)	Stomata are present on both surfaces.
(b)	Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
(c)	Sub-stomatal cavity is present below the stoma of the abaxial epidermis.

1. Only (a)
2. Only (c)
3. Only (a) and (c)
4. (a), (b), and (c)

37.

Given below is lit. How many of the following have an Adventitious root system?
Mustard, wheat, Grass, Monstera, Banyan.

1. One
2. Three
3. Four
4. Two

38.

More than two leaves arise at each node in:
(a) Alstonia (b) Sunflower
(c) Mustard (d) Nerium
The correct example(s) is/are:
1. (a) & (d)
2. (a), (b) & (c)
3. (d) only
4. (a) only

39.

Bougainvillea and Citrus plants are protected from browsing animals as:
1. Adventitious buds get modified into thorns.
2. Axillary buds get modified into spines.
3. Lateral buds get modified into pointed structures.
4. Apical buds get modified into thorns.

40. Read the following statements:

(i)	The outer lining of the ovary which bears an ovule is called the placenta.
(ii)	Lotus and roses possess apocarpous ovaries.
(iii)	Mustard and tomato possess apocarpous ovary
(iv)	After fertilization, the ovules develop into fruit and the ovary matures into a seed.
(v)	Stigma is present at the tip of the style of a carpel.

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. One
2. Three
3. Four
4. Two

41. Read the following statements with respect to interstellar secondary growth in dicot stems:

(i)	Autumn wood and spring wood appear as alternate concentric rings and constitute an annual ring.
(ii)	Late wood possesses vessels of narrow diameter relative to early wood.
(iii)	Annual rings seen in cut stems give an estimate of the age of the tree and this method is called a dendrogram.
(iv)	Cambium is more active during the spring season than the winter season.
(v)	Growth rings or annual rings are very prominent in the trees growing near sea shores.

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Two

42.

Read the following statements (with respect to angiosperms):
(a) Embryo sac formation is preceded by meiosis.
(b) Pollen grains germinate on the ovule and the resulting pollen tube grows through the tissues of stigma and style.
(c) A large group of plants occurring in a wide range of habitats.
(d) Synergids, antipodals, and PEN degenerate after fertilization.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are wrong?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

43.

A: The secondary xylem is derived from procambium during secondary growth.
R: The amount of secondary xylem is almost equal to the amount of secondary phloem.
1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. If the Assertion is a true statement but the reason is false.
4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

44. Identify the wrong match:
1. Agaricus – Edible ascocarp
2. Gonyaulax – Flagellated protist
3. Colletotrichum – Lack of sexual spores
4. Slime mould – Phagotrophic

45.

A:	Long-distance flow of photoassimilates in plants occurs through sieve tubes.
R:	Mature sieve tubes have parietal cytoplasm and perforated sieve plates.

1.	If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2.	If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3.	If the Assertion is a true statement but the Reason is false.
4.	If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

46. Read the following statements about pteridophytes:

(i)	The main plant body is the sporophyte.
(ii)	The sporophyte is differentiated into true roots, stems, and leaves.
(iii)	Their gametophyte lacks vascular bundle.
(iv)	Microphylls are found in Selaginella and macrophytes in the ferns like Dryopteris.
(v)	Strobili or cones are found in Selaginella and Equisetum.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1.	Four	2.	Five
3.	Two	4.	Three

47. Match List I with List II:

List I	List II
A. Isogamous	I. Cycas
B. Heterosporous	II. Spirogyra
C. Gemmae	III. Selaginella
D. Coralloid root	IV. Marchantia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

48. The causal agent of scrapie disease:
1. Is a proteinaceous particle
2. Has ss RNA
3. Is composed of protein and DNA
4. Is non-infectious to humans

49. Read the following statements:

(i)	Pneumatophores help the plant root to take air or oxygen.
(ii)	Floating hydrophytes possess well-developed root caps.
(iii)	The edible part of Zingiber is an underground stem.
(iv)	Prop roots contain root caps.
(v)	Cladodes are green stems of limited growth which have taken over the function of photosynthesis from leaves.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?
1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Three

50. Read the following statements:

(i)	Epidermal cells have a lower number of chloroplasts or lack them completely, except for the guard cells.
(ii)	Epidermis is mostly single-layered except in the leaves of Ficus and Peperomia.
(iii)	Epidermis lack intercellular spaces.
(iv)	Root epidermis lack cuticle.
(v)	In plants with secondary growth, the epidermis of roots and stems is usually replaced by a periderm through the action of cork cambium or phellogen.

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. One
2. Two
3. Four
4. Five

Zoology - Section A

51. Match List I with List II:

List I	List II
A. Coelomates	I. Aschelminthes
B. Pseudocoelomates	II. Platyhelminthes
C. Acoelomates	III. Annelids
D. Diploblastic	IV. Coelenterates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

52. Match column I with column II and select the correct option:

	Column I		Column II
a.	Striated muscles	(i)	Assist in the transportation of food through the digestive tract
b.	Visceral muscles	(ii)	Primarily involved in changes in the body postures
c.	Cardiac muscles	(iii)	Fibers are branched and involuntary

1. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
2. a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
3. a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
4. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

53. Select the mismatch among the following:
1. Bungarus - Epidermal scales
2. Pteropus - Feathery wings
3. Columba - Pneumatic bones
4. Rana - Tympanum

54. Read the given statements and select the correct option
Statement A: All smooth muscle fibres are involuntary muscle fibres are not smooth muscle fibres.
Statement B: In nearly all animal tissues, specialised junctions provide both structural and functional links between its individual cells.
1. Only statement A is correct
2. Only statement B is correct
3. Both statement A and B are incorrect
4. Both statements A and B are correct

55. Which of the following matching pair is WRONG?
1. Mollusca - Calcareous ossicles
2. Cnidaria - Polyp and Medusa
3. Echinodermata - Water vascular system
4. Porifera - Water canal system

56. Recognize the tissue which has the following characteristics:
a. Nutrients that are not used immediately are stored in this tissue after conversion to fats.
b. It is located mainly beneath the skin.
c. It has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground substance.
Choose the correct option from the following:
1. Tendons
2. Dense irregular tissue
3. Adipose tissue
4. Blood

57. Which one of the following are the unique characteristics of an insect?
1. Four pairs of legs, book lungs, antennae
2. Cephalothorax, Malpighian tubules, compound eyes
3. Three pairs of legs, antennae, and tracheal system
4. Gills, Non-chitinous exoskeleton, Ommatidia

58. Read the given statements and select the correct option
Statement-A: If the head of the cockroach is removed, it will still live for as long as one week because the nervous system of the cockroach is present in the head region.
Statement-B: Each Malpighian tubule in Periplaneta is lined by glandular and ciliated cells.
1. Both statements A and B are incorrect.
2. Both statements A and B are correct.
3. Only statement A is correct.
4. Only statement B is correct.

59. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option:

	Column- I		Column-II
a.	Pennatula	(i)	Sea-lily
b.	Gorgonia	(ii)	Sea-hare
c.	Antedon	(iii)	Sea-pen
d.	Aplysia	(iv)	Sea-fan
		(v)	Sea-urchin

1. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
2. a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(v)
3. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
4. a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(ii)

60.

In the given diagram of areolar tissue, identify a phagocytic cell :

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

61. The process of defecation is a voluntary process and is carried out by a mass peristaltic movement. ‘Peristalsis’ mentioned in the above statement is associated with which tissue from the options given below?

1.		2.
3.		4.

62. Match List I with List II:

List I	List II
A. Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic acoelomate animal with flame cells	I. Limulus
B. Bilaterally symmetrical animal with calcareous shell and mantle cavity	II. Pleurobrachia
C. Radically symmetrical animal with ciliated comb plates and exclusively marine	III. Fasciola hepatica
D. Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, coelomate animals with a chitinous exoskeleton	IV. Dentalium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A -II, B- IV, C-III, D-II
2. A -IV, B- II, C-III, D-I
3. A -III, B- IV, C-II, D-I
4. A -III, B- IV, C-I, D-II

63. Which one of the following sets of items in the options is correctly categorized with one exception in it?

	Items	Category	Exception
1.	Protista, Fungi and Plantae	Nuclear membrane present	Protista
2.	Reptiles, Birds, and Mammals	Homoiotherms	Reptiles
3.	Fish, Frog, and Snake	Three chambered heart	Snake
4.	Pristis, Labeo, Trygon	Operculum present	Trygon

64.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Periplaneta americana?
1. Uricotelism
2. Mosaic vision
3. Dioecious
4. Holometabolous development

65. Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.

Statement A:	The most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of milk-producing mammary glands.
Statement B:	Mammals have one pair of limbs, adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing swimming, or flying.

1. Both statements A and B are correct.
2. Only statement A is incorrect.
3. Both statements A and B are incorrect.
4. Only statement B is incorrect.

66. Read the following statements (A) and (B) with respect to bony fishes and choose the correct answer from the following given options.

Statement (A):	Osteichthyes includes both marine and freshwater fishes with a bony endoskeleton.
Statement (B):	Their body is streamlined and their mouth is ventral in position.

1. Both statements (A) and (B) are correct.
2. Only statement (A) is incorrect.
3. Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect.
4. Only statement (B) is incorrect.

67. Which one of the following statements among all the four i.e., Sycon, Hirudinaria, Delphinus, and Psittacula is correct?

1.	All are bilaterally symmetrical.
2.	Psittacula is homeothermic whereas Sycon, Hirudinaria, and Delphinus are poikilothermic.
3.	Hirudinaria is a freshwater form whereas all others are marine.
4.	Sycon has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three.

68. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct option:
Squamous epithelium: Air sacs of lungs:: Ciliated epithelium: _____________
1. PCT of nephrons in the kidney
2. Stomach
3. Bronchioles
4. Walls of blood vessels

69. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A:	Reptiles have a 3-chambered heart, except crocodiles which have a 2-chambered heart.
Statement B:	Superclass Pisces shows single circulation as opposed to class Aves which shows double circulation.

1. Both statements are incorrect.
2. Only statement A is correct.
3. Only statement B is correct.
4. Both statements are correct.

70. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, and diploblastic organism is:
1. Pila
2. Nereis
3. Pleurobrachia
4. Asterias

71.

Dense irregular connective tissue is present in:
1. Skin
2. Tendons
3. Ligaments
4. Bone marrow

72. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to compound epithelium:

1.	It covers the dry surface of the buccal cavity, trachea, moist surface of skin, pharynx, etc.
2.	It is made up of more than one layer of cells.
3.	Protecting against chemical and mechanical stresses is its main function.
4.	It plays a limited role in absorption and secretion.

73. Asterias lacks specific locomotory, respiratory, and food-capturing organs but it can carry these functions through a unique system of:
1. Syconoid canal system
2. Water vascular system
3. Metamerism
4. Segmentation

74. Consider the features given below:
(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits
(b) Closed circulatory system
(c) Cartilaginous cranium and vertebral column
The mentioned features are characteristics of:
1. Labeo
2. Petromyzon
3. Bufo
4. Carcharodon

75. Read the following statements carefully with respect to Periplaneta and select the incorrect one:

1.	If the head of the cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week.
2.	Each Malpighian tubule is lined by glandular and ciliated epithelium.
3.	The midgut is broader than the hindgut.
4.	13 chambered heart along a mid-dorsal line of thorax and abdomen.

76. Select the incorrect match:

1.	Porifers	Body with pores and canals in walls
2.	Coelenterates	Presence of cnidoblasts
3.	Platyhelminthes	Flat body and suckers
4.	Arthropods	Chitinous exoskeleton, comb plates

77. Choose the correct match:
1. Balanoglossus – Stomochord
2. Cucumaria – Water canal system
3. Chaetopleura – Chitinous exoskeleton
4. Octopus – Dorsal hollow nerve cord

78.

The epithelium shown in the given diagram is found in :

1. Proximal convoluted Tubule
2. Small intestine
3. Fallopian tube
4. Thyroid follicle cells

79.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below:

Tissue		Location
(a)	Simple Squamous	(i)	Blood vessels epithelium
(b)	Cuboidal brush	(ii)	PCT of nephron-bordered epithelium
(c)	Dense irregular	(iii)	In the skin connective
(d)	Areolar	(iv)	Beneath the skin

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
2.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
3.	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)
4.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)

80.

In Amphibia:
I. Skin is moist without scales
II. A tympanum represents the ear
III. Fertilization is external
1. Only I and II are correct.
2. Only I and III are correct.
3. Only II and III are correct.
4. I, II, and III are correct.

81.

What is not true regarding Cnidarians?

1.	Body is made up of distinct tissues but true organs have not evolved
2.	They are carnivores
3.	They may have two body forms – polyps and medusa
4.	The digestion is completely intra-cellular

82. Gnathostomata has two _____A_________ , ________B_________ and Tetrapoda. Classes Chondrichthyes and ______C________ bear fins for locomotion and are grouped under ______D_________ . Choose the option which fills the blanks A, B, C, and D correctly.

	A	B	C	D
1.	Classes	Pisces	Cyclostomata	Tetrapoda
2.	Superclasses	Pisces	Osteichthyes	Pisces
3.	Superclasses	Vertebrata	Osteichthyes	Tetrapoda
4.	Classes	Pisces	Osteichthyes	Gnathostomata

83. Radial symmetry is found in:
1. Sponges, Coelenterates, Ctenophores
2. Annelids, Porifera, Platyhelminthes
3. Coelenterates, Ctenophores, Echinoderms
4. Coelenterates, Ctenophores, Platyhelminthes

84.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding Class Cyclostomata:

1. All are ectoparasites on some fishes.
2. They have sucking and circular mouths without jaws.
3. Their body is devoid of scaled and paired fins.
4. The circulatory system is of open type.

85.

Which of the following would be a characteristic of the animal shown in the given diagram?

1. Excretory organ is the proboscis gland.
2. They migrate for spawning to fresh water.
3. Notochord is present only in the larval tail.
4. Parapodia are present for swimming.

Zoology - Section B

86. Identify phyla A and B from the following set of features in the box given below:

	Features	Phylum A	Phylum B
a.	Presence of 3 germ layers	Absent	Present
b.	Hermaphroditism	Present	Present
c.	Regeneration	Present	Present in some members
d.	Digestive System	Absent	Incomplete

Select the correct option:

	A	B
1.	Platyhelminthes	Arthropoda
2.	Porifera	Platyhelminthes
3.	Cnidaria	Aschelminthes
4.	Ctenophora	Annelida

87.

Dense irregular connective tissue is present in:
1. Tendons
2. Ligaments
3. Skin
4. Cartilage

88.

The presence of anal styles distinguishes male cockroaches from females. It is present on :
1. Ninth tergite
2. Ninth sternite
3. Tenth tergite
4. Tenth sternite

89. Organism (a) differs from (b) in having:

1. Presence of one auricle and one ventricle
2. External fertilisation
3. Separate sexes
4. Lack of capacity to regulate body temperature

90.

Which of the following connects the cytoplasm of adjoining epithelial cells?
1. Tight junctions
2. Adhering junctions
3. Gap junctions
4. All of these

91.

Which of the following statements is not true about Nematodes?
1. They are bilaterally symmetrical, un-segmented worms.
2. They are covered with a flexible, thick cuticle that is molted four times as they grow.
3. They possess cilia or flagella on their reproductive cells.
4. They possess a hydrostatic skeleton.

92.

The number of correct statements, regarding cockroaches, among the given statements is:

I.	Dorsal sclerites are called sternites and ventral sclerites are called tergites.
II.	While the labrum is the upper lip and the labium is the lower lip, the hypopharynx acts as the tongue.
III.	Anal cerci are seen in both sexes but anal styles are found in male cockroaches only.
IV.	Each thoracic segment bears a pair of walking legs.
V.	Forewings called tegmina are used in flight while the hind wings are opaque, dark, and leathery.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

93.

Consider the following sets of some animals. The set that consists of all animals belonging to the same phylum is:
1. Pinctada, Aplysia, Chaetopleura
2. Dentallium, Pila, Echinus
3. Asterias, Antedon, Ascidia
4. Adamsia, Gorgonia, Pleurobrachia

94. Choose the correct option to complete the analogy:
Sawfish: Gill slits are present: : _____: Gill slits are absent.
1. Dogfish
2. Devilfish
3. Stingray
4. Angelfish

95.

Sperms are stored in?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

96.

The mouth part of the cockroach shown in the given diagram acts as a/an:

1. Upper lip
2. Tongue
3. Lower lip
4. Uvula

97.

Mark the incorrect match related to the cockroach:

1.	Gizzard	→	Grinding the food particle.
2.	Malpighian tubule	→	Absorb uric acid from haemolymph and excreted out through the hindgut.
3.	Tegmina	→	Opaque, dark and leathery structure and cover the hind wing when at rest.
4.	Collateral gland	→	Formation of ootheca after fertilization in the female genital pouch.

98.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Animals	Feature present in both
1.	Balanoglossus and Pinctada	Open circulatory system
2.	Branchiostoma and Ascidia	Persistent notochord
3.	Aplysia and Pheretima	True coelom
4.	Gorgonia and Pennatula	Cnidoblasts

99.

The number of correct statements amongst the given statements is:
I. The digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete.
II. Coelenterates, Ctenophores, and Echinoderm larvae are radially symmetrical.
III. Bilateral symmetry is seen in annelids and arthropods but not in mollusks.
IV. Notochord is a mesodermally derived structure formed on the dorsal side in some animals.
V. Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

100.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Ornithorhynchus:	Oviparous mammal
2.	Macropus:	Marsupial mammal
3.	Balaenoptera:	Largest land mammal
4.	Pteropus:	Flying mammal

Chemistry - Section A

101. For the heterolytic cleavage of the given reaction:
$\text {CH}_3 \text {CH}_2 \text {Cu} \rightarrow \text {A and B} $
'A' and 'B', respectively, are:
1. $^-CH_2CH_3 ~~and~ ~^-Cu $
2. $^{+}CH_2CH_3 ~~and~ ~^-Cu $
3. $^-CH_2CH_3 ~~and~ ~^+Cu $
4. $^+ Cu ~~and~ ~^-Cu $

102.

The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is:

1.	${({CH}_3})_2 \dot{{C}}H<{({CH}_3})_3 \dot{{C}}<{({C}_6 {H}_5})_2 \dot{{C}}H <{({C}_6 {H}_5})_3 \dot{{C}}$
2.	$({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{3} \dot{{C}}<({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{2} \dot{{C}} {H}<({{CH}_{3})}_{3} \dot{{C}}<({{CH}_{3})}_{2} \dot{{C}}H$
3.	$({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{2} \dot{{C}} {H}<({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{3} \dot{{C}}<({{CH}_{3})}_{3} \dot{{C}} <({{CH}_{3})}_{2} \dot{{C}}H $
4.	$({{CH}_{3})}_{2} \dot{{C}} {H}<({{CH}_{3})}_{3} \dot{{C}}<({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{3} \dot{{C}} <({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{2} \dot{{CH}}$

103.

Statement I:	2-Methylbutane and 2,2-Dimethylpropane are chain isomers.
Statement II:	Metamerism arises due to different alkyl chains on either side of the polyvalent functional group in a molecule.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

1.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

104. Compounds A, B, C, D, E, and F are the following:

A.	$\mathrm{CH}_{2}=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{CHO}$
B.	$\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{2} \mathrm{C}=\mathrm{C} \left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{2}$
C.	$ \ \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}$
D.	$ \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CH}_{2}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}$
E.	$ \mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CH}_{2}$
F.	$\mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}, $

The compounds that can give aldehyde(s) upon ozonolysis is/are:
1. A, B, D and F
2. A, C and E
3. B, D and E
4. A only

105.

How many atoms of hydrogen are there in 3.0 kg of ethane?
[relative atomic mass: H=1, C=12; Avagadro constant= $6.0 \times 10^{23}$ per mol]
1. $3.6 \times 10^{26}$
2. $3.9 \times 10^{26}$
3. $6.0 \times 10^{25}$
4. $3.6 \times 10^{23}$

106. IUPAC name of the following compound is:

1. 1-Ethyl-4,4-dimethyl cyclopentane
2. 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl cyclopentane
3. 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclopentane
4. 4-Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl cyclopentane

107. For the following molecules/intermediates/species:
A - BH₃; B - SiH₄; C - PCl₃; D - :CH₂; E - NH₃
Which of the above are electrophiles?
1. A, B, C, and D only.
2. A, B, and C only.
3. A only.
4. A and D only.

108.

In an estimation of bromine by the Carius method, 1.6 g of an organic compound gave 1.88 g of AgBr. The mass percentage of bromine in the compound is-
[Atomic mass, Ag=108, Br = 80 g ${mol}^{- 1}$ ]
1. 50 %
2. 55.5%
3. 60 %
4. 70 %

109. Which of the following pairs does not represent resonance structures?

1.
2.
3.
4.

110. Which among the following is meta directing group towards aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction?
1. $-\text {NHCOCH}_3 $
2. $-\text {CH}_3 $
3. $-\text {Cl} $
4. $-\text {COR} $

111. The number of hydrogens that are involved in hyperconjugation in the given organic compound A are:

1.	12	2.	13
3.	15	4.	16

112.

With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
1. Bond angle changes but bond length remains the same
2. Both bond angle and bond length change
3. Both bond angle and bond length remain the same
4. Bond angle remains the same but the bond length changes

113. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom in $XeF^+_5 ~, ~SO_2 $ and $XeF_4$ , respectively, are:
1. 2, 1, 2
2. 1, 1, 1
3. 1, 0, 2
4. 1, 1, 2

114.

Geometrical isomerism is not shown by:
1. 1,1-Dichloro-1-pentene
2. 1,2-Dichloro-1-pentene
3. 1,3-Dichloro-2-pentene
4. 1,4-Dichloro-2-pentene

115.

The major product (P), in the reaction given below, is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

116.

Statement I:	Inductive effect and resonance are permanent effects.
Statement II:	The energy of the actual structure of the molecule (the resonance hybrid) is higher than that of any of the canonical structures.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct option :

1.	Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
2.	Both statement I and statement II are correct.
3.	Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
4.	Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

117. The type of isomer shown by the following compounds is:

1. Geometrical isomers
2. Positional isomers
3. Optical isomers
4. Functional group isomers

118. An atom has an atomic number x and a mass number of 2x + 6. How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this atom?
1. 6
2. x – 6
3. x + 3
4. x + 6

119. The organic compound which can be purified by steam distillation is:
1. Acetone
2. Aniline
3. Glucose
4. Ethanol

120. Iodination of a hydrocarbon (C-H→C-I) with molecular iodine is a slow and reversible reaction. However, it can be carried out in the presence of an oxidizing agent such as:
1. H₃BO₃
2. HIO₃
3. H₃PO₄
4. CH₃CO₂H

121. Assertion: Amines are pyramidal in shape.
Reason: N-atom is sp³ hybridized.

1.	Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2.	Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3.	Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
4.	Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

122.

The increasing order of the reactivity of the following compounds toward electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions (EASR) is:


(I)	(II)	(III)

1. III < II < I
2. III < I < II
3. II < I < III
4. I < III < II

123. A molecule that has 1°, 2° and 3° carbon atoms is:
1. 2,3,4-trimethylpentane
2. chlorocyclohexane
3. 1,1-dimethyl cyclohexane
4. methylcyclohexane

124.

In the following benzyl/allyl system

the decreasing order of inductive effect is-
1. (CH₃)₃C- > (CH₃)₂CH- > CH₃CH₂-
2. CH₃CH₂- >(CH₃)₂CH- > (CH₃)₃C-
3. (CH₃)₂CH- > CH₃CH₂- > (CH₃)₃C-
4. (CH₃)₃C- > CH₃CH₂- > (CH₃)₂CH-

125. Among (a)-column chromatography; (b)-paper chromatography and (c)-thin layer chromatography, an example of partition chromatography is:
1. a and b only
2. b and c only
3. b only
4. c only

126. Ammonium molybdate is the reagent used to detect:
1. Nitrogen as nitrate
2. Phosphorous as phosphate
3. Sulphur as sulfate
4. Iodine as iodate

127. Consider the following reactions.

Major products A and B respectively are-

1.
2.
3.
4.

128. The most stable carbocation among the following is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

129.

In which of the following arrangements the order is not according to the property indicated against it?

1.	Li < Na < K < Rb : Increasing metallic radius
2.	I < Br < F < Cl: Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
3.	B < C < N < O: Increasing first ionisation enthalpy
4.	Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F^- : Increasing ionic size

130.

Which of the following statement is correct?

1.	Alkyne is more reactive towards electrophilic addition than alkene
2.	Addition of HBr to an unsymmetrical alkene takes place according to anti-Markownikoff's rule
3.	${CH}_{3} \overset{+}{C} {HCH}_{3}$ is more stable than ${CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} \overset{+}{C} {HCH}_{3}$
4.	All of the above

131. Which of the following compounds is aromatic?

1.		2.
3.		4.

132. Consider the following reactions.

(i)	$\begin{aligned} CH_4+O_2\xrightarrow[\Delta]{Mo_2O_3}A\text{(major)} & \\ \end{aligned}$
(ii)	$\begin{aligned} (CH_3)_3CH\xrightarrow{~~KMnO_4~~}B\text{(major)} & \\ \end{aligned}$

Major products (A) and (B), respectively, are:
1. Methanol and acetone
2. Methanal and Acetaldehyde
3. Methanal and 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
4. Methanol and 2-Methylpropan-2-ol

133.

Statement I:	In the Lassaigne test, an organic compound with both N and S, responds to the test of SCN^-.
Statement II:	In the Lassaigne test, if Na is taken in excess, it destroys SCN^- and forms Na₂S and NaCN.

1. Statement-I is correct only.
2. Statement-II is correct only.
3. Both statement-I & II are correct.
4. None of the statements is correct.

134. 0.102 g of an organic compound X was oxidized with fuming nitric acid. The resulting solution, after a reaction with an excess of aqueous BaCl₂, produced 0.233 g of BaSO₄as a precipitate.
The percentage of sulphur in the compound is:
[Given: Atomic wt. of Ba = 137]
1. 31.4 %
2. 37.2 %
3. 42.1 %
4. 26.4 %

135. The compound that reacts with a dilute, aqueous solution of potassium permanganate to give a corresponding alcohol is:
1. Propane
2. 2-Methylpropane
3. Ethane
4. Cyclohexene

Chemistry - Section B

136. Pairs of structural formulae among the following that represent(s) structural isomers is/are:

(A)	CH₃CH₂OH and CH₃OCH₃
(B)	CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂CH₂CH₃ and CH₃CH₂CH₂CH(CH₃)CH₃
(C)	CH(OH)=CHCH₂OH and CH₃CH₂COOH

1. A only
2. A, B, and C
3. A and C only
4. B and C only

137.

Compound x and y respectively in the above reaction is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

138.

$C - H$ bond length is minimum in:
1. Ethene
2. Ethyne
3. Ethane
4. Methane

139. In Mendeleev's periodic table, a number of series and groups are X and Y respectively. X and Y are:
1. X=12, Y=9
2. X=8, Y=9
3. X=8, Y=8
4. X=12, Y=8

140. Arrange them in order of increasing the energies of the orbitals:
A. n=3, l=2
B. n=4, l=1
C. n=5, l=0
D. n=4, l=0
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A < B < D < C
2. A < D < B < C
3. D < A < B < C
4. D < A < C < B

141.

Among the following, the least stable resonance structure is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

142.

Atoms X and Y form an ionic compound with the formula XY₂.
Which option below could give the correct atomic numbers for X and Y?
1. X = 11; Y = 16
2. X = 3; Y = 17
3. X = 12; Y = 9
4. X = 6; Y = 16

143. Among the following, the structure which does NOT represent 2-methyl butane is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

144.

The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :

1. 5-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
2. 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
3. 2-methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene
4. 3-chloro-4-methyl-1- nitrobenzene

145. Select the correct statement:

1.	cis-But-2-ene has a higher boiling point than trans-But-2-ene.
2.	cis-But-2-ene has a lower boiling point than trans-But-2-ene.
3.	cis-But-2-ene has a lower dipole point than trans-But-2-ene.
4.	cis-But-2-ene is non-polar.

146.

According to Fajan's rule polarization is more with:
1. Small cation and large anion
2. Small cation and small anion
3. Large cation and large anion
4. Large cation and small anion

147.

The molality of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI is:
(molar mass of KI = 166 g mol^–1)
1. 1.51
2. 1.35
3. 1.08
4. 1.48

148. Consider the following compounds. The Kjeldahl method is not applicable for estimating nitrogen in how many of the given compounds?

1.	5	2.	3
3.	2	4.	4

149.

Assertion (A):	Addition reaction of water to but-1-ene in acidic medium yields butan-1-ol.
Reason (R):	Addition of water in acidic medium proceeds through the formation of primary carbocation.

1.	Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2.	Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3.	Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false.
4.	Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

150.

The correct order of abstraction of hydrogen toward homolytic fission is:
1. 2 > 4 > 3 > 5 > 1
2. 4 > 2 > 5 > 3 > 1
3. 4 > 2 > 3 > 5 > 1
4. 4 > 3 > 2 > 5 > 1

Physics - Section A

151. The moment of inertia for a uniform square sheet about an axis passing through its centre and lying in the plane is:

1.	maximum about its diagonal axis.
2.	minimum about an axis which is perpendicular to the sides of the square.
3.	both (1) and (2).
4.	same for all axis.

152. Two blocks of mass $m$ and $2m$ are connected with a string which is passing over a pulley (disc) of mass $m$ and radius $R$ as shown in the figure. If the system is released from rest, then the acceleration of the block will be:

1. $g/5$
2. $2g/7$
3. $g/3$
4. $2g/3$

153. A batsman hits a ball with a speed of $14\sqrt2$ ms^-1 in a direction $45^\circ$ above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the ball will be:
1. $20.0$ m
2. $10.0$ m
3. $\frac{\sqrt2}{0.7}$ m
4. $14\sqrt2$ m

154. In uniform circular motion of a particle, the quantity that keeps changing is:
1. angular velocity
2. angular momentum
3. kinetic energy
4. acceleration

155.

A particle of mass $1$ kg starts from origin under the force as shown by the graph. The velocity of the particle at $x =2$ m is:

1. $\sqrt{40}$ m/s
2.   $\sqrt{20}$ m/s
3.   $\sqrt{10}$ m/s
4. $40$ m/s

156. Work done by force of friction is:

1.	always zero
2.	always negative
3.	always positive
4.	may be zero, positive or negative

157. A uniform rod of length $5$ m has mass of $10$ kg. It is fixed about one end and rotated in the horizontal plane with an angular speed of $2$ rad/s. The tension in the rod at $3$ m from the fixed pivoted end is:
1. $32$ N
2. $48$ N
3. $96$ N
4. $64$ N

158. Two points masses with masses $m_{A}=2$ g and $m_{B}=3$ g are connected by a massless rod of length $1$ m (see figure below). The center of mass of the system will lie at a distance of:

1. $0.4$ m from $m_{A}$
2. $0.6$ m from $m_{A}$
3. $0.5$ m from $m_{A}$
4. $0.7$ m from $m_{A}$

159. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The magnitude of the momentum of a body is directly proportional to its kinetic energy.
Statement II:	Kinetic energy increases whenever an external force acts on a moving body.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

160. Two vectors $\vec A$ and $\vec B$ are acting at an angle $\theta$ on an object. If the magnitude of their vector product is $\sqrt3$ times their scalar product, the angle $\theta$ between them is:
1. $30^\circ$
2. $45^\circ$
3. $60^\circ$
4. $90^\circ$

161. The escape velocity of a body from the surface of a planet is $v_{e}.$ A particle starts from rest at a large distance from the planet, reaches the planet only under gravitational attraction, and passes through a smooth tunnel through its centre. Its speed at the surface of the planet will be:
1. $\sqrt{1.5}v_{e}$
2. $\frac{v_{e}}{\sqrt{2}}$
3. $v_{e}$
4. zero

162. A force is applied to a hollow spherical shell so that it acts through its centre. It causes an acceleration of $3$ m/s². If the same force is applied to the spherical shell, acting tangent to its surface, the acceleration will be: (Assuming no friction is available.)
1. $3$ m/s²
2. $2$ m/s²
3. zero
4. $1$ m/s²

163. An instrument with a small least count will have definitely:

1.	high accuracy and high precision
2.	low accuracy and low precision
3.	high accuracy
4.	high precision

164. A car covers AB distance with the first one-third at velocity $v_{1}$ m/s, second one-third at $v_{2}$ m/s and last one-third at $v_{3}$ m/s. If $v_3 = 3v_1 , ~v_2 = 2v_1$ and $v_1 = 11 $ m/s then the average velocity of the car is:

1. $12$ m/s
2. $18$ m/s
3. $16$ m/s
4. $11$ m/s

165.

The diagram shows a uniform horizontal beam of negligible mass, $5.0$ m long, placed on two supports, one at each end. It has a $300$ N weight placed $1.0$ m from one end and a $500$ N weight placed $1.0$ m from the other end. Both weights act vertically on the beam as shown in the diagram.

What are the upward forces from the two supports acting on the beam?
1. $340$ N and $460$ N
2. $300$ N and $500$ N
3. $240$ N and $560$ N
4. $400$ N and $400$ N

166. A uniform rod of mass $m$ and length $l$ is in uniform translational motion. If one of its ends is suddenly hinged then (hinge is smooth):

1.	It will continue its translational motion.
2.	It will now be in pure rotational motion about the hinged end.
3.	It will now have combined translational and rotational motion.
4.	It will stop.

167. An object is thrown vertically upwards. At its maximum height, which of the following quantity becomes zero?
1. momentum
2. potential energy
3. acceleration
4. force

168. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The kinetic energy of a planet is maximum when it is closest to the sun.
Statement II:	The time taken by a planet to move from the closest position (perihelion) to the farthest position (aphelion) is larger for a planet that is farther from the sun.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

169. A man standing on a still boat jumps out horizontally with a speed of $20$ m/s with respect to the boat. If the mass of a man is $70$ kg and that of the boat is $210$ kg, then the speed of the boat after the man jumps will be:
1. $20$ m/s
2. $6.67$ m/s
3. $5$ m/s
4. $15$ m/s

170. Three rods of the same mass are placed as shown in the figure. What will be the coordinates of the center of mass of the system?

1. $(a / 2, a / 2)$
2. $\text { (a/ } \sqrt{2}, a / \sqrt{2})$
3. $\left(\frac{\sqrt{2} a}{3}, \frac{\sqrt{2} a}{3}\right)$
4. $\left(\frac{a}{3}, \frac{a}{3}\right)$

171. In the case of rifle shooting, the kick will be maximum when:

1.	a light rifle is held loosely against the shoulder.
2.	a light rifle is held tightly against the shoulder.
3.	a heavy rifle is held loosely against the shoulder.
4.	a heavy rifle is held tightly against the shoulder.

172. If the error in the measurement of the momentum of a particle is $(+100\text{%})$ then the error in the measurement of kinetic energy is:
1. $100\text{%}$
2. $200\text{%}$
3. $300\text{%}$
4. $400\text{%}$

173. The distance of the Sun from Earth is $1.5\times10^{11}$ m and its angular diameter is $(2000)$ s when observed from the earth. The diameter of the Sun will be:
1. $2.45\times10^{10}$ m
2. $1.45\times10^{10}$ m
3. $1.45\times10^{9}$ m
4. $0.14\times10^{9}$ m

174. A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration $2$ rad/s² about its axis. Initially, its angular velocity is $10$ rad/s. In the first $2$ s, it rotates through an angle ${\mathit{\theta}}_{1}$, in the next $2$ s it rotates through an additional angle ${\mathit{\theta}}_{2}$. The ratio of $\frac{{\mathit{\theta}}_{2}}{{\mathit{\theta}}_{1}}$ is:
1. $1/2$
2. $3/5$
3. $3/4$
4. $4/3$

175. In the following figure, if the inclined plane is smooth, what will be the acceleration of the $1$ kg block?

1.	$g/3$ downwards
2.	$g/3$ upwards
3.	$g/6$ downwards
4.	will be in equilibrium

176. The number of significant figures in the physical quantity $2.56\times 10^5$ kg is:
1. $1$
2. $2$
3. $3$
4. $5$

177.

If the axis of rotation of the earth were extended into space then it would pass close to:

1.	the moon.
2.	the sun.
3.	the pole star.
4.	the centre of mass of all the planets in the solar system.

178. A piece of wood of mass $60$ g is dropped from the top of a $100$ m high building. At the same time, a bullet of mass $30$ g fired vertically upward, with a velocity of $100$ m/s from the ground. If the bullet gets embedded in the wood then the maximum height (from the ground) to which the combined system reaches, will be: (Take $g=10$ m/s²)
1. $27.22$ m
2. $78.55$ m
3. $84.55$ m
4. $122.22$ m

179.

In the following displacement $(x)$ versus time $(t)$ graph, at which points P, Q, and R will the object's speed be increasing?

1. R only
2. P only
3. Q and R only
4. P, Q, R

180. The body of mass $1.5$ kg rotating about an axis with angular velocity of $0.3$ rad s^-1 has the angular momentum of $1.8$ kg m²s^-1. The radius of gyration of the body about the axis is:

1.	$2$ m	2.	$1.2$ m
3.	$0.2$ m	4.	$1.6$ m

181. A body weighs $72$ N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth from the surface?
1. $72$ N
2. $32$ N
3. $28$ N
4. $16$ N

182. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Axis of rotation of a rigid body cannot lie outside the body.
Reason (R):	It must pass through a material particle of the body.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

183. An astronaut of mass $m$ is inside the earth's satellite. The pseudo force on the astronaut in the frame of the satellite will be (consider the satellite is near to the earth surface):
1. $mg$
2. $mg \over 2$
3. $2mg$
4. zero

184. A particle of mass $m$ starts from rest at a large distance from the planet of mass $M,$ reaches the planet only under gravitational attraction and passes through smooth tunnel through its centre. The gravitational potential energy of the particle at the centre will be: ($R$ is the radius of the planet)
1. $-\frac{GMm}{2R}$
2. $-\frac{GMm}{R}$
3. $-\frac{3GMm}{2R}$
4. $-\frac{3GMm}{R}$

185.

A block of mass $3$ kg is placed on a rough surface $(\mu=0.2)$ and a variable force acts on it. Variation of acceleration of block with time is correctly shown by the graph:

1.		2.
3.		4.

Physics - Section B

186. A body of mass $60~ \text{g}$ experiences a gravitational force of $3.0~\text{N}$ when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is:

1.	$180 ~\text{N/kg}$	2.	$0.05 ~\text{N/kg}$
3.	$50 ~\text{N/kg}$	4.	$20 ~\text{N/kg}$

187. The angular speed of a flywheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from $1200$ rpm to $3120$ rpm in $16$ s. The angular acceleration in rad/s² is:
1. $104 \pi$
2. $2\pi$
3. $4\pi$
4. $12\pi$

188.

A particle is projected at a time $t=0$ with a speed $v_{0}$ and at an angle with the horizontal in a uniform gravitational field. Then which of the following graph represents power delivered by gravitational force against time $(t)$?

1.		2.
3.		4.

189. Suppose the kinetic energy of a body oscillating with amplitude $A$ and at distance $x $ is given by $K=\frac{Bx}{(A^2+x^2)}$. The dimensions of $B$ are same as that of:
1. $\text{Power}$
2. $\text{Work} \times \text{Distance}$
3. $\text{Force}$
4. $\text{Work} \times \text{Time}$

190. Time taken by a pendulum to complete $10$ oscillations is $35.2$ seconds. What is the time period of a pendulum in seconds with appropriate significant figures?
1. $3.52$ s
2. $3.5$ s
3. $3.520$ s
4. $3.6$ s

191. The study of the motion of objects, without consideration of its cause, is:

1.	statics	2.	kinematics
3.	mechanics	4.	dynamics

192. A boat is rowed across a $400$ m wide river so that it can reach the opposite bank in a minimum of $10$ minutes. No matter which direction the boat is rowed in, it cannot reach a point exactly opposite on the other bank, unless it is rowed at a slightly higher speed. The speed of flow of the river is:

1.	$2.4$ km/h	2.	$4.8$ km/h
3.	$2.4\sqrt2$ km/h	4.	$\frac{2.4}{\sqrt2}$ km/h

193. The gravitational potential energy of a particle of mass $m$ increases by $mgh,$ when it is raised through a height $h$ in a uniform gravitational field "$g$". If a particle of mass $m$ is raised through a height $h$ in the earth's gravitational field ($g$: the field on the earth's surface) and the increase in gravitational potential energy is $U$, then:

1.	$U > mgh$
2.	$U < mgh$
3.	$U = mgh$
4.	any of the above may be true depending on the value of $h,$ considered relative to the radius of the earth.

194. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation,

$\theta(t)=2t^{3}-6t^{2}$
The torque on the wheel becomes zero at:
1. $t=0.5$ s
2. $t=0.25$ s
3. $t=2$ s
4. $t=1$ s

195. Consider that force $F$ acting on a body as a function of position $(x)$ and time $(t)$ is expressed as $F=A \sin \left(k_1 x\right)+B \cos \left(k_2 t\right)$. From the given information, match column I with column II.

	Column I		Column II
(A)	Dimensions of $A$	(P)	$[M^0L^0T^{-1}]$
(B)	Dimensions of $k_{1}$	(Q)	$[M^0L^{-1}T^{-1}]$
(C)	Dimensions of $k_{2}$	(R)	$[MLT^{-2}]$
(D)	Dimensions of $k_{1}k_{2}$	(S)	$[M^0L^{-1}T^{0}]$

1.	A → R, B → S, C → P, D → Q
2.	A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
3.	A → R, B → P, C → Q, D → S
4.	A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R

196.

From a circular disc of radius $R$ and mass $9M,$ a small disc of radius $R/3$ is removed from the disc. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through 'O' is:

1. $4MR^{2}$
2. $\frac{40}{9}MR^{2}$
3. $10MR^{2}$
4. $\frac{37}{9}MR^{2}$

197. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	For a given initial and final position the average velocity is single-valued while the average speed can have many values.
Reason (R):	Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

198.

Two planets are in a circular orbit of radius $R$ and $4R$ about a star. At a specific time, the two planets and the star are in a straight line. If the period of the closest planet is $T,$ then the star and planets will again be in a straight line after a minimum time:

1.	$(4)^2T$	2.	$(4)^{\frac13}T$
3.	$2T$	4.	$8T$

199. A student measures the time period of $100$ oscillations of a simple pendulum four times. That data set is $90$ s, $91$ s, $95$ s and $92$ s. If the minimum division in the measuring clock is $1$ s, then the reported mean time should be:
1. $92\pm 5.0\ $s
2. $92\pm 1.8\ $s
3. $92\pm 3\ $s
4. $92\pm 2\ $s

200.

A ball is thrown vertically upward and it reaches the highest point in $4$ s. Immediately, a second ball is thrown upwards with an initial speed that is twice that of the first. The second ball meets the first after a time:
1. $1$ s
2. $2$ s
3. $3$ s
4. $4$ s

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1.	\({({CH}_3})_2 \dot{{C}}H<{({CH}_3})_3 \dot{{C}}<{({C}_6 {H}_5})_2 \dot{{C}}H <{({C}_6 {H}_5})_3 \dot{{C}}\)
2.	\(({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{3} \dot{{C}}<({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{2} \dot{{C}} {H}<({{CH}_{3})}_{3} \dot{{C}}<({{CH}_{3})}_{2} \dot{{C}}H\)
3.	\(({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{2} \dot{{C}} {H}<({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{3} \dot{{C}}<({{CH}_{3})}_{3} \dot{{C}} <({{CH}_{3})}_{2} \dot{{C}}H \)
4.	\(({{CH}_{3})}_{2} \dot{{C}} {H}<({{CH}_{3})}_{3} \dot{{C}}<({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{3} \dot{{C}} <({{C}_{6} {H}_{5})}_{2} \dot{{CH}}\)

A.	\(\mathrm{CH}_{2}=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{CHO}\)
B.	\(\left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{2} \mathrm{C}=\mathrm{C} \left(\mathrm{CH}_{3}\right)_{2}\)
C.	\( \ \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}\)
D.	\( \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CH}_{2}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}\)
E.	\( \mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CH}_{2}\)
F.	\(\mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}, \)

(i)	\(\begin{aligned} CH_4+O_2\xrightarrow[\Delta]{Mo_2O_3}A\text{(major)} & \\ \end{aligned}\)
(ii)	\(\begin{aligned} (CH_3)_3CH\xrightarrow{~~KMnO_4~~}B\text{(major)} & \\ \end{aligned}\)

1.	\(g/3\) downwards
2.	\(g/3\) upwards
3.	\(g/6\) downwards
4.	will be in equilibrium

1.	\(180 ~\text{N/kg}\)	2.	\(0.05 ~\text{N/kg}\)
3.	\(50 ~\text{N/kg}\)	4.	\(20 ~\text{N/kg}\)

1.	\(2.4\) km/h	2.	\(4.8\) km/h
3.	\(2.4\sqrt2\) km/h	4.	\(\frac{2.4}{\sqrt2}\) km/h

1.	\(U > mgh\)
2.	\(U < mgh\)
3.	\(U = mgh\)
4.	any of the above may be true depending on the value of \(h,\) considered relative to the radius of the earth.

	Column I		Column II
(A)	Dimensions of \(A\)	(P)	\([M^0L^0T^{-1}]\)
(B)	Dimensions of \(k_{1}\)	(Q)	\([M^0L^{-1}T^{-1}]\)
(C)	Dimensions of \(k_{2}\)	(R)	\([MLT^{-2}]\)
(D)	Dimensions of \(k_{1}k_{2}\)	(S)	\([M^0L^{-1}T^{0}]\)

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