High Yield Test #16 (Level 2)

Botany - Section A

1. Parthenium, Lantana and Eicchornia are:

1.	recently extinct species
2.	species adapted to highly arid regions
3.	examples of invasive species
4.	capable of thriving in arctic and antarctic permafrost

2. The DNA sequence shown below is:
5’ – GAATTC – 3’
3’ – CTTAAG – 5’

1.	the consensus sequence for prokaryotic promoter
2.	the most common VNTR in the human genome
3.	the recognition sequence of a common restriction endonuclease EcoR I
4.	an intron within the eukaryotic split gene

3.

In agar gel electrophoresis, the restriction fragments produced by restriction enzymes:

1.	move towards cathode
2.	do not move at all
3.	are separated according to size with smaller fragments moving farther
4.	are transported onto a nitrocellulose membrane

4. Which of the following nutrient cycle(s) is(are) of gaseous type?
I. Nitrogen Cycle
II. Sulphur Cycle
III. Phosphorus Cycle
IV. Carbon Cycle
1. Only I and II
2. Only III and IV
3. Only II and III
4. Only I and IV

5. The chromosome, where the centromere is located in the centre and hence has two equal arms, is called as :
1. Metacentric
2. Sub-metacentric
3. Acrocentric
4. Telocentric

6. Like mitochondria, the chloroplasts:

1.	are found only in plant cells
2.	do not have 70 S ribosomes
3.	are also double membrane bound
4.	are unable to carry out phosphorylation of ADP

7. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Placentation	Example
1.	Marginal	Pea
2.	Axile	China rose
3.	Parietal	Primrose
4.	Basal	Marigold

8. A cell decides not to divide and enters the Quiescent Stage (G0) exiting the cell cycle from:
1. G₁ phase
2. S phase
3. G₂phase
4. M phase

9. Which of the secondary metabolites are carbohydrate binding proteins and called lectins?
1. Morphine
2. Codeine
3. Concanavalin A
4. Vinblastin

10. Endosperm may persist in mature seed in:
1. Pea and Apple
2. Groundnut and Wheat
3. Beans and Mango
4. Castor and Coconut

11. During which stage of the meiotic cell division does the centromere split leading to the separation of sister chromatids?

1.	Metaphase I	2.	Metaphase II
3.	Anaphase I	4.	Anaphase II

12. Fermentation is not a waste but it serves an important purpose which is:
1. Regeneration of NAD +
2. Formation of large number of ATP
3. Evolution of oxygen
4. Complete oxidation of pyruvic acid

13. In photorespiration, ATP and sugars are not synthesized and RuBP is converted to:

1.	Two molecules of PGA
2.	One molecule of G3P and one molecule of DHAP
3.	One molecule of phosphoglycerate and one molecule of phosphoglycolate
4.	Two molecules of pyruvate

14. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Golden rice	Vitamin B₁₂ enriched rice
2.	Rosie	First transgenic cow
3.	Bt Cotton	Genetically modified pest resistant plant cotton variety
4.	Basmati controversy	Biopiracy

15. What is the relative contribution of carbon dioxide and methane to total global warming respectively?
1. 14 % and 6 %
2. 14 % and 20 %
3. 60 % and 20 %
4. 60 % and 6 %

16. Which of the following is not a function of auxins?

1.	Initiate rooting in stem cuttings
2.	Promote flowering in pineapples
3.	Induce parthenocarpy in tomato
4.	Elongate length of stems in sugar cane

17. The only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is:
1. Cleistogamy
2. Chasmogamy
3. Geitonogamy
4. Xenogamy

18. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	Temperature is the most important ecologically relevant factor.
2.	Organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures are called eurythermal.
3.	The salt concentration is 30-35 in inland waters, 5 in the sea and >100 in some hyper saline lagoons.
4.	Many plants are dependent on sunlight to meet their photoperiodic requirement for flowering.

19. Which of the following is not a significance of mitosis?

1.	Restoration of nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
2.	Growth
3.	Reduction of chromosome number
4.	Replacement of lost cells

20. You have a tall garden pea plant. A cross that will help you to determine whether the plant is homozygous tall or hybrid tall is:

1.	A reciprocal cross
2.	A back cross with homozygous dominant parent
3.	Test cross
4.	Dihybrid cross

21. The fruit in mango and coconut is called as:
1. Aril
2. Drupe
3. Berry
4. Samara

22. If you want to generate virus-free plant through micropropagation [plant tissue culture], the explant you should use is:
1. Meristem
2. Embryo
3. Anther
4. Ovule

23. What is the correct sequence of plants in primary succession in water (pioneer species to climax community)?

1.	Phytoplankton - Submerged plant stage - Marsh-meadow stage - Reed swamp stage - Submerged free floating plant stage - Scrub stage - Forest
2.	Phytoplankton - Submerged plant stage - Submerged free floating plant stage - Reed swamp stage - Marsh-meadow stage - Scrub stage - Forest
3.	Phytoplankton - Submerged plant stage - Reed swamp stage - Marsh-meadow stage - Submerged free floating plant stage - Scrub stage - Forest
4.	Phytoplankton - Submerged plant stage - Marsh-meadow stage - Reed swamp stage - Submerged free floating plant stage - Forest - Scrub stage

24. Which of the following is not correct regarding the famous double helix model of DNA given by Watson and Crick?

1.	The two strands are anti-parallel
2.	The two strands are complementary
3.	The strands are coiled in a right-handed fashion
4.	The pitch of the helix is 34 nm

25. The current episode of mass extinction:

1.	is the 5th extinction and is progressing slower than the previous episodes
2.	is the 6th extinction and is progressing faster than the previous episodes
3.	is the 5th extinction and is progressing faster than the previous episodes
4.	is the 6th extinction and is progressing slower than the previous episodes

26. To isolate DNA from a cell, the cell wall needs to be broken. Match the enzymes in Column I with the type of cell in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Lysozyme	P.	Fungal cell
B.	Cellulase	Q.	Plant cell
C.	Chitinase	R.	Bacterial cell

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	P	R	Q
3.	R	P	Q
4.	R	Q	P

27. Regarding various levels of protein structure, which of the following is not true?

1.	The positional information of amino acids in a protein is called the primary structure.
2.	Alpha helix is a secondary structure and beta pleated sheet is a tertiary structure of a protein.
3.	Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of proteins.
4.	Quaternary structures are seen in proteins made of more than one polypeptide chain.

28. Selaginella, a pteridophyte which belongs to the class Lycopsida, is:

1.	heterosporous and has microphylls
2.	homosporous and has macrophylls
3.	homosporous and has microphylls
4.	heterosporous and has macrophylls

29. Match each item in Column I with one from Column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:

Column I	Column II
A. Dormancy	P. A stage of suspended development many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds enter under unfavourable conditions
B. Hibernation	Q. The state in which seeds of higher plants reduce their metabolic activity which serves a s a means to tide over periods of stress and seed dispersal
C. Aestivation	R. A state of inactivity and lowered metabolic rate animals like fish and snails enter in response to avoid summer-related problems
D. Diapause	S. A state of inactivity and lowered metabolic rate animals enter in during the winter season

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	S	R	P
2.	S	Q	P	R
3.	P	R	Q	S
4.	R	P	S	Q

30. If you compare the transport in xylem and phloem, which of the following would be true?

1.	The transport in xylem is unidirectional and in phloem, it is bi-directional.
2.	The transport in xylem is bi-directional and in phloem, it is unidirectional.
3.	The transport in xylem and phloem is always unidirectional.
4.	The transport in xylem and phloem is always bi-directional.

31. Which of the following statements is true regarding the complex tissues found in plants?

1.	Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the dicotyledons
2.	Vessels are the characteristic feature of gymnosperms
3.	The radial conduction of water takes place by the ray parenchymatous cells
4.	The first formed phloem consists of bigger sieve tubes and is referred to as protophloem

32.

The given image shows:

1. Chara
2. Marchantia
3. Sphagnum
4. Lycopodium

33. All the following statements regarding diatoms are true except:

1.	The two overlapping shells of cell wall fit together as in a soap box.
2.	They are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans.
3.	Their cell walls are embedded with silica.
4.	Diatoms behave like heterotrophs when deprived of sunlight.

34. What is the function of trichomes on the stems?

1.	They help in absorption of water and minerals.
2.	They help in preventing water loss due to transpiration.
3.	They help in transpiration of water, the biological process by which water is lost in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plants.
4.	They allow interchange of gases between the internal tissue and the atmosphere.

35.

Wind-pollinated flowers are characterized by:

1.	being heavily scented
2.	highly attractive colours
3.	non-sticky light pollen grains, well-exposed stamen, large feathery stigma
4.	ribbon shaped pollen with mucilaginous covering

Botany - Section B

36. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding the modifications seen in stems:

I:	Stem tendrils develop from axillary buds and help plants, such as pea, to climb
II:	Opuntia modifies its stems into flattened structures to protect itself from browsing animals
III:	Underground stems of some plants such as grass and strawberry spread to new niches and when older plants die, new plants are formed.

1.	I, II, and III	2.	Only II and III
3.	Only III	4.	Only I and III

37. Which of the following is not a function of ethylene?

1.	Breaking seed and bud dormancy
2.	Horizontal growth of seedlings, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedlings
3.	Enhancement of respiration rate during ripening of fruits
4.	Closure of stomata during water stress

38. The mitochondrial electron transport system is present in the:
1. Outer membrane
2. Inner membrane
3. Inter-membrane space
4. Matrix

39. What appears as symptoms of manganese toxicity in plants may actually be the deficiency of any of the following except:
1. Iron
2. Magnesium
3. Nitrogen
4. Calcium

40. All the following are hotspots of biodiversity covering India except:
1. Eastern Ghats and Bangladesh
2. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
3. Indo-Burma
4. Himalaya

41.

Which scientist, given in Column I, is not correctly matched with the contribution given in Column II?

	Column I	Column II
1.	Norman Borlaug	Blue revolution
2.	Florey and Chain	Established penicillin for commercial use
3.	Cohen and Boyer	Recombinant DNA technology
4.	Fred Sanger	Human genome sequencing

42. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

1.	Detritus Food Chain begins with dead organic matter.
2.	In an aquatic ecosystem, DFC is the major conduit for energy flow.
3.	The pyramid of energy is always upright and can never be inverted because when energy flows from one trophic level to the next, some energy is always lost as heat at each step.
4.	The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton

43. Regarding enzyme catalysis, all of the following will be true except:

1.	The rate of reaction initially increases with an increase in substrate concentration
2.	It speeds up the rate of reaction by decreasing the requirement for activation energy
3.	If the associated co-factor is removed, the enzyme activity is enhanced
4.	Enzymes have an optimum temperature and pH, at which they act most efficiently

44. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Chlorella is used as food supplement by space travellers
Statement II:	Chlorella is a unicellular algae

1.	Both I and II are true and II correctly explains I
2.	I is true and II is false
3.	Both I and II are true but II does not explain I
4.	Both I and II are false

45. What is not true regarding the factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis?

1.	There is a linear relationship between incident light and carbon dioxide fixation rates at low light intensities.
2.	Current availability of carbon dioxide levels is limiting to the C4 plants.
3.	C4 plants respond to higher temperatures and show higher rates of photosynthesis
4.	Water stress causes the stomata to close, hence reducing the availability of carbon dioxide

46. Polymerase chain reaction can amplify DNA, producing about 1 billion copies in 30 cycles. The correct sequence of the steps of this reaction is:

1.	Denaturation → Annealing of primers → Extension of primers
2.	Denaturation → Extension of primers → Annealing of primers
3.	Extension of primers → Annealing of primers → Denaturation
4.	Annealing of primers → Extension of primers → Denaturation

47. Which of the following algae is not haplo-diplontic?

1.	Kelps	2.	Ectocarpus
3.	Spirogyra	4.	Polysiphonia

48. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	All solutions have a lower water potential than pure water.
2.	Pressure potential is usually positive, though it may be negative in xylem.
3.	Osmotic pressure is the positive pressure applied while osmotic potential is negative.
4.	Root pressure is the major factor for water movement up tall trees.

49. Cells which are much thickened at the corners due to a deposition of cellulose, hemi-cellulose and pectin and provide mechanical support to young stems are:
1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Sclereids
4. Sclerenchyma fibres

50. The respiratory quotient:

I:	is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide evolved to the volume of oxygen consumed
II:	is 1, if carbohydrates are used as respiratory substrates and are completely oxidized

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

Zoology - Section A

51. Mule:

1.	is an interspecific hybrid
2.	is fertile
3.	do not exhibit hybrid vigour
4.	is not of any economic value

52. Which hormone promotes the uptake, utilization and storage of glucose by body cells, especially the muscle cells and adipose cells?

1.	Cortisol	2.	Insulin
3.	Glucagon	4.	Somatotropin

53. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Down’s syndrome	Trisomy 21
2.	Sickle cell anaemia	Inherited as an autosomal recessive condition
3.	Phenylketonuria	Inherited as an autosomal dominant condition
4.	Klinefelter’s syndrome	44 Autosomes + XXY

54. Citric acid, widely used in the food industry, can be commercially produced with the help of the microbe:

1.	Propionibacterium shermanii
2.	Aspergillus niger
3.	Xanthomonas citri
4.	Colletotrichum falcatum

55. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Myasthenia gravis	Autoimmune disorder affecting neuro-muscular junction
2.	Tetany	Spasms in muscle due to high Ca²⁺ in body fluids
3.	Osteoporosis	Decreased bone mass is commonly due to decreased levels of estrogen
4.	Gout	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals

56. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Lactational amenorrhoea can be effective for a maximum period of six months.
2.	Tubectomy and Vasectomy are easily reversible processes.
3.	Male barrier contraceptives protect against STIs.
4.	Oral contraceptive pills prevent ovulation.

57. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	P wave on an ECG	P	Ventricluar depolarization
B.	QRS complex on an ECG	Q	Atrial depolarization
C.	First heart sound	R	Closure of semilunar valves
D.	Second heart sound	S	Closure of atrioventricular valves

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	Q	P	R	S

58. The two polynucleotide strands in a dsDNA molecule are:

1.	parallel and identical
2.	anti-parallel and identical
3.	parallel and complementary
4.	anti-parallel and complementary

59. For each unit difference in the partial pressure across the diffusion membrane, the amount of carbon dioxide that diffuses:

1.	is higher than the amount of oxygen as the solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times lower than that of oxygen
2.	is lower than the amount of oxygen as the solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times lower than that of oxygen
3.	is higher than the amount of oxygen as the solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times higher than that of oxygen
4.	is lower than the amount of oxygen as the solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times higher than that of oxygen

60. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Cyclosporin A	Immuno-suppressant from Trichoderma polysporum
2.	Statins	Blood cholesterol lowering agents from Monascus purpureus
3.	Streptokinase	Clot buster from Staphylococcus aureus
4.	Penicillium notatum	Source of antibiotic discovered by Fleming

61. HIV, a retrovirus causing AIDS in humans, cannot be transmitted through:

1.	sexual contact with infected persons
2.	transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products and sharing infected needles
3.	placenta from the infected mother to her child
4.	mere touch or physical contact

62. The human placenta does not secrete:

1.	Oestrogen	2.	Progesterone
3.	Thyroxine	4.	Human placental lactogen

63. Match each item in Column-I with one given in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Column-I [Organism]		Column-II [Mechanism of sex determination]
A.	Honey bees	P.	Genic balance
B.	Grasshopper	Q.	ZZ-ZW, female heterogamety
C.	Birds	R.	XX-XO male heterogamety
D.	Fruit fly	S.	Haplo-diploidy

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	R	P	Q	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	S	R	Q	P

64. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Lysosomes	Carry acid hydrolases
2.	Ribosomes	Double membrane bound cell organelles
3.	Golgi apparatus	Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
4.	Amyloplasts	Plastids that store carbohydrates

65. Consider the following statements about adaptations that help organisms to survive and reproduce in their habitats:

I.	The kangaroo rat can meet all its water requirements through internal fat oxidation.
II.	Many desert plants have a thick cuticle, sunken stomata, and CAM pathway to protect themselves from herbivory.
III.	Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This is known as Allen’s Rule.
IV.	Some species of desert lizards are capable of burrowing into the soil to hide and escape from the above-ground heat.
V.	At higher altitudes, the body compensates for low oxygen availability by decreasing red blood cells production, increasing the binding affinity of haemoglobin and by decreasing breathing rate.

1.	Only I, II and V are correct
2.	Only I, III and IV are correct
3.	Only I, II and III are correct
4.	Only II, IV and V are correct

66.

All the following statements regarding histones, the proteins used in packaging of DNA, are correct except:

1.	They are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
2.	They carry a positive charge on the side chain.
3.	They are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
4.	The pH of histones is slightly acidic.

67.

DNA can be visualized through UV rays if it is stained with:

1.	Ethidium bromide	2.	Polyethylene glycol
3.	Tritiated thymidine	4.	Colchicine

68. A chronic respiratory disorder, commonly caused by cigarette smoking but rarely due to deficiency of α-1 antitrypsin enzyme, is:

1.	Bronchial asthma	2.	Tuberculosis
3.	Emphysema	4.	Pneumoconiosis

69. Cr-Jacob disease (CJD) in humans is caused by:

1.	Prions	2.	Viroids
3.	Virus	4.	Lichens

70. The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division:
1. during the fetal life
2. before puberty
3. at the time of ovulation
4. at the time of fertilization

71. Tendons and ligaments are examples of:
1. Loose connective tissue
2. Specialized connective tissue
3. Dense regular connective tissue
4. Dense irregular connective tissue

72. Cu ions released by IUDs like Multiload 375 and CuT:

1.	prevent ovulation
2.	suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity
3.	prevent implantation
4.	make cervix hostile to sperms

73. Which of the following proteolytic enzymes is not secreted by the pancreas in humans?
1. Carboxypeptidase
2. Trypsin
3. Dipeptidase
4. Chymotrypsin

74. Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR), a location in DNA where a short nucleotide sequence is organized as a tandem, repeats with variations in length between individuals, is useful in:
1. amplifying DNA
2. DNA fingerprinting
3. denaturing DNA
4. supercoiling of DNA

75. Ovary does not secrete:
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Relaxin
4. Human chorionic gonadotropin

76. Chordates are not characterised by:

1.	Presence of notochord
2.	Ventral, solid and double central nervous system
3.	Pharynx perforated by gill slits
4.	A post-anal tail

77. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Jhum cultivation	P	Organic farmer
B.	Water logging of soil	Q	Polyblend
C.	Ramesh Chand Dagar	R	Slash and burn agriculture
D	Ahmed Khan	S	Salinity

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

78. Which of the following structures in Cockroach is not correctly matched with its function/description?

1.	Malpighian tubules	Excretion and osmoregulation
2.	Blood vascular system	Delivery of oxygen to the tissues
3.	Crop	Stores food
4.	Gizzard	Grinding of the food particles

79. During the coagulation of blood:

1.	Fibrinogen is activated by the enzyme plasmin
2.	Prothrombin is activated by the enzyme fibrinolysin
3.	The basophils release certain factors which activate the mechanism of coagulation
4.	Calcium ions play a very important role

80. Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
1. Ornithorhynchus
2. Ichthyophis
3. Hippocampus
4. Macropus

81. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I:	The resting axonal membrane is relatively more permeable to potassium ions and nearly impermeable to sodium ions.
II:	Sodium-potassium pump transports 3 Na⁺outwards for 2 K⁺into the cell.

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

82. One of the following biomolecules is neither a macromolecule nor a polymer. Identify it:
1. Proteins
2. Lipids
3. Carbohydrates
4. Nucleic acids

83. Cells of a malignant tumour reach distant sites through blood and wherever they get lodged in the body, start a new tumour there. This property is called:
1. Oncogenic transformation
2. Contact inhibition
3. Metastasis
4. Carcinogenesis

84. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Sertoli cells	P.	Secretion of androgens
B.	Leydig cells	Q.	Spermiogenesis
C.	Uterine Myometrium	R.	Implantation
D.	Uterine Endometrium	S.	Parturition

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	R	Q	S
2.	R	S	P	Q
3.	Q	P	S	R
4.	S	Q	R	P

85. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Taylor	Radioactive thymidine
2.	Meselson and Stahl	¹⁵N
3.	Hershey and Chase	³²P and ³⁵S
4.	Griffith	¹⁴C

Zoology - Section B

86. The following image represents what type of population:

1.	Finite Population	2.	Declining Population
3.	Stabilising Population	4.	Expanding Population

87. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Radioactive waste	Buried deep below the Earth’s surface
2.	Electronic wastes	Recycling is the only solution
3.	EcoSan	Waste water management
4.	Solid wastes	Sanitary land fills

88. Cones in human eye:
1. are of three types and function in photopic and colour vision
2. are of three types and function in scotopic vision
3. are of two types and function in photopic and colour vision
4. are of two types and function in scotopic vision

89. Which of the given differences between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus are correct?

		Kwashiokor	Marasmus
I.	Age incidence	More than one year	Less than one year
II.	Deficiency of	Proteins	Proteins and calories
III.	Clinical feature	Extreme emaciation	Extensive oedema

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

90. In breathing:

1.	Contraction of internal costal muscles leads to inhalation
2.	Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral axis
3.	Inspiration occurs when there is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure
4.	The residual volume of the lungs averages 2500 ml to 3000 ml

91. Why is a nucleic acid probe required in many genetic engineering experiments?

1.	To clone genes
2.	To produce a large amount of DNA from a tiny amount of DNA
3.	To make DNA on the template of RNA
4.	To identify genes that have been separated by electrophoresis, or mRNA molecules through in-situ hybridization

92.

Which statements are correct regarding centriole?

I:	Centrioles are typically made up of nine sets of short microtubule triplets, arranged in a cylinder.
II:	The main function of centrioles is to produce cilia during interphase and the aster and the spindle during cell division.
III:	Centrioles start duplicating when DNA replicates.

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

93. Which part of the nephron plays a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid?
1. Proximal convoluted tubule
2. Ascending limb of Loop of Henle
3. Descending limb of Loop of Henle
4. Distal convoluted tubule

94. Identify the incorrect statement regarding human skeleton:

1.	The total number of true ribs and floating ribs are 7 pairs and 2 pairs respectively
2.	Glenoid cavity and acetabulum are respectively present in scapula and coxal bone
3.	The number of cervical vertebrae in Giraffe are more than the cervical vertebrae in humans
4.	Sutures between cranial bones are examples of fibrous joints

95. Identify the hormone that is not correct matched with the corresponding description:

1.	Cholecystokinin	Causes contraction of gall bladder and secretion of enzymes by pancreas
2.	ADH	Deficiency causes diabetes insipidus
3.	Erythropoeitin	Secreted by kidney and stimulates RBC production by bone marrow
4.	Atrial natriuretic peptide	Secreted by kidney, is a vasodilator

96.

Potassium ions:

I:	are filtered at the glomerulus
II:	are reabsorbed at the PCT
III:	are secreted at DCT

Correct statements are:

1.	I & II only	2.	I & III only
3.	II & III only	4.	I, II & III

97. Which of the following is an example of naturally acquired passive immunity?

1.	giving anti-venom injection to a person with snake bite
2.	passage of IgG class of antibodies through placenta to the foetus and also of IgA class through colostrums
3.	giving vaccine produced in recombinant yeast to prevent Hepatitis B
4.	a person getting infected by a bacterium and developing antibodies against it

98. Regarding the stages in the life cycle of Plasmodium:

I:	Sporozoite is the infective stage for man
II:	In human body it first reproduces asexually in liver cells
III:	fertilization takes place in the gut of the mosquito

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

99. During the elongation step of bacterial translation peptide bond formation, is catalyzed by a ribozyme which is:

1.	the 23S ribosomal RNA in the 50S ribosomal subunit
2.	the 23S ribosomal RNA in the 30S ribosomal subunit
3.	the 16S ribosomal RNA in the 50S ribosomal subunit
4.	the 16S ribosomal RNA in the 30S ribosomal subunit

100. Which of the following is a defining feature of life?
1. Growth
2. Reproduction
3. Consciousness
4. Movement

Chemistry - Section A

101.

A in the reaction below is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

102. The compound \(PbI_4\) does not exist because:
1. \(Pb^{2+}\) is more stable than \(Pb^{4+}\).
2. \(I^-\) is better reducing agent.
3. \(Pb^{4+}\) is more stable than \(Pb^{2+}\).
4. \(I^-\) is better oxidising agent.

103. For all of the following, \(H_2O_2\) can be obtained when the following react with \(H_2SO_4\), except with
1. \(PbO_2\)
2. \(BaO_2\)
3. \(Na_2O_2\)
4. \(SrO_2\)

104.

The increasing order of the reactivity of the following compounds towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction is :


(I)	(II)	(III)	(IV)

1. III < I < II < IV
2. III < II < I < IV
3. I < III < IV< II
4. III < I < IV < II

105. Van't Hoff factor for \(SrCl_2\) at 0.01 M is 1.8. Percent dissociation of \(SrCl_2\) at this concentration is:
1. 70
2. 55
3. 40
4. 80

106. The total number of isomers for \(C_4H_{10}O\) are (including stereoisomers):
1. Four (4)
2. Five (5)
3. Seven (7)
4. Eight (8)

107. Which of the following represents the correct order of acidity?

1. CH₃OH >C₂H₅OH >H₂O
2. H₂O >CH₃OH > C₂H₅OH
3. CH₃OH > H₂O > C₂H₅OH
4. C₂H₅OH > CH₃OH >H₂O

108. The most soluble metal carbonate is
1. \(Na_2CO_3\)
2. \(MgCO_3\)
3. \(K_2CO_3\)
4. \(CaCO_3\)

109. The pair of species having similar magnetic moments is:
1. \(Ti^{3+} , V^{3+}\)
2. \(Cr^{3+} ,Mn^{2+}\)
3. \(Mn^{2+} , Fe^{3+}\)
4. \(Fe^{2+} ,Mn^{2+}\)

110. The conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is:

1.		2.	\(N_3^-\)
3.	\(N_2^-\)	4.	\(N^{3-}\)

111. The role of gypsum in cement is
1. quick setting
2. to delay the setting
3. to enhance porosity
4. to bind the particles

112. For \(H_2\) and \(He\) , the compressibility Factor (Z) is:
1. 1
2. >1
3. <1
4. zero

113. Which compound is least reactive towards \(S_N1\) reaction with aqueous \(KOH\) ?

1.		2.
3.		4.	\((CH_3)_2CH-Cl\)

114. Mond's process is used for the purification of
1. \(Ti\)
2. \(Zr\)
3. \(Ni\)
4. \(Hf\)

115. Which of the following is not an antiseptic drug?
1. Dettol
2. 1% solution of phenol
3. Tincture of iodine
4. Iodoform

116.

Which conditions allow the hydrolysis of alkyl cyanides?
1. Acidic medium
2. Alkaline medium
3. Acidic as well as alkaline medium
4. Neither acidic nor alkaline medium

117. Which, of the following, has the maximum number of atoms at NTP?
1. \(1 ~ml~CH_4\)
2. \(1~ml~N_2\)
3. \(1~ml~H_2\)
4. \(1 ~ml~H_2O\)

118. For an endothermic reaction, if the value of \(\Delta H\) is +40 Joule and activation energy for backward reaction is 100 Joule, then activation energy for forward reaction will be
1. 60 Joule
2. 140 Joule
3. 40 Joule
4. 80 Joule

119. pH of \(Ba(OH)_2\) is 11. Then the solubility product of \(Ba(OH)_2\) is:
1. \(10^{-6}\) M³
2.  \(5 \times 10^{-7}\) M³
3.  \(5 \times 10^{-10}\) M³
4.  \(10^{-10}\) M³

120. Which, of the following ions, is the largest in size ?
1. \(Na^+ (g)\)
2. \(Na^+\)(aqueous)
3. \(Cs^+(g)\)
4. \(Cs^+\)(aqueous)

121. \([Cr(en)_2Br_2]^+\) can show:
1. Optical isomerism
2. Geometrical isomerism
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Linkage Isomerism

122. S-S bond is present in:
1. \(H_2SO_5\)
2. \(H_2S_2O_6 \)
3. \(H_2S_2O_7\)
4. \(H_2S_2O_8\)

123. When \(AgNO_3\) solution is electrolyzed using inert electrodes, then which one of the following is the correct statement about this electrolysis?

1.	pH of the solution increases
2.	pH of the solution decreases
3.	pH of solution unaltered
4.	Can't be predicted based on the given information

124. If the value of m for an electron is +3, it may be found in:

1.	4s orbital	2.	4p orbital
3.	In any f-orbital	4.	In any d-orbital

125. Which of the following is the most paramagnetic species?
1.  \(O^+_2\)
2.  \(C_2\)
3.  \(B_2\)
4.  \(N_2\)

126. Benzene reacts with an excess of chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light to produce:
1. Hexachloro benzene
2. p-Chlorotoluene
3. Benzene hexachloride
4. Chlorobenzene

127. The incorrect statement regarding chemical adsorption is
1. It is unilayered
2. On increasing the pressure, chemical adsorption increases
3. On increasing the temperature, chemical adsorption decreases
4. Heat of adsorption is high i.e. 40 - 400 kJ /Mole

128. Which, of the following, is not a green house gas?
1. \(CO_2\)
2. \(CH_4\)
3. \(NH_3\)
4. \(O_3\)

129. Low density polythene is formed at the pressure of about
1. 6-7 atmosphere
2. 100-200 atmosphere
3. 1000-2000 atmosphere
4. Less than 1 atmosphere

130. The free energy change due to a reaction is zero when :

1.	The reactants are initially mixed
2.	A catalyst is added
3.	The system is at an equilibrium
4.	The reactants are completely consumed

131. In Cannizarro's reaction, we use 50% NaOH or KOH instead of dilute NaOH or KOH. The reason for using the 50% NaOH or KOH in Cannizarro's reaction is:

1.	To convert monoanion to dianion
2.	To prevent the abstraction of hydrogen atom which is attached with carbonyl carbon
3.	To enhance the release of H⁺ ion
4.	None of the above

132. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to:

1. Frenkel defect
2. Interstitial defect
3. F- centre
4. Schottky defect

133. The oxidation number of Cl in \(CaOCl_2\) is :
1. Zero
2. -1
3. +1
4. -1 as well as +1

134. Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment?
1. \(PCl_3F_2\)
2. \(PCl_3~Br_2\)
3. \(PCl_5\)
4. \(BF_3\)

135. The most acidic hydrocarbon among the following is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

Chemistry - Section B

136. 20 gm of a non-volatile and non-electrolyte solute (molecular weight = 62) is dissolved in 200 gm of water at \(-10^\circ C\). How much ice will be separated? \((k_f ~for~H_2O = 1.86 ~K/m)\)
1. 60 gm
2. 120 gm
3. 140 gm
4. 180 gm

137. Given the reaction, \(A + B \rightarrow Products,\) , when concentration of A is fixed and concentration of B is increased 3 times then rate of reaction increases 27 times. Now, when the concentration of A and B both are doubled, then the rate of reaction increases 8 times. The rate law for the reaction will be:
1. \(Rate = K [A]^2[B] \)
2. \(Rate = K [B]^3 \)
3. \(Rate = K [A]^3[B] \)
4. \(Rate = K [A]^3[B]^2\)

138. Molecular shapes of \(ClF_3,~I^-_3\) and \(XeO_3\), respectively, are
1. T-shape, Trigonal bipyramidal, Pyramidal
2. T-shape, Linear, Pyramidal
3. Planar, Linear, Tetrahedral
4. Trigonal bipyramidal, Linear, Pyramidal

139. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
1. \(CH_3COCH_3\)
2. \(CH_3CHO\)
3. \(C_6H_5CHO\)
4. \(C_6H_5COCH_3\)

140. Which of the following order is incorrect?

1.	\(HI > HBr > HCl > HF ~~\text{(Acidic strength)}\)
2.	\(F_2 > Cl_2 > Br_2 > I_2 ~~\text{(Bond Energy )}\)
3.	\(HF > HI > HBr> HCl ~~\text{(Boiling point)}\)
4.	\(F_2 > Cl_2 > Br_2 > I_2 ~~\text{(oxidising Power )}\)

141. The edge of unit cell of fcc in \(Xe\) crystal is 620 pm. The radius of \(Xe\) atom will be
1. 219.23 pm
2. 235.16 pm
3. 189.37 pm
4. 319.23 pm

142. When propyne is passed through a red-hot tube, the product formed is :
1. Toluene
2. m-xylene
3. Mesitylene
4. o-xylene

143. What is the atomic number of the heaviest naturally radioactive actinoid?
1. 91
2. 92
3. 93
4. 94

144. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
\( ~~~~~~~~O\\ ~~~~~~~~~||\\ H - C-CH_2-CH_2-OCH_3\)
1. 2- Formyl Methyl ethane
2. 1-Methoxypropanal
3. 2-Methoxypropanal
4. 3-Methoxypropanal

145. At equilibrium, which of the following is always zero?

1.	\(\Delta H\)	2.	\(\Delta S_{Total}\)
3.	\(\Delta S_{System}\)	4.	\(\Delta G^o\)

146. The number of faradays required to deposit 54 gm Al from \(AlCl_3\) solution is:
[Atomic weight of Al = 27]
1. 2 Faradays
2. 3 Faradays
3. 4 Faradays
4. 6 Faradays

147. pH of a salt of a solution of weak acid and weak base depends upon:
1. Concentration of salt
2. \(K_a\) and \(K_b\) values of weak acid and weak base
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above

148. Consider the following reaction

O¹⁸ appears in:
1. \(CH_3COOC_2H_5\)
2. \(H_2O\)
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Cannot be predicted from the given reaction

149. 9.8 gm \(KClO_3\) is decomposed and the weight loss was observed to be 0.384 gm. The percentage of \(KClO_3\) decomposed is:
1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 40%
4. 100%

150. The shapes of \([NiCl_4]^{2-}\) and \([PtCl_4]^{2-}\) , respectively, are
1. Tetrahedral and Tetrahedral
2. Tetrahedral and Square planar
3. Square planar and Tetrahedral
4. Square planar and Square planar

Physics - Section A

151. A force of \(100~\text N\) acts on a block, always acting opposite to its velocity. The block moves from \(x=4~\text m\) to \(x=10~\text m\) and then to \(x=6~\text {m.}\) The work done by the force is:
1. \(200~\text J\)
2. \(-200~\text J\)
3. \(1000~\text J\)
4. \(-1000~\text J\)

152. If two identically shaped rods are joined end to end and compressive forces are applied to the system, the compressive strain will be:

1.	larger in the rod with a larger Young's modulus
2.	larger in the rod with a smaller Young's modulus
3.	equal in both the rods
4.	negative in the rod with a smaller Young's modulus

153. A particle moves in a circle with a uniform speed of \(3~\text{m/s}\) and its acceleration is \(6~\text{m/s}^2. \) The time period of its motion is (in seconds):
1. \(4\pi\)
2. \(2\pi\)
3. \(\pi\)
4. \(\pi/2\)

154. Two infinite positively charged wires lie in the \(x\text-y\) plane, both carrying the same quantity of charge per unit length. One wire passes through \(A(0,a)\) parallel to the \(x\text-\)axis, while the other wire passes through \(B(-a,0)\) parallel to the \(y\text-\)axis. The electric field at the origin is along:

1. \(\hat i - \hat j\)
2. \(-(\hat i + \hat j)\)
3. \(-\hat i\)
4. \(-\hat j\)

155. A conducting circular wire of radius \(r\) is moving with constant velocity \(v\) towards the right in a uniform magnetic field \(B.\) We consider two points \(X,Y\) such that chord \(XY\) is perpendicular to the velocity \(v\) and is at a distance \(x\) from the centre \((O)\) of the circle. The EMF induced between \(X,Y\) is \(\varepsilon.\) Then, \(\varepsilon\) is proportional to:

1.	\(x\)	2.	\(\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\)
3.	\(r\)	4.	\(x\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\)

156. The capacitance of the system (shown in the figure below) of parallel conducting plates, between the two outer plates \((X)\) and the inner plate \((Y)\) is (plate area=\(A,\) plate separation \(d,2d:\) small)

1.	\(\dfrac{3\varepsilon_0A}{2d}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{4\varepsilon_0A}{3d}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{\varepsilon_0A}{3d}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{\varepsilon_0A}{2d}\)

157. Two rods having coefficient of linear expansion \(\alpha,3\alpha\) are connected end-on-end. The average coefficient of thermal expansion for the composite rod:

1.	is \(2\alpha\)
2.	is \(4\alpha\)
3.	can be any value between \(\alpha\) and \(3\alpha\)
4.	can be any value between \(2\alpha\) and \(3\alpha\)

158. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The gravitational force exerted by the Sun on the Earth is reduced when the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.
Statement II:	The gravitational force exerted by the Sun on the Earth is reduced when the Moon is opposite to the Sun, relative to the Earth.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

159. A current \(I,\) flowing through a long straight wire produces a magnetic field of \(4\times10^{-3}\) T at a point \(P\), \(20\) cm away. If the wire is replaced by a circular wire of radius \(20\) cm, centred at \(P\) and carrying the same current \(I,\) then the magnetic field at \(P\) will be:

1.	\(4\pi\times10^{-3}\) T
2.	\(\dfrac4\pi\times10^{-3}\) T
3.	\(4\times10^{-3} \) T
4.	\(2\times10^{-3}\) T

160. A hydrogen atom \((\mathrm{H})\) and a helium \((\mathrm{He})\) atom, both have the same kinetic energy (they are non-relativistic). Their de-Broglie wavelengths are in the ratio: \(\Large\frac{\lambda_\mathrm{H}}{\lambda_{\mathrm{He}}}=\)

1.	\(4\)	2.	\(\dfrac14\)
3.	\(2\)	4.	\(\dfrac12\)

161. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Parallel rays of light of different colours fail to converge to a point after reflection from a spherical mirror.
Reason (R):	The refractive index of any material depends on the frequency of light.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

162. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular lamina of mass \(m\) and radius \(r,\) about an axis tangent to the lamina (and in the plane of the lamina) is:

1.	\(\dfrac12mr^2\)	2.	\(\dfrac34mr^2\)
3.	\(\dfrac14mr^2\)	4.	\(\dfrac54mr^2\)

163. Electrons (mass \(m\)) moving with a velocity \(v\) are incident normally onto a single slit of width \(d,\) and are detected on a screen placed at a distance \(D\) behind the slit. The central point on the screen where most of the electrons are detected is \(O.\) The closest point to \(O\) where no electrons are detected is \(X.\) Then \(OX\) equals:

1.	\(\dfrac{hD}{mvd}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{hD}{2mvd}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{2hD}{mvd}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{3hD}{2mvd}\)

164. Trains travel between station \(A\) and station \(B\): on the way up (from \(A~\text{to}~B \)) - they travel at a speed of \(80\text{ km/h},\) while on the return trip the trains travel at twice that speed. The services are maintained round the clock. Trains leave station \(A\) every \(30\text{ min}\) for station \(B\) and reach \(B\) in \(2\text{ hrs.}\) All trains operate continuously, without any rest at \(A\) or \(B.\)

1.	the frequency of trains leaving \(B\) must be twice as much as \(A\).
2.	the frequency of trains leaving \(B\) must be half as much as \(A\).
3.	the frequency of trains leaving \(B\) is equal to that at \(A\).
4.	the situation is impossible to maintain unless larger number of trains are provided at \(A\).

165. An air bubble in soap water and a soap bubble in the air of the same size have excess pressure \((\Delta P).\) Then:

1.	\(\Delta P_\text{air bubble}>\Delta P_\text{soap bubble}\)
2.	\(\Delta P_\text{soap bubble}>\Delta P_\text{air bubble}\)
3.	\(\Delta P_\text{soap bubble}=\Delta P_\text{air bubble}\)
4.	\(\Delta P_\text{soap bubble}+\Delta P_\text{air bubble}=0\)

166. A particle moving initially with a speed of \(3~\text{m/s}\) around a circle accelerates so as to increase its speed by \(3~\text{m/s}\) every half-revolution. If its initial kinetic energy is \(E,\) its kinetic energy after a complete revolution will be:
1. \(2E\)
2. \(3E\)
3. \(9E\)
4. \(16E\)

167. The potential on the surface of a uniform spherical volume charge distribution is \(10~\text{V}\); and it is observed that the potential at its centre is \(15~\text{V}\). If the radius of the sphere is halved, keeping the total charge constant, then the potential at its centre will be:
1. \(15~\text{V}\)
2. \(30~\text{V}\)
3. \(60~\text{V}\)
4. \(120~\text{V}\)

168. Current density is the current crossing per unit area. Consider a cylindrical wire of uniform cross-section \(A,\) carrying a current \(I.\) Imagine a cross-section formed by a "\(30^\circ\)-cut" as shown (the wire is not really cut). The current density perpendicular to this cross-section is:

1.	\(\dfrac{I}{A}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{I}{A}~\cos30^\circ\)
3.	\(\dfrac{2I}{A}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{I}{A}~\sin30^\circ\)

169. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	All paramagnetic substances become diamagnetic as their temperature is lowered.
Statement II:	All ferromagnetic substances become paramagnetic when their temperature is lowered.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

170. Exactly identical voltages are imposed on the system at \(X, Y,\) and \(Z:V_m \sin \omega t\). The peak voltage at \(O\) is \(V_o\). Then:

1. \(V_o = V_m\)
2. \(V_o < V_m \)
3. \(V_o > V_m\)
4. any of the above can be possible.

171. The voltage across \(AB\) i.e., \(V_{AB}\) is varied from \(0\) V to \(12\) V. The current through branch \(XY~(i)\) is measured. Then:

1.	\(i=0.05\) A if \(V_{AB}\geq10\) V and \(i=\dfrac{V_{AB}}{200~\Omega}\) otherwise
2.	\(i=0.05\) A if \(V_{AB}\leq10\) V and \(i=\dfrac{V_{AB}}{200~\Omega}\) otherwise
3.	\(i=0.05\) A
4.	\(i=\dfrac{V_{AB}}{200~\Omega}\)

172. A source vibrating at \(1.80\) kHz moves with a speed of \(33\) m/s towards a fixed observer, the speed of sound in air being \(330\) m/s. The frequency of sound received by the observer is:
1. \(1.90\) kHz
2. \(1.62\) kHz
3. \(2.00\) kHz
4. \(1.60\) kHz

173. A force is applied to a hollow spherical shell so that it acts through its centre. It causes an acceleration of \(3\) m/s². If the same force is applied to the spherical shell, acting tangent to its surface, the acceleration will be: (Assuming no friction is available.)

1.	\(3\) m/s²	2.	\(2\) m/s²
3.	zero	4.	\(1\) m/s²

174.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Given that the magnitude of the acceleration of a body is constant, the force acting on it must be constant.
Statement II:	Newton's second law leads to the statement that the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the net force acting on it.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

175. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Electromagnetic waves are radiated when a charged particle undergoes SHM.
Statement II:	Electromagnetic waves propagate energy in the direction of the electric field of the wave.

Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

176. A \(3~\mu\text{F}\) capacitor is charged with \(6~\mu \text{C}\) and connected across a \(1~\text{mH}\) inductance. The rate of change of current is:
1. \(2\) A/s
2. \(2\times10^{-3}\) A/s
3. \(2\times10^{3}\) A/s
4. \(2\times10^{-6}\) A/s

177. Match the units mentioned in List-I with the units in List-II.

	List-I		List-II
(a)	H/s	(i)	s²
(b)	H×A	(ii)	Wb
(c)	H×F	(iii)	s
(d)	\(\Omega\)×F	(iv)	\(\Omega\)

1.	(a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
2.	(a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
3.	(a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)
4.	(a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)

178. The ratio of the \(\text{RMS}\) speed \((v_\text{RMS})\) of the molecules of an ideal gas to the speed of sound \((v_s)\) in the gas, i.e. \({\dfrac{v_\text{RMS}}{v_s}}{\small=}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{3}{\gamma}\)	2.	\(\sqrt{\dfrac{3}{\gamma}}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{\gamma}{3}\)	4.	\(\sqrt{\dfrac{\gamma}{3}}\)

179. A rod of mass \(m\) length \(L\) rotates about one of its ends, in its own plane. The angular speed of the rod is \(\omega.\) The angular momentum of the rod is:

1.	\(\dfrac{1}{4}mL^2\omega\)	2.	\(\dfrac{1}{3}mL^2\omega\)
3.	\(\dfrac{2}{3}mL^2\omega\)	4.	\(\dfrac{1}{12}mL^2\omega\)

180. \(AB\) and \(BC\) are a pair of mirrors inclined so that the angle between their planes is \(60^{\circ}\), as shown in the figure. A ray of light \(XY\) is incident on \(AB\) and emerges as the ray \(ZW\) after two reflections. If the incident ray is rotated so that \(\angle AYX\) decreases by \(15^{\circ}\), then \(\angle WZC\):

1.	increases by \(15^{\circ}\).	2.	increases by \(30^{\circ}\).
3.	decreases by \(15^{\circ}\).	4.	decreases by \(30^{\circ}\).

181. A particle moves along a straight line with its velocity \((v)\) varying as the square root of its displacement \((x)\text:\) \(v\propto\sqrt x\)
Then its acceleration varies as:
1. \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt x}\)
2. \(x^{3/2}\)
3. \(x^{-3/2}\)
4. \(x^0\)

182. An npn transistor connected in the common-emitter \((CE)\) configuration is used as a switch \((ON/OFF).\) When this switch is in the \(ON\) state, current flows (from the external circuit)
1. into the base
2. out of the base
3. into the emitter
4. out of the collector

183. If \(\Delta Q\) is the heat flowing out of a system, \(\Delta W\) is the work done by the system on its surroundings, and \(\Delta U\) is the decrease in internal energy of the system, then the first law of thermodynamics can be stated as:

1.	\(\Delta Q=\Delta U+\Delta W\)
2.	\(\Delta U=\Delta Q+\Delta W\)
3.	\(\Delta U=\Delta Q-\Delta W\)
4.	\(\Delta U+\Delta Q+\Delta W=0\)

184. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Radioactivity is an example of an endo-ergic nuclear reaction \((Q<0)\).
Statement II:	For nuclear fusion to occur, the light nuclei have to be given a large initial kinetic energy to overcome their coulomb repulsion.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

185. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The time period of revolution of an electron in its \(n^\mathrm{th}\) Bohr orbit in an atom is directly proportional to \(n^3.\)
Statement II:	The kinetic energy of an electron in its \(n^\mathrm{th}\) Bohr orbit in an atom is directly proportional to \(n.\)

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

Physics - Section B

186. Four particles having identical charges are placed at the four corners of a square of side \(2\) m. The potential at the centre of the square is \(2\sqrt2\) V.
The field due to any charge at the location of its nearest neighbour is:
1. \(1\) V/m
2. \(0.5\) V/m
3. \(0.25\) V/m
4. \(0.125\) V/m

187. A string fixed at both ends is under tension \(T.\) It has a length \(L,\) and mass \(m.\) The fundamental frequency of the vibration is:

1.	\(\dfrac{ 1}{2L} \sqrt {\dfrac{T}{m}}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{1}{4 L} \sqrt{\dfrac{T}{m}}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{1}{2} \sqrt{\dfrac{TL}{2m}}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{1}{2} \sqrt{\dfrac{T}{m L}}\)

188. A ray of light travelling in the air along the \(x\)-axis encounters a medium, and the refracted ray is along \(\hat i+\sqrt3\hat j.\) The refractive index of the medium is:

1.	less than or equal to \(2\)
2.	greater than or equal to \(2\)
3.	equals \(2\)
4.	greater, less or equal to \(2\)

189. If two particles of masses \(2~\text{kg}\) and \(3~\text{kg}\) are placed at the two ends of a \(1~\text m\) (light) rod, then the center-of-mass will be:

1.	\(40~\text{cm}\) from the \(2~\text{kg}\) particle
2.	\(60~\text{cm}\) from the \(3~\text{kg}\) particle
3.	\(60~\text{cm}\) from the \(2~\text{kg}\) particle
4.	\(20~\text{cm}\) from the \(3~\text{kg}\) particle

190. An ideal monatomic gas and a diatomic gas, both undergo adiabatic expansion starting from the same point on the \(P\)-\(V\) (indicator) diagram. The gases also undergo isothermal expansion. The curves are given by \(a,b,c.\) Which of the following is correct?

1.	\(a\)–isothermal, \(b\)–monatomic adiabatic, \(c\)–diatomic adiabatic
2.	\(a\)–monatomic adiabatic, \(b\)–diatomic adiabatic, \(c\)–isothermal
3.	\(a\)–diatomic adiabatic, \(b\)–monatomic adiabatic, \(c\)–isothermal
4.	\(a\)–isothermal, \(b\)–diatomic adiabatic, \(c\)–monatomic adiabatic

191. A thin circular conducting wire is connected at \(A,B\) where the smaller arc \(AB\) represents \(\dfrac14^{\text{th}}\) of the circumference. A current flows from \(A\) to \(B,\) dividing into two branches \(i_1\) and \(i_2\) at \(A.\) The ratio \(i_1:i_2\) equals:

1.	\(3\)	2.	\(4\)
3.	\(\dfrac13\)	4.	\(1\)

192.

The energy of the block is \(E\), and the plane is smooth, the wall at the end \(B\) is smooth. Collisions with walls are elastic. The distance \(AB=l\), the spring is ideal and the spring constant is \(k\). The time period of the motion is:

1.	\(2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{m}{k}}\)
2.	\(\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{m}{k}}+l\sqrt{\dfrac{2m}{E}}\)
3.	\(2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{m}{k}}+2l\sqrt{\dfrac{2m}{E}}\)
4.	\(\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{m}{k}}+l\sqrt{\dfrac{m}{2E}}\)

193. A projectile is fired from the top of a cliff, the maximum range of the projectile being \(1000\) m on level ground. The maximum range of the projectile, measured from the base of the cliff is:

1.	greater than \(1000\) m
2.	less than \(1000\) m
3.	equal to \(1000\) m
4.	can be any of the above depending on the height of the cliff

194. Water is under high pressure within a tank. When a hole is made at the top of the tank, a stream of water rises up vertically to a height \(H\) above the hole. Assume the flow to be streamlined. The water pressure (gauge pressure) at the top of the tank, initially, was: (\(\rho\) density of water)

1.	\(H\rho g\)	2.	\(\dfrac{H\rho g}{2}\)
3.	\(2 H\rho g\)	4.	\(\sqrt 2 H \rho g\)

195. A block of mass \(5\) kg requires a minimum horizontal force of \(20\) N to cause it to move. Take \(g=10\) m/s². Let \(\mu_s\) be the coefficient of static friction, and \(\mu\small{_ k}\) be that of kinetic friction.

1. \(\mu_s=0.4\)
2. \(\mu_s=\mu{\small_k}=0.4\)
3. \(\mu{\small_ k}=0.4\)
4. \(\mu_s\geq0.4\)

196. Consider a particle moving along a straight line under the action of a force which delivers constant power.

Assertion (A):	If the velocity of the particle is doubled, its acceleration is halved.
Reason (R):	The power delivered by the force equals the force \(\times\) velocity which is a constant, and the acceleration is proportional to the force.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

197. In the circuit shown in the figure, \(V_A>V_B.\) Which of the diodes conduct?

1.	only \(D_3\)	2.	\(D_1\) and \(D_3\)
3.	all of the diodes	4.	none of the diodes

198. In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is plotted as a function of the frequency of incident radiation. The graph is:

1.	a straight line with a positive intercept on the \(x\)-axis (frequency)
2.	a straight line with a positive intercept on the \(y\)-axis (kinetic energy)
3.	a parabola
4.	a hyperbola

199. The output of the circuit given in the diagram is:

1.	\(A\) AND \(B\)	2.	\(A\) OR \(B\)
3.	\(A\)	4.	\(B\)

200. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	A charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences a force which is zero only when it moves in the direction of the field or against it.
Statement II:	Whenever a charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field, its trajectory may be a circle, a straight line or a helix.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

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