Test 7 (Class 12)- Recall (Old NCERT)

Biology 1 - Section A

1.

pBR322 does not contain the site for:

1.	Pvu I	2.	BamH I
3.	Sma I	4.	EcoR I

2.

The plantlets produced during plant tissue culture are called somaclones because:

1.	They can be produced in a very short span of time
2.	They are the result of the somatic hybridization of two cells
3.	The gametes develop parthenogenetically to produce genetically identical plantlets
4.	They are genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown

3. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	In Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology [MOET], the fertilised eggs at 8-32 cell stages, are transferred to surrogate mothers and not to the genetic mothers.
Reason (R):	Genetic mothers normally do not have a uterus and cannot support gestation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are false.
2.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

4.

In agarose gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments produced by restriction enzyme digestion:

1.	will move towards anode with smaller fragments moving farther than the larger segments
2.	will move towards anode with larger fragments moving farther than the smaller segments
3.	will move towards cathode with smaller fragments moving farther than the larger segments
4.	will move towards cathode with larger fragments moving farther than the smaller segments

5.

Cocaine acts through:

1.	Interfering with the action of acetylcholine
2.	Potentiating catecholamines
3.	Interfering with the transport of dopamine
4.	Releasing endorphins and enkephalins

6.

Which among the following is a cloning vector?

1.	EcoRI	2.	BamHI
3.	pUC18	4.	Sal I

7.

In an antibody molecule, an antigen binding site is located:
1. In the constant portion
2. At the C – terminus of a heavy chain
3. Between a light and a heavy chain
4. Between two heavy chains

8. Identify the correct statements:

Statement I:	In 1963, two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in E.coli were isolated.
Statement II:	In 1968, the first restriction endonuclease, that always cut DNA molecules by recognising a specific sequence six base pairs, was isolated and characterised.

1.	Only Statement I
2.	Only Statement II
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II
4.	Neither Statement I nor Statement II

9.

Haemozoin is a:

1.	precursor of hemoglobin
2.	toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
3.	toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
4.	toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells

10.

Study the diagram given and choose the correct statement:

1.	A: Retrovirus replicates outside the cell
2.	B: Viral DNA is produced by the host's enzyme - reverse transcriptase
3.	C: Viral DNA incorporates into the host genome
4.	D: New viral DNA is produced by the infected cell

11.

Interferons are secreted by:

1.	Virus infected cells	2.	The viruses themselves
3.	Natural killer cells	4.	T helper cells

12.

Methylophilus methylotrophus is a source of:

1.	Bioinsecticide	2.	Single cell protein
3.	Thrombolytic	4.	Clotting factors

13.

What advantage does the mycobiont get in the mycorrhizal symbiotic relationship?

1.	Adequate uptake of water
2.	More availability of minerals like phosphorus
3.	Availability of carbohydrates for energy
4.	Resistance to diseases, drought, and salinity

14.

Lactic Acid Bacillus, while used for converting milk to curd, increases the nutritional value of curd by adding vitamin:

1.	A	2.	B₁₂
3.	C	4.	D

15.

During the secondary or biological treatment of sewage water:

I.	The BOD of the wastewater gets reduced significantly.
II.	The activated sludge contains aerobic micro-organisms that can clump together.
III.	The entire activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge digesters.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only I and II are correct
3. I, II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are incorrect

16.

The work of which of the following scientists led to the establishment of the discipline of modern biotechnology?

1.	Banting and Best	2.	Bolivar and Rodriguez
3.	Hershey and Chase	4.	Cohen and Boyer

17. Consider the following two statements:

Statement I:	organic farming is a holistic approach that seeks to develop an understanding of the webs of interaction between the myriad of organisms that constitute the field fauna and flora.
Statement II:	An important part of the biological farming approach is to become familiar with the various life forms that inhabit the field, predators as well as pests.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Only Statement I is correct.
3. Only Statement II is correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Biology 1 - Section B

18.

A cloning vector has two antibiotic resistance genes: tetracycline and ampicillin. A foreign DNA was inserted into the tetracycline gene. Non-recombinant transformants would survive on the medium containing:

1.	ampicillin but not tetracycline
2.	tetracycline but not ampicillin
3.	both tetracycline and ampicillin
4.	neither tetracycline nor ampicillin

19.

A method used only for transforming animal cells is:

1.	Biolistics	2.	Microinjection
3.	Use of virus	4.	Agrobacterium mediation

20.

The first clinical gene therapy trial was given in 1990 to a 4 year girl with:

1.	Alpha – 1 antitrypsin deficiency
2.	Cystic fibrosis
3.	Adenosine deaminase deficiency
4.	Chronic myeloid leukemia

21.

The underlying basis of the Polymerase Chain Reaction is:

1.	DNA synthesis and hence amplification can occur in a template independent manner.
2.	DNA, being thermostable, can be amplified during the thermal cycle in PCR.
3.	DNA polymerase I can synthesize large amounts of DNA.
4.	PCR allows the direct amplification of DNA even if it is present in minute quantities.

22. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Bt toxin is more environmentally friendly than synthetic pesticides.
Statement II:	Expression of Bt toxin gene in plants provide resistance of certain insects.

1.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
4.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

23. Consider the two statements:

I:	Transgenic animals are being used for testing toxicity of drugs.
II:	Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals.

1.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

24.

Identify (a) and (b) bioreactors respectively in the given diagram:

1. Simple stirred-tank and sparged stirred – tank
2. Sparged stirred - tank and simple stirred-tank
3. Airlift and tower
4. Tower and airlift

25.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the use of RNAi for creating transgenic tobacco plants resistant to Meloidogyne incognita:

1.	Agrobacterium tumefaciens was used to transform the plant cells
2.	Double-stranded RNA was introduced into the plant cells
3.	Double-stranded RNA was formed in the plant cells that initiated RNAi
4.	A specific mRNA of the nematode was silenced with the help of dsRNA

Biology 2 - Section A

26.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Dodo	Mauritius
2.	Quagga	Africa
3.	Thylacine	Australia
4.	Stellar’s sea cow	USA

27. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Some aquatic ecosystems have inverted biomass pyramids.
Reason (R):	The pyramid of energy is also inverted in such ecosystems.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

28.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Genetic diversity	a.	Western ghats have greater amphibian diversity than eastern ghats
B.	Species diversity	b.	India has more than 50000 genetically different strains of rice
C.	Ecological diversity	c.	India has more ecosystems than Norway

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	a	b	c
2.	b	a	c
3.	c	b	a
4.	b	c	a

29. Maintenance of a constant internal environment, in spite of an ever-changing external environment, by living organisms is called :

1.	Hemostasis	2.	Homeostasis
3.	Thermoregulation	4.	Osmoregulation

30.

The reservoir is located in the Earth’s crust for:
I. Gaseous type of nutrient cycle
II. Sedimentary nutrient cycle
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

31.

About what percent of all insects is phytophagus?

1.	1 %	2.	25 %
3.	65 %	4.	99 %

32. In an area, there are 200 carrot grass plants but only a single huge banyan tree with a large canopy.

I.	The ecological role of the banyan tree in this community is negligible when compared to that of carrot grass.
II.	In this community, the percent cover or biomass is a more meaningful measure of the population size.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

33. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	There are 27 documented varieties of Basmati grown in India.
2.	In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice by biopiracy.
3.	Indian Basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf varieties and claimed as aan invention or a novelty.
4.	There are an estimated 200 varieties of rice in India alone.

34.

The biome characterized by a mean annual temperature between 5 $°$ C and 22 $°$ C and mean annual precipitation between 5 cm and 50 cm is:
1. Desert
2. Arctic and alpine tundra
3. Temperate forest
4. Grassland

35.

In an ecosystem, the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is called as its:

1.	Gross Primary productivity
2.	Net Primary productivity
3.	Secondary productivity
4.	Non productivity

36.

Loss of biodiversity may lead to all except:

1.	decline in plant production
2.	increased resistance to environmental perturbance
3.	increased variability in water use
4.	increased variability in pest and disease cycle

37.

The fig tree is pollinated by a:

1.	Honeybee	2.	Wasp
3.	Bird	4.	Moth

38.

Consider the following statements:

I:	In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain (GFC) is the major conduit for energy flow.
II:	In a terrestrial ecosystem, Detritus Food Chain (DFC) is the major conduit for energy flow.
III:	GFC and DFC are not interconnected at any level.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

39.

Evolutionary biologists believe that “success” of mammals is largely due to their ability to:
1. Produce a large number of progeny
2. Live for a longer life span
3. Maintain a constant body temperature
4. Nurture young ones for longer periods

40.

During decomposition of detritus, the step that is performed by bacteria and fungi includes:
1. Catabolism only
2. Catabolism and fragmentation
3. Leaching and catabolism
4. Fragmentation, Leaching and Catabolism

41. The following pie chart proportionates the number of species in various invertebrate taxa. A, B and C will represent:

	A	B	C
1.	Insects	Echinoderms	Molluscs
2.	Insects	Molluscs	Crustaceans
3.	Crustaceans	Insects	Molluscs
4.	Molluscs	Crustaceans	Insects

42.

In broad ecological context, all the following would be considered examples of predation except:
1. Tiger eating deer
2. Sparrow eating seed
3. Cow eating herbs
4. Earthworm feeding on detritus

Biology 2 - Section B

43.

The following diagram shows the effect of sewage discharge on some important characteristics of a river. What can be A and B respectively?

1.	BOD and DO	2.	DO and BOD
3.	BOD and COD	4.	COD and BOD

44.

Identify the correct statements regarding noise pollution:

I:	Even a brief exposure to an extremely high sound level of 150 dB may damage ear drums and permanently impair hearing ability.
II:	Noise also causes sleeplessness, increased heart beat, altered breathing pattern, thus leading to considerable stress in humans.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Only Statement II is correct
4. Only Statement I is correct

45. The biodiversity hotspots in India include all the following except:
1. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
2. Indo-Burma
3. Himalayas
4. Deccan plateau

46.

The search for previously unknown compounds in organisms that have never been used in traditional medicine is known as:

1.	Biopiracy	2.	Bioprospecting
3.	Molecular pharming	4.	Bioremediation

47.

Which of the following is not a consequence of deforestation?

1.	An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide as trees can hold a lot of carbon in their biomass.
2.	Loss of biodiversity due to habitat destruction.
3.	A wetter climate as trees can hold a lot of water.
4.	Soil erosion due to loss of the protective layer of vegetation.

48.

An abnormal warming of surface ocean waters in the eastern tropical Pacific is termed as:

1.	El Nino	2.	La Nina
3.	ENSO	4.	Ocean hazard

49.

Which of the following is implicated in the causation of skin cancers and snow-blindness cataracts in humans?

1.	UV – A	2.	UV - B
3.	UV - C	4.	None of the above

50.

The “Polyblend” developed by Ahmad Khan is a:
1. possible solution to accumulating plastic wastes
2. method for dealing with electronic wastes
3. synthetic fiber produced in India
4. organic farming product

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