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1.

Secondary oocyte completes meiosis II:

1.	immediately after its formation
2.	in the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle
3.	at the time of fertilization by sperm
4.	at the time of ovulation

2. Regarding a typical monosporic embryosac in the angiosperms:
I: Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus.
II: The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two antipodals and one egg cell.
III: The antipodals have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
IV: Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the Synergids.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only I and IV are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. Only III is correct
 

3.

The term used for the transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to the stigma of a different plant which during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma, is:
1. Chasmogamy
2. Cleistogamy
3. Xenogamy
4. Geitonogamy

4.

To increase their contraceptive efficiency, the barrier contraceptives in females are used with:
1. IUDs
2. OCPs
3. Spermicidal chemicals
4. Implants

5.

Which of the following is a correct statement?

1.	IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
2.	IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
3.	IUDs increase the phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.
4.	IUDs suppress gametogenesis.

6. In the diagrammatic section of the ovary shown below:

I. A is a tertiary follicle showing a fluid filled cavity called as blastocoel.
II. B acts as a temporary endocrine gland that produces large amounts of hCG.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
 

7.

The pregnancy is established by the implantation on the uterine endometrium of: 
1. Zygote
2. Morula
3. Blastocyst
4. Gastrula

8. Diagrammatic view of male reproductive system, an unpaired gland is represented by the letter:

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
 

9.

Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?

1.	Ovules develop into the embryo sac
2.	Ovary develops into fruit
3.	Zygote develops into an embryo
4.	Central cell develops into endosperm

10.

When comparing the process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans, the similarity between them is in:

1.	The age at which the processes start in both sexes
2.	The size of the cells formed during the process
3.	The number of gametes each meiocyte produces
4.	The ploidy of the end products

11.

In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy, the following is observed:
(1) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed
(2) Most of the major organ systems are formed
(3) The head is covered with fine hair
(4) Movement of the fetus 

12.

What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria ?
1. Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water.
2. Flowers emerge above surface of Water and pollination occurs by insects.
3. Flowers emerge above water surface and pollen is carried by wind.
4. Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers at surface of water.

13. The number of correct statements amongst the following is:
I. Sexual reproduction in organisms always involves the fusion of gametes from two different individuals.
II. In several fungi and plants, terms such as homothallic and monoecious are used to denote the unisexual condition.
III. In flowering plants, the unisexual male flower is staminate.
IV. Bisexual animals that possess both male and female reproductive organs, are hermaphrodites.
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
 

14. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Ex-albuminous seeds	P	Wheat, Castor
B	Albuminous seeds	Q	Black pepper, Beet
C	Perisperm	R	Pea, Groundnut

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	Q	P	R
3.	R	P	Q
4.	R	Q	P

15.

Encystation in unfavourable conditions followed by multiple fission and sporulation when the favourable conditions return is seen in:
1. Sponges
2. Penicillium
3. Amoeba
4. Yeast

16.

The uterine layer that undergoes cyclical change during the menstrual cycle is the:
1. perimetrium
2. myometrium
3. endometrium
4. fundus

17.

Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as:
1. FSH
2. GH
3. Prolactin
4. LH

18.

In a marriage between a male with blood group A and a female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of parents?

1.	IA i (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
2.	IA IA (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
3.	IA IA (Male) ; IB i (Female)
4.	IA i (Male) ; IB i(Female)

19.

A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and a normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?
1. 25%
2. 0%
3. 50%
4. 75%

20.

Select the incorrect statement:

1.	Human males have one of their sex-chromosome much shorter than the other.
2.	Male fruit fly is heterogametic.
3.	In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have no sex chromosome.
4.	In domesticated fowls, the sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than the egg.

21. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Mendel’s experiments:
 

1.	Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven years (1856-1863).
2.	During Mendel’s investigations into inheritance patterns, it was for the first time that statistical analysis and mathematical logic were applied to problems in biology.
3.	His experiments had a small sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that he collected.
4.	Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits.

22.

A certain gene has 5 alleles. What will be the number of possible genotypic combinations?
1. 5
2. 15
3. 32
4. 2

23.

What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills:
 

1.	To inhibit ovulation
2.	To check oogenesis
3.	To check the entry of sperms into the cervix & to make them inactive
4.	To check sexual behavior

24.

Copper ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs):
1. make uterus unsuitable for implantation
2. increase phagocytosis of sperms
3. suppress sperm motility
4. prevent ovulation

25. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: When Mendel self-pollinated the F₁ plants of a monohybrid cross he found that in the F₂ generation some of the offspring expressed the character that was not seen in the F₁ generation.
Statement II: Mendel found that in a monohybrid cross the F₁ always resembled either one of the parents.
1. Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
 

26.

Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are:

1.	T-DNA	2.	BAC and YAC
3.	Expression Vectors	4.	T/A cloning Vectors

27. Identify the correct statements:

I:	DNA acts as the genetic material in most organisms.
II:	RNA though it also acts as a genetic material in some viruses, mostly functions as a messenger.
III:	RNA functions as an adapter, structural, and in some cases as a catalytic molecule.

 

1.	I and II only
2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only
4.	I, II and III only

28.

In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I transcribes-

1.	mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing
2.	tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs
3.	rRNAs - 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
4.	Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA

29. All the following regarding the salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA are true except:

1.	It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate, and the bases project inside.
2.	The two chains have anti-parallel polarity - if one chain has the polarity 5' → 3', the other has 3'→5'.
3.	The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion.
4.	The pitch of the helix is 34 nm and there are roughly 10 bp in each turn.

30.

There are three genes a, b, and c. The percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on a chromosome?
1. b, a, c
2. a, b, c
3. a, c, b
4. None

31. Identify the incorrect statement regarding DNA replication:

1.	The main DNA replication enzyme is referred to as DNA-dependent DNA polymerase since it uses a DNA template to catalyse the polymerisation of deoxynucleotides.
2.	Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates act as substrates and provide energy for polymerisation reactions.
3.	Since the two strands of DNA cannot be separated in their entire length, the replication occur within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to as the replication fork.
4.	The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is 3'→5'.

32.

From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of Genetic Code
1. Universal, Non-ambiguous,Overlapping
2. Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
3. Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
4. Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non ambiguous

33.

ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles and shows co-dominance. There are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible?

1.	three	2.	four
3.	five	4.	six

34.

Which is the basis of genetic mapping of the human genome as well as DNA fingerprinting ?
(1) Polymorphism in the DNA sequence
(2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(3) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
(4) Polymorphism in the RNA sequence

35.

A diseased man marries a normal woman. They get three daughters and five sons. All the daughters were diseased and the sons were normal. The gene of this disease is:
1. Sex-linked dominant
2. Sex-linked recessive
3. Sex-limited character
4. Autosomal dominant

36.

In Drosophila, the sex is determined by:
 

1.	The ratio of the number of X-chromosomes to the sets of autosomes
2.	X and Y chromosomes
3.	The ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
4.	Whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically

37.

Which one of the following conditions, though harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from a mosquito-borne infectious disease?

1.	Thalassaemia	2.	Sickle cell anaemia
3.	Pernicious anaemia	4.	Leukemia

38.

The core RNA polymerase is capable of catalyzing which steps of transcription?

1.	Initiation only	2.	Elongation only
3.	Termination only	4.	All of these

39.

The first phase of translation is:
1. Recognition of DNA molecule
2. Aminoacylation of tRNA
3. Recognition of an anti-codon
4. Binding of mRNA to ribosome

40. Regarding the conclusions that can be from the Griffith experiment:
I: R strain bacteria was somehow been transformed by the heat-killed S strain bacteria.
II: Some ‘transforming principle’, transferred from the heat-killed S strain, enabled the R strain to synthesise a smooth polysaccharide coat and become virulent.
III: The biochemical nature of genetic material was DNA.
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct
 

41.

When AABBcc is crossed with AaBbCc then the ratio of hybrid for all three genes is:
1.  1/8
2.  1/4
3.  1/16
4.  1/32

42.

Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon:

(a)	Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
(b)	In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region.
(c)	The z-gene codes for permease.
(d)	It was explained by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod.

The correct statements are:
1. (b) and (c)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (d)
4. (a) and (b)

43.

At a particular locus, the frequency of 'A' allele is 0.6 and that of 'a' is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
1. 0.24
2. 0.16
3. 0.48
4. 0.36

44.

The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insects damaging a crop is:
1. Genetic recombination
2. Directed mutations
3. Acquired heritable changes
4. Random mutations 

45.

Adaptive radiation refers to:

1.	adaptations due to geographical isolation
2.	evolution of different species from a common ancestor
3.	migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
4.	power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments

46.

In inducible operon, regulatory gene synthesizes:
1. Promoter
2. Operator
3. Repressor
4. Aporepressor

47.

When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
1. divergent evolution
2. microevolution
3. co-evolution
4. convergent evolution

48.

Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
1. Homo erectus
2. Homo sapiens
3. Homo neanderthalensis
4. Homo habilis

49. Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that:
 

I:	the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.)
II:	formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e., the formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.
III:	The conditions on earth were – high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3, etc.

 

1.	Only I and II are correct.
2.	Only I and III are correct.
3.	Only II and III are correct.
4.	I, II and III are correct.

50.

The eye of the octopus and the eye of the cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform a similar function. This is an example of:

1.	Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
2.	Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
3.	Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
4.	Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.