In Millikan's oil drop experiment an oil drop of radius r and charge Q is held in equilibrium between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor when the potential difference is V. To keep a drop of radius 2r and with a charge 2Q in equilibrium between the plates the potential difference required is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Light of wavelength strikes a photosensitive surface and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy E. If the kinetic energy is increased to two times, (i.e., 2E), the wavelength must be changed to ', where:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
An electron with speed v and a photon with speed c have the same de-Broglie wavelength. If the kinetic energy and momentum of electrons is and and that of photon is and respectively, then the correct statement is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A radioactive element X with a half-life period of 2 hours decays giving a stable element Y. After a time t the ratio of X to Y atoms is 1 : 7. Then t is:-
1. 4 hr
2. 6 hr
3. between 4 hr and 6 hr
4. 14 hr
The moment of momentum for an electron in the second orbit of hydrogen atom as per Bohr's model is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The binding energy per nucleon of is 7.97 MeV and that is 7.75 MeV. The energy (in MeV) required to remove a neutron from is (Take P = 16)
1. 3.52
2. 3.64
3. 4.23
4. 7.86
In a common emitter transistor circuit, when the base current is increased by 50A keeping the collector voltage fixed at 2 V, the collector current increases by 1 mA. The current gain of the transistor is:-
1. 20
2. 40
3. 60
4. 80
The current gain of a transistor in common emitter circuit is 40. The ratio of emitter current to base current:-
1. 40
2. 41
3. 42
4. 43
The least count of vernier callipers is 0.1 mm. The main scale reading before the zero of the vernier scale is 10, and the zeroth division of the vernier scale coincides with any main scale division. If the value of one main scale division is 1 mm, the measured value should be expressed as:
1. 0.010 cm
2. 0.001 cm
3. 0.1 cm
4. 1.00 cm
A galvanometer of 50 resistance when connected across the terminals of a battery of emf 2V along with the resistance 200, the deflection produced in the galvanometer is 10 divisions. If the total number of divisions on the galvanometer scale on either side of central zero is 30, then the maximum current that can pass through the galvanometer is:-
1. 0.24 A
2. 0.24 mA
3. 0.024 A
4. 2.4 mA
In the diagram shown below, the rays passing through the concave lens become parallel to the principal axis. If the focal length of the convex lens is \(30\) cm, the focal length of the concave lens will be:
1. \(-10\) cm
2. \(-20\) cm
3. \(-30\) cm
4. \(-40\) cm
A satellite is moving round the earth with a velocity v. To make the satellite escape, the minimum percentage increase in its velocity is nearly:-
1. 62.1%
2. 41.4%
3. 82.8%
4. 100%
A cart supports a cubic tank (side 'l') filled with a liquid (density ) up to the top of the tank. The cart moves with a constant acceleration 'a' in the horizontal direction. The tank is tightly closed. The pressure at a point P at a depth 'h' and distance 'x' from the front wall (see figure) is:-
1. hg
2. hg+(l-x) a
3. hg+xa
4. hg+1a
The bulk modulus of water is . The increase in pressure required to decrease the volume of water sample by \(0.1\)% is:
1. \(4 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^2 \)
2. \(2 \times 10^{\mathrm{6}}~ \mathrm{N} / \mathrm{m}^2 \)
3. \(2 \times 10^{\mathrm{8}}~ \mathrm{N} / \mathrm{m}^2 \)
4. \(8 \times 10^{\mathrm{6}}~ \mathrm{N} / \mathrm{m}^2 \)
On a frictionless inclined plane shown in the adjoining diagram, n-blocks of masses m1, m2, m3....mn are placed in contact. These blocks are released at the same time. Then the force of interaction between nth and (n-1)th block is:-
1. Zero
2.
3.
4.
A certain amount of heat energy is supplied to a monoatomic ideal gas which expands at constant pressure. What fraction of the heat energy is converted into work?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The stationary wave y=-2a(sinkx)(cos t) in a closed organ pipe is the result of superposition of y=a sin(t-kx) and :-
1. y=a sin (t+kx)
2. y=a cos (t-kx)
3. y=-a sin (t+kx)
4. y=-a sin (t-kx)
Two cells of the same emf \(E\) and different internal resistances \(r_1\) and \(r_2\) are connected in series to an external resistance \(R\). The value of \(R\) for which the potential difference across the first cell is zero is given by:
1. \(r_1\)
2. \(r_2\)
3. \(r_1-r_2\)
4. \(r_1+r_2\)
A simple telescope consisting of an objective of focal length 50 cm and a single eye lens of focal length 5 cm is focussed on a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from the eye lens. If the object subtends an angle of 5 at the objective, the angular width of the image will be:-
1. 5
2. 50
3. 10
4. none of these
In the equation where P is the pressure, x is the distance and t is the time, the dimensions of a/b are:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ball is dropped from height 8m. After striking the surface it rises to 6m, what is fractional loss in kinetic energy during impact? Assuming air resistance to be negligible.
1.
2.
3.
4.
A block slides from an inclination of 45. If it takes time twice with friction than to that without friction, then the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is:-
1. 0.20
2. 0.50
3. 0.75
4. 1
The displacement of particle executing a periodic motion is given by
This expression may be a result of superposition of how many simple harmonic motions?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
If the insulated plate of 20 F capacitor be at a potential of 90 V and one plate of 15 F capacitor is earthed as shown in the adjoining figure, what is the potential difference between the plates of 30 F capacitor:-
1. 10 V
2. 20 V
3. 40 V
4. 55 V
If f1 and f2 represent the first and second focal lengths of a single spherical refracting surface of refractive index , then:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A uniform disc of radius R and mass M can rotate without friction on an axle passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane face. A cord is wound over the rim of the disc and a uniform force F is applied on the cord as shown in the adjoining figure. Then the tangential acceleration of a point on the rim of the disc is proportional to:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Springs of spring constants k, 2k, 4k, 8k..... are connected in series. A mass M kg is attached to the lower end of the last spring and the system is allowed to vibrate. The time period is approximately:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
When a body is rotating along a circular orbit in a fixed plane, its angular momentum is directed along:-
1. The radius.
2. The tangent to the orbit.
3. The line perpendicular to the plane of the orbit.
4. A line making an angle of with the plane of rotation.
A projectile will cover maximum vertical distance in the minimum time when the angle of projection with vertical is:-
1. 0
2. 30
3. 60
4. 90
A rope thrown over a pulley has ladder with a man of mass m on one of its ends and a counter balancing mass M on its other end. The man climbs with a velocity v, relative to the ladder. Ignoring the mass of the pulley and the rope as well as the friction on the pulley axis, the velocity of the centre of mass of this system is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A projectile is fired vertically upwards from the surface of the earth with a velocity , where is the escape velocity and n < 1. If R is the radius of the earth, the maximum height from the centre of the earth to which the projectile rises will be: (Neglect air resistance):-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the figure. Density of the gas at point A is . Density of the gas at point B is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
In Young's experiment when sodium light of wavelength 5893 is used, then 62 fringes are seen in the field of view. Instead, if violet light of wavelength 4348 is used then the number of fringes that will be seen in the field of view will be:-
1. 54
2. 64
3. 74
4. 84
Four metallic plates each with surface area of one side A, are placed at a distance d from each other. The plates are connected as shown in the adjoining figure. Then the capacitance of the system between a and b is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A body falls from a height h on a horizontal surface and rebounds, then it falls again and again rebounds and so on. If the coefficient of restitution is 1/2, the total distance covered by the body before it comes to rest is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A tank is filled with water up to a height H. Water is coming out of a hole in the wall of the container at a depth h below the free surface of the water. If water strikes the ground at a distance R from the wall of the container, then the value of R is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two tuning forks P and Q sounded together give 4 beats/s. With an air resonance tube closed at one end, the forks give resonance when the two air columns are 45 cm and 46 cm respectively. If speed of sound in air is 330 m/s, the frequencies of forks P and Q are:-
1. 184 Hz; 180 Hz
2. 196 Hz; 200 Hz
3. 200 Hz; 196 Hz
4. 180 Hz; 184 Hz
Time taken by a 836 W heater to heat one litre of water from 10C to 40C is:-
1. 50 s
2. 100 s
3. 150 s
4. 200 s
Three rods A, B and C of thermal conductivities K, 2K and 4K, cross-sectional areas A, 2A and 2A and lengths 2l, l and l respectively are connected as shown in the figure. If the ends of the rods are maintained at temperatures 100C, 50C, and 0C respectively, then the temperature of the junction is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a certain circuit current changes with time according to . Root mean square value of current between t=2 to t=4s will be:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which metal carbonyl will react fastest with sodium metal?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Major product of the following reaction is
P (Major)
Major product P is
1. 2.
3. 4.
Ellingham diagram is the plot between
1.
2.
3.
4.
Select the correct statement regarding the arrangement of domains and their corresponding properties
1. : Anti Ferrimagnetic
2. : Ferromagnetic
3. : Anti Ferromagnetic
4. All are correctly matched.
Which compound will decarboxylate most easily upon heating in acidic medium?
1. 2.
3. 4.
In an isothermal process the work involved during expansion of an ideal gas is given by:-
1.
2.
3.
4. None of these
If small amount of helium is added to the following reaction at equilibrium at constant pressure then which of the following statements will be correct?
1. More of ammonia is produced.
2. Dissociation of ammonia will increase.
3. Equilibrium constant value changes.
4. There is no effect on equilibrium.
pH of 0.1 M sodium acetate solution is approximately (pKa of acetic acid=4.75)
1. 9.9
2. 8.9
3. 5.75
4. 7.75
Which among the following is an intensive property?
1. Internal energy
2. Enthalpy
3. Density
4. Heat
If radius of second orbit of He+ is 'x' nm then the radius of the first orbit of Li2+ will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following compounds is used in fire extinguishers?
1. Baking soda
2. Gypsum
3. Soda ash
4. Cryolite
Which of the following is a square planar complex?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Milk of lime is a suspension of
1.
2.
3.
4.
The most powerful reducing agent is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A mixed anhydride is
1.
2.
3.
4.
In metallurgy, which of the following metal is obtained with blistered appearance?
1. Fe
2. Cu
3. Zn
4. Pb
Which of the following acid has the lowest pKa?
1.
2.
3.
Which of the following species is not aromatic?
1.
2.
3.
4.
In aldol condensation reaction, the first step involves
1. Nucleophilic addition.
2. Proton abstraction.
3. Proton addition.
4. Electrophilic addition.
Addition of Grignard reagent to acetaldehyde followed by hydrolysis and acidic dehydration results
1. Tertiary alcohol
2. Alkene
3. Carboxylic acid
4. Secondary alcohol
Excess of alcohol when treated with acetone in acidic medium it forms
1. Hemiacetal
2. Hemiketal
3. Acetal
4. Ketal
Which of the following is not an antibiotic?
1. Penicillin
2. Ofloxacin
3. Bithional
4. Amoxycillin
Which of the following is not a monobasic acid?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Compound (C) is used as a reducing agent. Compound (B) has hybridization state of the boron as
1. sp
2. sp2
3. sp3
4. sp3d2
Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
1. Ga2O3
2. Cr2O3
3. PbO
4. All of these
Which of the following is the weakest Lewis base?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following d-block elements has the least enthalpy of atomisation?
1. Cr
2. Zn
3. Mn
4. V
Which of the following lanthanide ions is paramagnetic?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Choose the correct d-orbital configuration in the crystal field of the tetrahedral complex .
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following halide will undergo racemisation most easily upon nucleophilic substitution?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following compounds can give iodoform test?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following step is not involved in Cannizzaro reaction?
1. Proton transfer.
2. Hydride shift.
3. Nucleophilic addition.
4. Carbocation formation.
Which of the following compounds does not undergo Friedal-Crafts reaction?
1. Anisole.
2. Chlorobenzene.
3. Aniline.
4. Benzene.
Which of the following is expected to have the least boiling point?
1. n-butane.
2. Ethoxyethane.
3. n-butyl chloride.
4. Isobutane.
The order of reactivity towards sulphonation with fuming sulphuric acid is
1. Ethylbenzene > toluene > methoxybenzene > chlorobenzene.
2. Methoxybenzene > toluene > ethylbenzene > chlorobenzene.
3. Chlorobenzene > methoxybenzene > toluene > ethylbenzene.
4. Methoxybenzene > chlorobenzene > ethylbenzene > toluene.
What is the attacking electrophile in carbylamine reaction when aniline is treated with and KOH?
1. Carbonation.
2. Free radical.
3. Dichlorocarbene.
4. Carbanion.
What is the pOH of 10-3 M acetic acid, if its is 9?
1. 3
2. 7
3. 10
4. 4
Compound (B) is
1. Secondary alcohol.
2. Tertiary alcohol.
3. Optically active primary alcohol.
4. Optically inactive primary alcohol.
A compound with molecular formula forms a single product upon monohalogenation. The IUPAC name of this compound is
1. Pent-1-ene.
2. 3-methylbut-1-ene.
3. Cyclopentane.
4. Methylcyclobutane.
A vicinal halide upon dehydrohalogenation with 2 moles of gives
1. Alkyne
2. Alkene
3. Haloalkene
4. Amine
The most stable carbocation among the following is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following compounds can reduce Fehling's solution?
1. Glucose.
2. Fructose.
3. Mannose.
4. All of these.
Which of the following polymers is obtained by Chain-Growth polymerisation?
1. PHBV.
2. Cis-polyisoprene.
3. Glyptal.
4. Melamine formaldehyde polymer.
Which of the following is true for a first order reaction?
1.
2.
3.
4. depends upon the initial concentration the reactants
Which of the following combination can act as a buffer?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following Algae shows anisogamy.
1. Volvox.
2. Udorina.
3. Spirogyra.
4. Ulothrix.
In mosses vegetative reproduction takes place by fragmentation & budding in
1. Primary protonema.
2. Secondary protonema.
3. Rhizoids.
4. Both 1 and 2.
Identify the incorrect statement:
1. Inbreeding is necessary if we want to evolve a pure line in any animal
2. A single out-cross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression
3. To induce super-ovulation in MOET, the cow is administered hormone with FSH like activity
4. The genetic mother is used to transfer the fertilized eggs in MOET procedures
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. Humulin First therapeutic rDNA
product approved for human use
2. Golden rice Rice variety produced by
genetic engineering and
enriched with vitamin A
3. Bt Brinjal First GM food approved
for consumption in India
4. Rosie Transgenic cow producing
human protein enriched milk
Which of the following is not modified mucosal epithelium?
1. Goblet cells
2. Brunner’s glands
3. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
4. Gastric glands
How many of the following is correct with respect to Ernst Mayr?
(1) Evolutionary biologist.
(2) Darwin of 20th century.
(3) Origin of species diversity.
(4) Biological concept of species.
Options
1. All
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
How many statements are correct with respect to Prions?
(a) Responsible for neurological disease.
(b) Consists of abnormally folded proteins.
(c) Similar in size to viruses.
(d) Responsible for Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) or mud cow disease.
(e) Cr-Jacob disease (CJD) in humans.
Options
1. 4
2. 5
3. 2
4. 3
Insectivarous plants are?
1. Autotrophic.
2. Heterotrophic.
3. Partial heterotroph.
4. Osmotroph.
The three domains system of classification holds true for how many statements?
1. It divided kingdom morera into 2-domains.
2. Third domain includes only eukaryotic organisms.
3. It lead to six kingdom classification.
4. All of the above.
Match the following
Classification System Basis
A. Artificial 1. Natural affinities.
B. Natural 2. Number of characters.
C. Phylogenetic 3. One or few character.
D. Numerical 4. Fossil evidence.
Options
A B C D
1. 3 1 4 2
2. 3 4 2 1
3. 1 2 3 4
4. 3 2 4 1
Which plant do not have root modification for support?
1. Banyan.
2. Rhizophora.
3. Sugarcane.
4. Maize.
Leaf of plant of which family modifies to store food material.
1. Fabaceae
2. Liliaceae
3. Solanaceae
4. Lamiaceae
How many statements are correct?
(1) Flower is modified shoot.
(2) In flower internode do not elongate.
(3) When shoot tip transformed to flower, it is always solitary.
(4) In racemose, flower is acropetal and in cymose it is basipetal.
Options
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
1. Solanaceae
2. Brassicaceae A2+4
3. Fabaceae A(5)+(5)
4. Liliaceae
Find incorrect match
1. Endarch Stem.
2. Exarch Root.
3. Xylem fibre Septate or aseptate.
4. Xylem parenchyma Thick walled.
During secondary growth in dicot stem all of the following happens, except
1. Vascular cambium is more active towards inner side.
2. Primary and secondary phloem gradually gets crushed.
3. Medullary ray become meristamatic.
4. Vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin.
How many of the following statements are correct for Ribosome?
1. Associated with plasma membrane of cells.
2. 15-20 nm is size.
3. Site of protein synthesis.
4. All of the above.
In bilayer of plasma membrane. Non polar tail is made up of?
1. Saturated hydrocarbons.
2. Unsaturated hydrocarbons.
3. Acidic amino acid.
4. Basic amino acid.
Few chromosome have non-staining secondary constrictions at a constant location, also known as :-
1. Cristae
2. Satellite
3. Kinetochores
4. Hub
During cell cycle, events are under
1. Genetic control
2. Metabolic control
3. Cytoplasmic control
4. Mitochondrial control
For recombination in meiosis, which of the following is not correct?
1. Occur between non sister chromatids.
2. Homolohous chromosomes are involved.
3. Non homolohous chromosomes are involved.
4. Enzyme recombinase is involved.
Statement-1: Xylem transport can be unidirectional and bidirectional.
Statement-2: Both phloem loading and unloading is active process.
Options
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Both statements are incorrect.
3. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
4. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
When dry weight of tissue is reduced by 10% due to high concentration of a mineral nutrient then
1. It is critical concentration.
2. Mineral nutrient is toxic.
3. Most probably it is macronutrient.
4. It is benificial element.
What is the location of NADP reductase enzyme involved in production of NADPH?
1. Stroma side of the membrane.
2. Mitochondrial matrix.
3. Thylakoid membrane.
4. Thylakoid lumen.
During the process of respiration redox equivalents are removed:
1. In form of hydrogen atom.
2. In form of an electron.
3. In form of H2O.
4. In form of ATP.
How many of the following is responsible for seed dormancy?
(1) Abscissic acid.
(2) Phenolic acid.
(3) Para ascorbic acid.
(4) Hard seed coat.
(5) Immature embryo.
(6) GA3
Options
1. 5
2. 6
3. 4
4. 3
An ecosystem is
1. Structural unit of nature.
2. Functional unit of nature.
3. Both 1 and 2.
4. Dynamic unit of nature.
Statements - 1 : In an ecosystem naturient is never lost.
Statement - 2 : Succession starts in an area where no living organisms are present.
Options
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Only 1 statements is correct.
3. Only 2 statements is correct.
4. Both incorrect.
Study the following statements find the incorrect match.
1. Wild relatives are used in plant breeding.
2. Production of single cell protein is useful in reducing environmental pollution.
3. Somaclones are different from source of explant.
4. Maize hybrid have twice amount of amino acid lysine & tryptophan.
Which of the following statements is not true
1. When gamete is transfered by H2O number of male gamete produced is thousand times higher then female gamete produced.
2. Transition between three phases in sexually reproducing organisms depends on hormones.
3. In internal fertilisation release of male & female gamete is synchronised.
4. Fertilisation is vital event & zygote is vital link.
In a stamen proximal end of filament is attached to
1. Anther.
2. Thalamus or petals.
3. Sepals.
4. Gynoecium.
Number of ovules in an ovary is more then one in all except
1. Papaya
2. Mango
3. Orchids
4. Water melon
Statement - 1 : Pollination by is rare it is confined to only 30-genra mainly monocots.
Statement - 2 : Majority of aquatic plants are pollinated by wind or insects.
Options
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Both statements are incorrect.
3. Only 1 is correct.
4. Only 2 is correct.
Who established that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the behaviour of gene :-
1. Corners & tschermak.
2. Sutton & Boveri.
3. T.H. Morgan.
4. Klug & cumminis.
Find incorrect match
1. Polygenic inheritance – Spread across of gradient.
2. Pleiotropy – Single gene multiple phenotype.
3. X body of henking – One each in sperm.
4. Pedigree analysis – Mendelian trait.
How many of the following statements are correct?
(1) Phenyl ketonuria leads to mental retardness.
(2) Thalassemia is quantitative where as sickle-cell anaemia is qualitative.
(3) Possibility of female becoming haemophilic is extramely rare.
(4) 8% of male & 0.4% of females are haemophilic.
Options
1. All
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
Find the incorrect statement
1. Lac-operon is under both positive and negative regulation.
2. A very low level of expression of lac operon has to be present all the time, otherwise lactose can not enter into the cell.
3. The repressor of the operon is synthesised all the time-constitutively.
4. In lac operon lactose or allolactose acts as repressor.
Which of the following is not correct for “Snips”?
1. | There are 1.4 million locations in human genome. |
2. | Where single base differences occur. |
3. | They shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution. |
4. | It promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease associated sequences. |
In bacteria process of transcription and translation is coupled, because?
1. No seperation of cytosol and nucleus.
2. Ribosome is attached to nuclear envelope.
3. No energy requirement.
4. No cytoplasm.
What is the function of DNA ligase?
1. It synthesises RNA primer.
2. It joins discontinuous strands.
3. It unwinds DNA double strand.
4. It cuts DNA strand.
Find incorrect match
1. Joint forest management (JFM) – 1980
2. National forest policy – 1988
3. Chipko movement – 1984
4. Noise as air pollutant – 1987
Find incorrect match
1. Electron static precipitator – Removes 99% particulate matter.
2. Scrubber – Remove SO2
3. Catalytic converter – Non metalic catalyst.
4. CNG – Burns efficiently.
Amount of DDT in fish eating bird is :-
1. 25 ppm
2. 15 ppm
3. 10 ppm
4. 5 ppm
Find incorrect match
1. The earth summit – 1992
2. World summit on sustainable development – 2002
3. Hot spots – 2% of the earth’s land area.
4. Sacred groves – Ex situ conservation
Match the following
Group Percent facing threat of extinction
A. Birds 1. 12%
B. Mammals 2. 23%
C. Amphbians 3. 32%
D. Gymnosperm 4. 31%
Options
A B C D
1. 4 3 2 1
2. 1 2 3 4
3. 1 3 2 4
4. 1 4 3 2
Statement - 1 : Herbivores and plants appears to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores.
Statement - 2 : Competition is a process in which fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
Options
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Both statements are incorrect.
3. 1 is incorrect.
4. 2 is incorrect.
Find incorrect statements
1. In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major conduit for energy flow.
2. In terrestrial ecosystem, DFC is is the major conduit for energy flow.
3. In nature food chain always works in isolation.
4. Even DFC & GFC is linked in nature.
A simple electric motor has armature resistance of 1 and runs from a d.c. source of 12V. When running unloaded it draws a current of 2A. When a certain load is connected, its speed becomes one-half of its unloaded value. Then the current in ampere it draws is:-
1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. 9
The displacement current flows in the dielectric of a capacitor when the potential difference between its plates:-
1. is changing with time.
2. is changing with distance.
3. becomes zero.
4. has assumed a constant value.
The real angle of dip, if a magnet is suspended at an angle of 30 to the magnetic meridian and the dip needle makes an angle of 45 with the horizontal is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. |
Ovulation |
LH surge |
2. |
Follicular phase of menstrual cycle |
Regeneration of endometrium |
3. |
Luteal phase |
Secretion of FSH |
4. |
Menstruation |
Withdrawal of progesterone |
Fructose is contributed to the semen by the secretions of:
1. Seminal vesicles
2. Prostate
3. Bulbourethral glands
4. Testes
The primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division at the stage of:
1. Primordial follicle
2. Primary follicle
3. Secondary follicle
4. Tertiary follicle
Stem cells that are capable of giving rise to all the tissues and organs are present in:
1. Cumulus oophorus of the Graafian follicle
2. Lutein cells of the corpus luteum
3. Trophoblast cells of the developing embryo
4. Inner cell mass of developing embryo
An STD that is completely curable, if detected and treated early, would be:
1. AIDS
2. Genital herpes
3. Syphilis
4. Hepatitis B
Which of the following traits in the garden pea plant would express itself only in homozygous condition?
1. Violet flower color
2. Terminal flower position
3. Green pod color
4. Yellow seed color
progeny resemble both the parents in the case of:
1. Complete dominance
2. Incomplete dominance
3. Codominance
4. Multiple allelism
All the following are examples of Mendelian disorders except:
1. Hemophilia
2. Sickle cell anemia
3. Phenylketonuria
4. Down's syndrome
The salient features of the double helix model of DNA do not include:
1. Backbone constituted bu sugar-phosphate
2. Anti-parallel polarity of the two chains
3. Complementary base pairing
4. Two chains coiled in left handed fashion
What is incorrect regarding semi-conservative replication of DNA?
1. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates provide energy for polymerization
2. The discontinuously synthesized fragments are later joined by DNA ligase
3. Unlike in prokaryotes which have a single ori, replication starts at random sites in eukaryotes
4. In eukaryotes it takes place at the S phase of the cell cycle
A transcription unit does not include:
1. Operator
2. Promoter
3. Structural gene
4. Terminator
What is synthesized constitutively in the lac operon?
1. Lactose
2. Repressor
3. Permease
4. Beta-galactosidase
Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been described as a DNA polymorphism if more than one variant at a locus occurs in human population with a frequency greater than:
1. 0.01
2. 0.5
3. 0.66
4. 0.99
Theory of spontaneous generation of life was conclusively disproved by:
1. Francesco Redi
2. Oparin and Haldane
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Eldredge and Gould
Which of the following is not a result of convergent evolution?
1. Potato and sweet potato
2. Flippers of penguins and dolphins
3. Eye of octopus and a mammal
4. Thorn and tendril of Bougainvillea
The process of evolution of different species in a geographical area starting from a point and reaching other areas of habitats is called:
1. Convergent evolution
2. Adaptive radiation
3. Genetic drift
4. Saltation
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. Ramapithecus More man like ape like
2. Homo habilis First human like being, the hominid
3. Homo erectus Probably did not eat meat
4. Neanderthal Buried their dead
The mode of transmission for all the following human diseases is primarily by droplet infection except for:
1. Pneumonia
2. Diphtheria
3. Influenza
4. Polio
Select the option where all columns are correctly matched:
Disease |
Causative organism |
Feature |
|
1. |
Malignant malaria |
Plasmodium ovale |
Cerebral involvement |
2. |
Typhoid |
Salmonella typhi |
Confirmed by the VDRL test |
3. |
Elephantiasis |
Wuchereria bancrofti |
Waterborne disease |
4. |
Ringworm |
Microsporum |
Intense itching |
The fetus receives some antibodies from their mother, through the placenta. This is an example of:
1. Naturally acquired passive immunity
2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
3. Naturally acquired active immunity
4. Artificially acquired active immunity
Which of the following drugs has a potent stimulating action of central nervous system?
1. Morphine
2. Cocaine
3. Barbiturate
4. Benzodiazepine
For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism:
1. It must be devoid of any introns in it
2. It must be a part of a chromosome with an ori
3. It must have recognition sequence of at least one restriction enzyme
4. It must have selectable markers
In the screening process, the non-recombinant transformed bacteria turn X-gal:
1. Colorless
2. Blue
3. Red
4. Green
The Km value of an enzyme denotes the substrate concentration at which the enzyme catalyzed reaction:
1. Reaches Vmax
2. Shows a decline in the rate of reaction
3. Attains ½ Vmax
4. Finally stops
Consider the following statements:
I. There is no uncatalyzed metabolic conversion in living systems
II. The living state and metabolism are synonymous
III. All metabolic conversions in living systems are catalyzed by proteins
The number of correct statements is:
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
Identify the given compound:
1. An amino acid
2. A purine base
3. Polysaccharide containing nitrogen
4. Prostaglandin
Which of the following does not characterize mitotic prophase?
1. Chromosomal material condensation
2. Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle
3. Nuclear envelope breakdown at the beginning
4. Nucleolus disappears by the end
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
Meiosis stage Event
1. Pachytene Bivalents clearly visible as tetrads
2. Diakinesis Terminalization of chiasmata
3. Anaphase I Splitting of centromere
4. Interkinesis No DNA replication
What is true regarding the morphology of Periplaneta americana?
1. Head is formed by the fusion of 10 segments
2. Hypopharynx acts as the tongue
3. The first pair of wings arise from the prothorax
4. Anal cerci are not seen in females
Dense irregular connective tissue is present in:
1. Skin
2. Tendons
3. Ligaments
4. Bone marrow
Which of the following animals exhibit all these characters – bilateral symmetry, triploblastic, segmented and eucoelomate?
1. Echinoderms
2. Roundworms
3. Molluscs
4. Annelids
What is incorrect regarding cyclostomes?
1. They are ectoparasites on some fishes
2. They have a circular mouth without jaws
3. Circulation is of open type
4. They are marine but migrate to fresh water for spawning
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
Animal Characteristic feature
1. Adamsia Cnidocyte
2. Pleurobrachia Comb plates
3. Hook worm Pseudocoelomate
4. Dentalium Water vascular system
All the following facilitate binding of oxygen to hemoglobin at alveoli except:
1. Low pO2
2. Low pCO2
3. Lesser H+ concentration
4. Lower temperature
When the plasma of a person has both anti A and anti B antibodies the blood group of this person would be:
1. A
2. B
3. AB
4. O
During which stage of the cardiac cycle is the first heart sound produced?
1. | Atrial diastole | 2. | Joint diastole |
3. | Ventricular systole | 4. | Ventricular diastole |
In order to produce concentrated urine, large amounts of water can be reabsorbed from:
1. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
2. Descending limb of loop of Henle
3. Distal convoluted tubule
4. Collecting duct
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
Disease | Cause | |
1. | Myasthenia gravis | Antibodies against neuromuscular junction |
2. | Tetany | Hypocalcemia |
3. | Osteoporosis | Hypoparathyroidism |
4. | Gout | Accumulation of uric acid crystals |
The calcium binding protein in smooth muscles leading to contraction is:
1. Calmodulin
2. Troponin
3. Tropomyosin
4. Ubiquitin
The resting axonal membrane of a neuron:
1. is not polarized
2. has an excess of anions on the outside
3. is more permeable to potassium ions than to sodium ions
4. cannot be excited by a stimulus
The specific receptor organ in the otolith organ of the internal ear is called:
1. Macula
2. Crista
3. Cupula
4. Organ of Corti
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. Growth hormone Increases blood glucose level
2. Thyroxin Supports erythropoiesis
3. Cortisol Promotes protein anabolism
4. Glucagon Stimulates gluconeogenesis
To obtain microbial product at industrial scale which equipment is used.
1. Auto clave.
2. Fermentors.
3. Laminar flow.
4. Phytotron.
A small circular flexible loop of wire of radius r carries a current I. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B. The tension in the loop will be doubled if:-
1. B is doubled.
2. I is halved.
3. r is halved.
4. Both B and r are doubled.