Test 5 (Class 12)- Recall (Old NCERT)

Biology 1 - Section A

1.

When “sticky ends” are paired, they can be joined by:

1.	restriction enzymes	2.	polymerases
3.	methylase	4.	DNA ligase

2.

The algae Spirulina, Chlorella and the microbe Methylophilus methylotrophus can be used as a source of:

1.	Vitamin A and C	2.	Minerals like calcium
3.	Single Cell Protein	4.	Omega 3 fatty acids

3.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET):

1.	FSH like hormones or PMSG [pregnant mare serum gonadotropin] are used to induce super-ovulation [6 – 8 eggs rather than one per cycle] and Prostaglandins are used to regulate the duration of cycle.
2.	Fresh embryos can be stored at 37ºC for 6 - 8 hours without much harm but it is recommended that the embryos are inserted into the recipient cow or frozen as soon as possible. The embryos can be stored forever in liquid nitrogen.
3.	The animal is either mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated and the fertilised eggs at 8–32 cell stages are recovered non-surgically and transferred to genetic mothers.
4.	The embryos are transferred to a recipient cow whose oestrous cycle is at the correct receptive stage.

4.

The first type II restriction endonuclease whose functioning depended on a specific DNA nucleotide sequence was:

1.	EcoRI	2.	HindII
3.	SmaI	4.	BamHI

5. What is not correct regarding the pathogenesis of AIDS in humans?

I:	HIV first enters into the macrophages.
II:	Macrophages are used by HIV as a factory to produce more virus particles.
III:	The viral cDNA does not get integrated into any cells in the human body.
IV:	HIV also enters the T-helper cells and destroys them.
V:	The anti-retroviral treatment for AIDS is completely curative.

1.	All except V	2.	Only III and V
3.	Only I, III and IV	4.	All

6.

'Restriction' in Restriction enzyme refers to:

1.	Cleaving of the phosphodiester bonds in DNA by the enzyme
2.	Cutting of DNA at a specific position only
3.	Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by the host bacteria
4.	All of the above

7.

Antibodies present in colostrum protects the newborn from certain diseases which are of:

1.	Ig G type	2.	Ig A type
3.	Ig D type	4.	Ig E type

8.

For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism, it needs to be part of a chromosome that has a specific:

1.	Telomeric sequence	2.	Multiple cloning sites
3.	Ori	4.	Selectable marker

9.

Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below, identify the infectious diseases.

i.	Cancer	ii.	Influenza
iii.	Allergy	iv.	Smallpox

Options:

1.	i and ii	2.	ii and iii
3.	iii and iv	4.	ii and iv

10.

Recombinant vaccine used to prevent Hepatitis B contains:
1. killed hepatitis B virus
2. live attenuated hepatitis B virus
3. antigenic polypeptide of hepatitis B virus
4. messenger RNA of yeast

11.

The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person, are found in:
1. liver of the person
2. RBCs of mosquito
3. salivary glands of the mosquito
4. gut of the mosquito

12. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Collection and preservation of all the wild varieties of crops is important for an effective germplasm collection.
Reason (R):	In many crops, pre-existing genetic variability is available from wild relatives of the crop.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are false.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).
3.	Assertion is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

13. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	The organic farmer holds the view that the eradication of the creatures that are often described as pests is undesirable.
Reason (R):	The eradication of the creatures that are often described as pests is not possible.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

14.

Micro-propagation is:
1. propagation of microbes in vitro
2. propagation of plants in vitro
3. propagation of cells in vitro
4. growing plants on a smaller scale

15.

The virus shown here is a causative agent of:

1.	Intestinal infections
2.	Respiratory infections
3.	CNS infections
4.	Genito-urinary infections

16.

Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in:

1.	Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
2.	Increasing its tolerance to drought
3.	Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
4.	Increasing its resistance to insects

17.

Biogas is a mixture of:

1.	Methane, Carbon dioxide, and Hydrogen sulfide
2.	Methane, Carbon dioxide, and Ammonia
3.	Methane, Ammonia, and Hydrogen sulfide
4.	Ammonia, Carbon dioxide, and Hydrogen sulfide

Biology 1 - Section B

18.

A cloning vector must:

1.	be able to maintain a very high copy numbers of their genome in the host cells
2.	contain elements such as promoter and ribosome binding sites
3.	be engineered to carry a large number of recognition sequences for common restriction enzymes
4.	be able to replicate within host cell independent of the control of chromosomal DNA

19.

What is true about the steps of PCR shown in the diagram given below?

I:	Step A occurs at the temperature of 95 – 98⁰C
II:	Step B occurs at the temperature of 55⁰ C
III:	Step C occurs at the temperature of 72⁰ C

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

20. Identify the correct statements:

I:	ADA deficiency is caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase.
II:	Bone marrow transplant and enzyme replacement therapy are completely curative.
III.	Lymphocytes transformed with cADA gene are permanent cure for the condition.

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

21. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Bioreactors are important in biotechnology procedures to obtain desired products.
Reason (R):	Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

22.

Corn borer can be controlled by the proteins encoded by Bacillus thuringiensis gene:

1.	cryIAb	2.	cryIAc
3.	cryIIAb	4.	cryIIIAc

23. Transgenic animals are the animals that:

1.	have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra [foreign] gene.
2.	are genetically modified with the use of foreign genes from a sexually compatible donor organism.
3.	are produced by interspecific hybridisation.
4.	are produced by inbreeding.

24. The critical research areas of biotechnology include all the following except:

1.	Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme.
2.	Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act.
3.	Downstream processing technologies to purify the protein/organic compound.
4.	Development of new genetically modified microbes that can be used as bio-weapons.

25. C-peptide of human insulin is:

1.	A part of mature insulin molecule
2.	Responsible for formation of disulphide bridges
3.	Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin
4.	Responsible for its biological activity

Biology 2 - Section A

26.

Consider three sample areas with the following composition:

Sample area I:	has three species of birds, two are represented by one individual each and the third by four individuals
Sample area II:	has three species of birds, each represented by two individuals
Sample area III:	has a species of insects, a species of mammals and a species of birds, each with two individuals

Which area will be considered as the most diverse?
1. Sample area I
2. Sample area II
3. Sample area III
4. Sample area II and Sample area III are equally diverse

27. The given pyramid of biomass shows a sharp decrease in biomass at higher trophic levels. What can be the reason for this sharp decrease?

I:	The respiration cost increases sharply along successive higher trophic levels.
II:	There can be lower amounts of biomass at the bottom of the pyramid if the rate of primary production per unit biomass is high.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect.
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct.

28.

The price tag put by researchers on the annual ecosystem services is about:
1. USD 11 trillion
2. USD 22 trillion
3. USD 33 trillion
4. USD 44 trillion

29.

When exposed to cold temperatures, which of the following is responsible for maintaining constant body temperature in humans?
1. Vasoconstriction and shivering
2. Vasodilation and shivering
3. Vasodilation and sweating
4. Vasoconstriction and sweating

30.

Primary succession takes a very long time when compared to secondary succession, primarily, because:
1. immigration of pioneer species takes time
2. soil formation is a very slow process
3. there is a low availability of ecological niches
4. environmental conditions are highly variable

31.

The monarch butterfly acquires distasteful toxin during:

1.	Caterpillar stage by feeding on a poisonous weed
2.	Caterpillar stage by feeding on sap of a grass
3.	Adult stage by feeding on nectar of a flowering plant
4.	Adult stage by feeding on latex of deadly night shade plant

32. The tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is often based on:
1. Pug marks
2. Cub count
3. Area allocation
4. Collar position

33. Identify the correct statements:

I.	Ramdeo Misra is revered as the Father of Ecology in India.
II.	Ecology studies the interactions among organisms and between the organism and its physical [abiotic] environment.
III.	The study of Ecology begins at cellular biological organisation level.
IV.	Ecology at the organism level is essentially physiological ecology.

1.	Only I and II	2.	All except III
3.	Only II, III and III	4.	I, II, III and IV

34.

Which of the following algae is likely to be found in the deepest waters?
1.Green
2.Brown
3.Red
4.All are found at equal depths

35.

Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of :
i. $(kcal m^{- 3}) {yr}^{- 1}$
ii. $g m^{- 2} {yr}^{- 1}$
iii. $g m^{- 1} {yr}^{- 1}$
iv. $(kcal m^{- 2}) {yr}^{- 1}$

1.	ii	2.	iii
3.	ii and iv	4.	i and iii

36. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	The current mass extinction is different from the previous episodes of mass extinctions.
Reason (R):	It is happening at a faster rate and is mainly anthropogenic in nature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

37.

In mycorrhiza, the fungi help the plant in:
1. Synthesis of high energy carbohydrates
2. Absorption of essential nutrients from the soil
3. Nitrogen fixation
4. Biocontrol of pathogens

38.

In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the:

1.	DFC	2.	GFC
3.	Either of DFC or GFC	4.	Nither of DFC nor GFC

39.

Kangaroo rat is capable of meeting all its water requirements through:
1. Storing water when available
2. Dry seeds and foliage
3. Metabolic water
4. Burrowing deep to get water

40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Most ecosystems would vanish if the sun were not, continuously, providing energy to the Earth.
Reason (R):	Ecosystems and living organisms defy second law of thermodynamics.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

41.

If we consider invertebrates, the maximum global biodiversity, after insects, is seen in:

1.	Crustaceans	2.	Echinoderms
3.	Mollusks	4.	Annelids

42.

Darwinian fitness is represented by:

1.	Low r value	2.	High r value
3.	High K value	4.	Low K value

Biology 2 - Section B

43.

What was added in 1987 as a pollutant to The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, [originally passed in 1981]?
1. radioactive wastes
2. CFCs
3. ground level ozone
4. noise

44.

The Environment [protection] Act to protect and improve the quality of our environment [Air, Water and Soil] was passed by the Government of India in:

1.	1974	2.	1981
3.	1986	4.	1988

45.

What percent of earth’s area is covered by hotspots of biodiversity?

1.	less than 2	2.	about 7
3.	about 11	4.	more than 16

46.

Lantana camara and Clarias gariepinus are examples of:

1.	Invasive species	2.	Apex predators
3.	Critical link species	4.	Edge species

47.

Radiatively active gases do not include:
1. Methane
2. Ammonia
3. Nitrous oxide
4. Chloroflouro carbons

48.

Provided it is carried out in an environmentally friendly manner, the only solution for the treatment of e-waste is:
1. Recycling
2. Incineration
3. Sanitary landfills
4. Burying deep in earth

49.

In India, the name Ramesh Chandra Dagar, is associated with:
1. Organic farming
2. Conservation of forests
3. Recycling of plastic wastes
4. Preservation of water lands

50.

In a water body polluted with biodegradable organic compounds,
1. the BOD and DO content are low
2. the BOD and DO content are high
3. the BOD is low and DO content is high
4. the BOD is high and DO content is low

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