Figure (a) shows two capacitors connected in series and joined to a battery. The graph in figure (b) shows the variation in potential difference as one moves from left to right on the branch containing the capacitors, if
(1) C1 > C2
(2) C1 = C2
(3) C1 < C2
(4) The information is not sufficient to decide the relation between C1 and
Given below are a few statements related to external fertilization. Choose the correct statements
(i) The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously
(ii) Only a few gametes are released into the medium
(iii) Water is the medium in a majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilization
(iv) Offspring formed as a result of external fertilization have better chance of survival than those formed inside an organism
1. iii and iv
2. i and iii
3. ii and iv
4. i and iv
In virus-infected plants the meristematic tissue in both apical and axilary buds are free of virus because:
1. the dividing cells are virus resistant
2. meristems have anti viral compounds
3. the cell division of meristems are faster than the rate of viral multiplication
4. virus cannot multiply within meristem cell (s).
Ecological niche is:
1. the surface area of the ocean
2. an ecologically adapted zone
3. the physical position and functional role of a species within the community
4. formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake
Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as:
1. 18 – 25oC and 150 - 400cm
2. 5 – 15oC and 50 – 100 cm
3. 30 – 50oC and 100 – 150cm
4. 5 – 15oC and 100 – 200 cm
Match correctly the following and choose the correct option
(i) Environment Protection Act A. 1974
(ii) Air Prevention & Control of Pollution Act B. 1987
(iii)Water Act C. 1986
(iv)Amendament of Air Act to include noise D. 1981
The correct matches is;
1. i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
2. i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
3. i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
4. i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A
Match the following:
Kingdom Character
(i) Monera p. Double fertilization
(ii) Protista q. Members are primarily aquatic
(iii) Fungi r. Cell-wall with chtin and polysaccharides
(iv) Plantae s. Cell-wall with polysaccharide and amino acids
i ii iii iv
1. s q r p
2. s q p r
3. q s r p
4. q p r s
Following are four statement some of them have certain mistakes.
(i) One of the drawback of Whittaker system is that he does not given any place to viruses, viroids and lichen.
(ii) Viruses are non-cellular organisms that have active crystalline structure outside the living cell.
(iii) The capsomeres in viruses are arranged in helical or polyhedral geometrical form.
(iv) Phycobiont in lichen absorbs mineral nutrients.
Two statements with mistakes are
1. i & iv
2. ii & iv
3. i & ii
4. iii & iv
Artificial system of classification includes all except
1. Equal weightage to vegetative and reproductive characters
2. Mainly gross morphological character.
3. Closely related species together.
4. Only few characters.
Study the figure and find out incorrect statement.
1. Contains laminarin or mannitol as reserve food.
2. Life-cycle is diplontic.
3. Union of gamete may take place in water or within the oogonium.
4. Gametes with two apically inserted flagella.
Following are some statements. Some are true (T), some are false (F).
(i) In bryophytes zygote do not undergoes reduction division immediately.
(ii) In hetrosporous pteridophyte female gametophyte is retained in parent sporophyte for variable period.
(iii) In gymnosperms male and female gametophyte has free living existence.
(iv) Wolfia which is smallest angiosperm do not have double fertilisation
i ii iii iv
1. T T F F
2. T F T F
3. T F F T
4. F T F T
Which of the following about gibberellins is not true ?
1. They have been used to produce ‘Thompson seedless’ grapes
2. Spraying gibberellins stimulates bud formation and fruit set in apples and pears
3. Application of GA promotes elongation of sugarcane internodes
4. Application of GA promotes fast fruit ripening
The following processes occur during photosynthesis:
(i) Reduction of carbon dioxide
(ii) The splitting of water
(iii) The synthesis of glucose
(iv) Release of oxygen
(v) Formation of ATP
Which one of the following combinations is correct for the light phase?
1. i, ii and iii
2. iii, iv and v
3. i, iii and iv
4. ii, iv and v
When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria, which of the following changes occur ?
1. The pH of the matrix increases
2. The ATP synthase pumps protons by active transport
3. The electron gain free energy
4. The cytochromes of the chain phosphorylate ADP to form ATP
In monocot stem
1. Xylem is always exarch
2. Xylem and phloem occur in separate bundle
3. Vascular bundles are scattered and lack cambium
4. Vascular bundles occur in a ring and have cambium
Two factors, which affect water potential, are
1. Amount of solutes and external pressure
2. Amount of solutes and internal pressure
3. Amount of sodium and wall pressure
4. All of these
Which following group of nutrients do plants typically requires the greatest quantity of?
1. Manganese, magnesium and molybdenum
2. Zinc, copper and nitrogen
3. Boron, copper and nitrogen
4. Nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium
With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events
1. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
2. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
3. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
4. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy
A Prothallus is
1. A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops
2. A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes
3. A gametophyte free living structure formed in pteridophytes
4. A primitive structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes
Match the element with its associated functions / roles and choose the correct option among given below
A. Boron i. splitting of H2O to liberate O2 during photosynthesis
B. Manganese ii. needed for synthesis of auxins
C. Molybdenum iii. component of nitrogenase
D. Zinc iv. pollen germination
E. Iron v. component of ferredoxin
1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
2. A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii, E-v
3. A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-v, E-i
4. A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-i, E-iv
While planning for an artificial hybridization programme involving dioecious plants, which of the following steps would not be relevant:
1. Bagging of female flower
2. Dusting of pollen on stigma
3. Emasculation
4. Collection of pollen
Match the animals given in column A with their location in column B:
Column A Column B
i. Dodo a. Africa
ii. Quagga b. Russia
iii. Thylacine c. Mauritius
iv. Stellar’s sea cow d. Austratia
Choose the correct match from the following
1. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
2. i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
3. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
4. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
Following are four statements, two of them have certain mistakes
(i) Few chromosomes have dark-staining secondary constrictions at constant location, known as satellite.
(ii) Microbodies are membrane bound small vesicles which contains various enzymes, found only in plant cells.
(iii) Movement of RNA and protein through nuclear pore is bidirectional.
(iv) Cilia help in movement of cell or surrounding fluid, whereas flagella causes movement of cell.
Two statements with mistakes are
1. (i) and (ii)
2. (i) and (iii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (iii) and (iv).
Which of the following is not matched correctly
1. Mitochondria – Divide by fission
2. Elaioplast – Seeds oils and fats
3. Contractile vacuole – Engulfing the food particles
4. Inclusion bodies – not bounded by membrane.
Which of the following is not correct about bulliform cells.
1. In gasses certain abaxial cell along with vein modify to form them
2. They are large, colourless empty cells
3. They help in folding of leaf cell
4. They help in minimizing water loss.
Following are the floral diagrams of different families select the correct option with respect to their character
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Options
1. (i) Epiphyllous, (ii) Epipetalous, (iii) Diadelphous, (iv) Tetradynamous.
2. (i) Epipetalous, (ii) Epiphyllous, (iii) Diadelphous, (iv) Tetradynamous.
3. (i) Tetradynamous, (ii) Diadelphous, (iii) Epiphyllous, (iv) Epipetalous.
4. (i) Diadelphous, (ii) Tetradynamous, (iii) Epiphyllous, (iv) Epipetalous.
Find odd one out with respect to position of ovary
1. Guava
2. Cucumber
3. Brinjal
4. Sunflower ray florets
Which of the following groups is most threatened by global extinctions?
1. mammals
2. birds
3. fish
4. amphibians
How many of the following statement (s) are correct?
(1) Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithets representing different organisms.
(2) Species is a group of individuals with highest fundamental similarities and maximum number of organisms
(3) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to species
(4) leo and pardus are two different species but both belong to the genus Felis
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Which statement is incorrect for slime moulds?
1. Slime moulds form an aggregation called plasmodium which can spread over many feet.
2. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists and move along decaying twigs to engulf organic material.
3. Plasmodium forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips under unfavourable conditions.
4. Spores possess true chitin wall, extremely resistant and dispersed by water current
Match the following:
A. Sun flower- i.
B. Calotropis - ii.
C. Alstonia - iii.
1. A- ii, B-iii, C- i
2. A- iii, B-ii, C- i
3. A- ii, B-i, C- iii
4. A- i, B-ii, C- iii
Find out the incorrect match.
1. Sugarcane - Stilt roots
2. Bougainvillea - Thorns
3. Neem - Pinnately compound leaf
4. Peach - Epigynous flower
The option incorrect for cytokinesis of plant cell is?
1. Wall formation starts at the periphery of the cell and grows inward.
2. The formation of the new cell wall begins with the formation of a simple precursor.
3. Cell-plate represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells.
4. At the time of cytoplasmic division, organelles like mitochondria and plastids get distributed between the two daughter cells.
Which of the following statement regarding cell membrane is incorrect?
1. In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte has approximately 52 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids.
2. The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists of phosphoglycerides.
3. Depending on the ease of extraction, membrane proteins can be classified as integral or peripheral.
4. Lipids are arranged within the membrane with the polar head towards the outer sides and the hydrophilic tails towards the inner part.
Match the following:
A. Seals i. Acquire special chemical by feeding on a poisonous weed
B. Desert lizards ii. Meet water requirements through internal fat oxidation
C. Monarch butterfly iii. Thick layer of fat below skin that acts as insulator
D. Kangroo rat iv. Bask in sun and absorb heat when body temperature drops
1. A-iii , B-iv, C- i ,D-ii
2. A-iv , B-iii, C- ii ,D-i
3. A-iii , B-iv, C- ii ,D-i
4. A-iv , B-iii, C- i ,D-ii
The following are the roles of predators except
1. Act as conduits for energy transfer across trophic levels.
2. Keep prey populations under control.
3. Help in maintaining species diversity in a community.
4. Increase the intensity of competition among competing prey species.
Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services which of the following account for about 50 per cent?
1. Soil formation
2. Nutrient cycling
3. Climate regulation
4. Habitat for wild life
Fill up the blanks:
i. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through a spray of _______.
ii. According to Central Pollution Control Board , particulate size _________ or less in diameter are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
iii. Electrostatic precipitator, which can remove __________ present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.
iv. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and ______.
i ii iii iv
1. Lime 2.8 micro-meters Gases like sulphur dioxide Hydrogen
2. Kerosene 2.5 micro-meters Gases like sulphur dioxide Water
3. Lime 2.5 micro- meters Over 99 per cent Water
particulate matter
4. Kerosene 2.8 micro- meters Over 99 per cent Hydrogen
particulate matter
Which of the following is not an invasive weed?
1. Eicchornia
2. Lantana
3. Parthenium
4. Clarias
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
Hormone Function
1. Melatonin Regulation of diurnal rhythm
2. Thyrocalcitonin Decreases blood calcium level
3. Thymosins Differentiation of B lymphocytes
4. Atrial natriuretic Decreases factor blood pressure
What part of the scapula bone shown in the figure articulates with the head of the humerus?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the:
1. Diencephalon
2. Midbrain
3. III ventricle
4. IV ventricle
After blood flow is artificially reduced at one kidney, you would expect that kidney to secrete more of the hormone known as:
1. erythropoietin
2. angiotensinogen
3. renin
4. antidiuretic hormone
An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around hemoglobin causes:
1. | hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules. |
2. | an increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules. |
3. | hemoglobin to denature. |
4. | an increase in the binding of H+ by hemoglobin. |
Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply?
1. the lungs of a vertebrate
2. the gills of a fish
3. the tracheal system of an insect
4. the skin of an earthworm
A normal event in the process of blood clotting is the
1. production of erythropoietin.
2. conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen.
3. activation of prothrombin to thrombin.
4. increase in platelets.
A doctor puts his stethoscope on a patient’s chest over the location of the heart and hears a swishing sound. Which of the following conditions is the best diagnosis for the patient’s condition?
1. angina pectoris
2. myocardial infarction
3. incompetent cardiac valve
4. cardiac tamponade
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine?
1. It provides no absorptive function.
2. It contains a large number of bacteria.
3. It has villi.
4. It is longer than the small intestine.
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is characterized by each of these except which one?
1. Preganglionic fibers arise from the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.
2. Terminal ganglia are located close to effector organs.
3. It controls the digestive activities.
4. Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine.
Select the option where all columns are not correctly matched:
Hormone Disease Symptom
1. Cortisol Cushing’s disease Moon faces; Buffalo torso
2. ADH Diabetes insipidus Diuresis; Polydipsia
3. PTH Tetany Muscle paralysis
4. Aldosterone Conn’s syndrome Hypertension, Hypokalemia
The length of which of the following regions shown in the given diagram of a sarcomere remains unchanged during muscle contraction?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 7
4. 6
Which of the following combinations of phylum and description is incorrect?
1. Cnidaria Radial symmetry, Diploblastic, Metagenesis
2. Molluska Protostome, Segmented body, Radula
3. Echinodermata Deuterotome, Eucoelomate, Water vascular system
4. Arthropoda Triploblastic, Chitinous exoskeleton, Jointed appendages
Which of the following terms describes the reproduction of sharks?
1. internal fertilization, and a range from oviparity to viviparity
2. internal fertilization, oviparity only
3. external fertilization, and a range from oviparity to viviparity
4. external fertilization, viviparity only
Which of the following is not a characteristic of all species of birds?
1. flight
2. ovipary
3. feathers
4. four-chambered heart
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Periplaneta americana?
1. Uricotelism
2. Mosaic vision
3. Dioecious
4. Holometabolous development
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium lines:
1. Vas deferens and Epididymis
2. Vas deferens and Fallopian tubes
3. Trachea and Upper respiratory tract
4. Bile duct and Pancreatic duct
During what stage of the cell cycle would you expect to have the lowest amount of cellular growth and synthesis taking place?
1. The S phase
2. The M phase
3. The G1 phase
4. The G2 phase
How many chromosomes are present in a human somatic cell during the G2 phase of the cell cycle?
1. 23
2. 46
3. 69
4. 92
A cell undergoing mitosis contains 16 chromosomes lined up at the metaphase plate. How many total chromatids will each of the daughter cell receive after the correct completion of the cell division?
1. 4
2. 8
3. 16
4. 32
In the graph shown below during what time interval is the enzyme working at its maximum velocity?
1. 0–30 seconds
2. 60–120 seconds
3. 120–180 seconds
4. Over the entire time course
What best describes enzyme substrate specificity?
1. The substrate has a specific active site that only one enzyme can bind to.
2. The enzyme and substrate both have active sites which bind together
3. The enzyme has an active site that only one specific substrate can bind to.
4. Only one specific substrate molecule can react with an enzyme at a time.
The “primary structure” of a protein refers to:
1. coiling due to hydrogen bonding between amino acids
2. the alpha helix or pleated sheets
3. the side groups of the amino acids
4. the number and sequence of amino acids
A human male is generally considered sterile if his ejaculation contains less than
1. 100,000,000 sperm
2. 20,000,000 sperm
3. 100,000 sperm
4. 1,000 sperm
The corpus luteum produces _______________, which inhibits ovulation.
1. LH
2. FSH
3. Estrogen
4. Progesterone
Identify the incorrect statement regarding female reproductive system?
1. | The first meiotic division of a primary oocyte forms two secondary oocytes that remain in this stage unless fertilization occurs. |
2. | Uterine tube, fallopian tube, and oviduct are terms used to refer to the same organ. |
3. | Menopause marks the termination of both menstruation and ovulation. |
4. | An ectopic pregnancy is an implantation of the blastocyst in a site other than the uterus. |
Which of these sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a virus?
1. gonorrhea
2. syphilis
3. genital herpes
4. Chlamydia
In attempts to confer special characteristics upon plants, genetic engineers find Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be an effective vector for use with
1. corn
2. rice
3. wheat
4. soy beans
In the screening process, clones that metabolize X-gal turn
1. yellow
2. orange
3. blue
4. colorless
Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is INCORRECTLY paired with one of its uses?
1. restriction endonuclease - production of DNA fragments for gene cloning.
2. DNA polymerase - copies DNA sequences in the polymerase chain reaction.
3. reverse transcriptase - production of B DNA from mRNA.
4. electrophoresis - RLFP analysis
Which of the following is not part of the normal process of cloning recombinant DNA in bacteria?
1. restriction endonuclease digestion of cellular and plasmid DNAs.
2. production of recombinant DNA using DNA ligase and a mixture of digested cellular and plasmid DNAs.
3. separation of recombinant DNAs by electrophoresis using the Southern technique to determine where the desired recombinant migrates.
4. transformation of bacteria by the recombinant DNA plasmids and selection using ampicillin .
If a chiasma forms between the loci of genes A and B in 20% of the tetrads of an individual of genotype AB/ab, the percentage of gametes expected to be Ab is:
1. 40
2. 20
3. 10
4. 5
In an animal with the XO method of sex determination, the normal number of chromosomes in its somatic cell could be:
1. 13 in males
2. 33 in females
3. 26 in males
4. 17 in females
Given the template DNA codon 3’ TAC 5’, the anticodon that pairs with the corresponding mRNA codon would be:
1. 3’ CAT 5’
2. 5’ AUG 3’
3. 3’ UAC 5’
4. 5’ GUA 3’
Which of the following differentiates eukaryotic DNA replication from prokaryotic replication?
1. Multiple origin of replication
2. Bidirectional replication fork
3. No use of RNA primer
4. Use of only one DNA polymerase
A radioisotope used to label proteins differentially from nucleic acids is:
1. 32 P
2. 14 C
3. 35 S
4. 3 H
In the Sanger method of DNA sequencing, what causes the termination of chain elongation?
1. The incorporation of a regular DNA nucleotide
2. The incorporation of a dideoxynucleotide
3. Denaturation of the double-stranded test fragments
4. When the DNA polymerase encounters a stop codon
The generally deleterious effects caused by inbreeding are due to
1. an increase in genetic variability that disrupts developmental sequences
2. an increase in homozygosity of recessive deleterious alleles
3. an increase in allozygosity of all alleles
4. an increase in the mutation rate
Given that the frequency of children homozygous for the recessive allele for cystic
fibrosis is about 0.0016. What is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population? [Cystic fibrosis is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder].
1. 0.960
2. 0.077
3. 0.040
4. 0.923
Of these, which is NOT part of Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
1. Suitable variations in a population tend to be passed on, while unsuitable variations in a population are lost.
2. Individuals with variations suitable for their environment have shorter lifespans and produce fewer offspring.
3. Variations in any population exist and such variations are inherited.
4. In nature, there is a tendency toward overproduction of offspring.
Similar adaptations in biologically unrelated species is:
1. stabilizing selection
2. convergent evolution
3. blending inheritance
4. natural selection
Which of the following will give positive carbylamine test?
1. N, N-diethyl aniline
2. N methyl propylamine
3. N, N-diethyl butylamine
4. 2, 4-dimethyl aniline
The strongest base in gaseous phase is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Bond order of CO is equal to bond order of
1.
2.
3.
4.
Magnetic moment of is
1. 0
2. 4.92
3. 3.87
4. 2.83
Which of the following shows correct Lewis acidic strength order of trihalides of boron?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Packing fraction of simple cubic crystal lattice is
1. 38%
2. 74%
3. 68%
4. 52.4%
In the reaction, is that part of which dissociates, then the number of moles at equilibrium will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
is
2.
3.
4.
The equivalent weight of , when it disproportionates into and is
1. 66
2. 49.5
3. 33
4. 20.5
The ratio of the difference in energy between the first and second Bohr orbit to that between the second and the third Bohr orbit is
1. 1/2
2. 1/3
3. 4/9
4. 27/5
Which of the following has square planar structure?
1.
2.
3.
4. None of these
The number of sigma bonds in is
1. 6
2. 16
3. 20
4. 7
Ethyl acetate on reaction with excess of methyl magnesium chloride and dil. gives
1. dimethyl ketone
2. isopropyl alcohol
3. ethyl aceto acetate
4. t-butyl alcohol
Impurities present in the ore which react to form fusible substance are known as
1. Flux
2. Gangue
3. Mugget
4. Mineral
How much should the pressure be increased in order to decrease the volume of a gas 5% at a constant temperature?
1. 5%
2. 5.26%
3. 10%
4. 4.26%
Numbers of possible optical isomers of glucose are
1. 10
2. 14
3. 16
4. 20
Which of the following is strongest nucleophile?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Aniline is weaker base than ethylamine. This is due to
1. -I effect of in aniline
2. -R effect of in aniline
3. +I effect of in aniline
4. +R effect of in aniline
A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction from to . The temperature at which the uncatalysed reaction will have the same rate as that of the catalysed at is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The increasing order of hydrolysis of the following compounds
(i) (ii) (iii)
1. (i)<(iii)<(ii)
2. (ii)<(iii)<(i)
3. (ii)<(i)<(iii)
4. (i)<(ii)<(iii)
The pH of 0.1 M solution of anilinium chloride is
1. 3.5
2. 3
3. 4.5
4. none of these
Ozonolysis of 2,3-dimethylbut-1-ene followed by reduction with zinc and water gives
1. methanoic acid and 3-methyl-2-butanone
2. methanal and 3-methyl-2-butanone
3. methanal and 2-methyl-3-butanone
4. methanoic acid and 2-methyl-3-butanone
Which are true statements among the following?
1. does not exist
2. - bonds are present in
3. and have same shape
4. has bent geometry
The conversion of m-nitrophenol to resorcinol involves respectively
1. reduction, diazotisation and hydrolysis
2. hydrolysis, diazotisation and reduction
3. hydrolysis, reduction and diazotisation
4. diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis
Which does not show inert pair effect
1. Al
2. Sn
3. Pb
4. Thallium
In a set of reactions ethyl benzene yield a product D.
D would be
1.
2.
3.
4.
A 0.1097 gm sample of required 26.10 ml of solution for its titration. The molarity of solution is
1. 0.02
2. 0.04
3. 0.018
4. 0.3
Gold number of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.5, 0.01, 0.1 and 0.005 respectively. The correct order of their protective power is
1. D < A < C < B
2. C < B < D < A
3. A < C < B < D
4. B < D < A < C
A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous (conc.) NaOH solution gives
1. benzyl alcohol and sodium formate
2. sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
3. sodium benzoate and sodium formate
4. none of these
Which of the following is correct order of dipole moment of the following?
1. I > II > III
2. I = II = III
3. III > II > I
4. I > III > II
The product (s) obtained via oxymercuration-demercuration of butyne would be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Identify the correct sequence of increasing number of -bonds in structure of the following molecules
(i) (ii) (iii)
1. (i), (ii), (iii)
2. (ii), (iii), (i)
3. (ii), (i), (iii)
4. (i), (iii), (ii)
The pH of M is:
1. 5.35
2. In between 6 & 7
3. 7.35
4. 8
Acidic nature is more in case of
1. o-amino phenol
2. m-amino phenol
3. p-amino phenol
4. All have equal
Frenkel defect is not found in the halides of alkali metals because alkali metals have
1. high electropositivity
2. high ionic radii
3. high reactivity
4. ability to occupy interstitial sites
Which can give iodoform test, aldol condensation and positive Tollen's reagent test?
1.
3.
4.
Which one of the following substance is not aromatic?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms present in FCC is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which will form maximum boiling azeotrope?
1. solution
2. solution
3. solution
4. solution
Which has maximum freezing point?
1. 200 ml of 2 M BaCl2 solution
2. 200 ml of 2 M CuSO4 solution
3. 200 ml of 2 M Glucose solution
4. All have same freezing point
The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 5 at 298 K. The potential of the cell would be
1. 0.295
2. -0.295
3. 0.059
4. -0.059
A substance undergoes first order decomposition. The reaction follows two parallel first order reactions as
The percentage of R is
1. 50%
2. 25%
3. 90.9%
4. 99.9%
Which is not a paramagnetic species?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Most acidic oxide among the following is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following drugs reduces fever?
1. Antibiotic
2. Antipyretic
3. Antiseptic
4. Tranquillizer
Which of the following pair of physical quantities have same dimensions?
1. Torque and energy density
2. Boltzmann's constant and relative permittivity
3. Young's modulus and energy density
4. Stefan's constant and Planck's constant
A particle covers one fifth of the total distance of the journey with speed and rest of the distance with speed . Average speed of the particles over the whole journey is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A particle thrown vertically upward with speed u attains a maximum height H. Speed of the particle when it is at a height from ground is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A particle is projected with some speed at an angle with the horizontal. Kinetic energy of particle at the point of projection is k and at highest point of its journey is k', then is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two blocks of masses \(2\) kg and \(3\) kg are tied at the ends of a light inextensible string passing over a frictionless pulley as shown.
If the system is accelerating upward with acceleration \(5\) m/s2, the tension in the string is:
1. \(24\) N
2. \(36\) N
3. \(48\) N
4. \(18\)N
One third length of a uniform chain is hanging over the edge of a smooth table. If it is released in this situation, then its velocity when it just leaves the table is (length of chain is l)
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ball mass m is dropped from a height h on the ground. After striking the ground it attains a height h/2. Impulse imparted by ground on the ball in the collision is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two identical rods of length l and mass m are joined to make a T-shaped structure and it is lying in the plane of paper as shown. Moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A bullet of mass m moving horizontally with kinetic energy \(K\) strikes a wooden block of same mass resting on a smooth horizontal surface and gets embedded in it. Kinetic energy of bullet-block system after the collision is:
1. | equal to \(K\) |
2. | greater than \(K\) |
3. | half of \(K\) |
4. | one fourth of \(K\) |
A force is acting at a point having position vector . Torque of this force about origin is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A solid sphere of radius \(5\) cm is resting on a rough horizontal surface. A force \(F\) is applied at a height of \(3\) cm from centre of mass in the horizontal direction as shown. The frictional force acting on the sphere is:
1. | in forward direction |
2. | in backward direction |
3. | initially in backward direction and after some time in forward direction |
4. | zero |
Mass and radius of earth is M and R respectively, then gravitational potential at a distance R/3 from the centre of earth is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Kinetic energy of satellite in its orbit is K , then its binding energy is
1. -K
2. -2K
3. 2K
4. K
In a new temperature scale, freezing point of water is given a value and boiling point of water is . Reading of new temperature scale for a temperature equal to is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two points are taken on one face of a cube having coefficient of volume expansion . Distance between the points is l. If temperature of cube is increased by , percentage change in distance between two points is
1. %
2. 50 %
3. 100 %
4. 150 %
Two conductor rods of same length, same area of cross-section and having coefficient of thermal conductivities and respectively are arranged in series combination. Equivalent thermal conductivity of the combination is
1.
2.
3.
4.
\(280\) J heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant pressure. Work done by the gas in the process is:
1. \(120\) J
2. \(200\) J
3. \(180\) J
4. \(80\) J
At constant temperature , mean free path of a gas molecule depends upon pressure of the gas as
1.
2.
3.
4.
At which of the following places time period of a simple pendulum will be maximum?
1. At equator
2. At poles
3. At the moon
4. In a satellite
Ratio of intensities of sound at two places is 100. If intensity level at first place is 100 dB then at second place it will be
1. 100 dB
2. 200 dB
3. 180 dB
4. 80 dB
Two waves and undergoes superposition. Amplitude of resulting wave is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Third harmonic of an open organ pipe of length has same frequency as third overtone of a closed organ pipe of length . Ratio is
1. 3/5
2. 9/7
3. 7/5
4. 6/7
When two waves and travel in a medium simultaneously. Number of beats produced per second is
1. 6
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
A source of sound is approaching a stationary observer with speed half of the speed of sound. Ratio of observed frequency over actual frequency is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A particle having charge q and mass m is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. Neglecting gravity, velocity of the particle, when it is at a distance x from initial point is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A charged particle enters in a uniform electric field with velocity v making an angle with the field. Path of the charged particle in the field is a
1. Straight line
2. Circle
3. Parabola
4. Hyperbola
In the shown arrangement capacitance of each capacitor is C and emf of the cell is . If switch S is closed, then amount of charge flown through the switch is
1.
2.
3.
4.
If earth is assumed to be a spherical conductor of radius 6400 km, then its capacitance is about
1.
2.
3.
4.
Voltage drop across the terminals of a cell of EMF 2V, when 2 A current is drawn from it is 1 volt. Internal resistance of the cell is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Ohm's law is true for which of the following?
1. Semiconductors only
2. Metallic conductors only
3. For all the conductors
4. For superconductors only
Maximum voltage which can be applied across a resistor is
1. 81 volt
2. 16.2 volt
3. 9 volt
4. 40.5 volt
Two charged particles having charges q and mass m are moving on circular paths in same uniform magnetic field with speed v and 2v. Ratio of their angular velocities are
1.
2.
3.
4.
Time period of a bar magnet in uniform magnetic field is T. If magnet is cut into four equal parts perpendicular to its length and only one part is made to oscillate in same field then new time period is
1.
2.
3.
4.
At two place of earth, angles of dip are and respectively. The places are
1. Pole and equator
2. Equator and pole
3. latitude and latitude
4. latitude and latitude
Magnetic susceptibility is (-1) for which of the following substances?
1. Diamagnetic
2. Paramagnetic
3. Semiconductors
4. Superconductors
A plane circular coil having radius r has its axis parallel to a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. It is rotated by about a vertical axis passing through its centre. If resistance of coil is R, then amount of charge flown through a given cross-section of coil is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Quality factor Q of a L-C-R circuit is given by
1.
2.
3.
4.
A convex lens of focal length 15 cm forms three times magnified real image of an object placed in front of it. Distance of object from the lens is
1. 10 cm
2. 20 cm
3. 25 cm
4. 17.5 cm
A point object O is placed in front of a convex lens as shown.
If lens is cut into two parts A and B from the dotted plane and B part is removed, then
1. Image will shift towards the lens
2. Image will shift away from the lens
3. Image will shift above the principle axis
4. Image will remain at the same position
An electron is accelerated through potential difference V volts. de-Broglie wavelength of the electron is
1.
2.
3.
4.
In hydrogen spectrum, shortest wavelength of Lyman series is
1.
2.
3.
4.
In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits act as coherent sources of equal amplitude A and wavelength λ. In another experiment with the same set up the two slits are of equal amplitude A and wavelength λ but are incoherent. The ratio of the intensity of light at the mid-point of the screen in the first case to that in the second case is
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 1
Percent of initial number of nuclei remaining after two mean lives is
1. 63%
2. 37%
3. 6.5%
4. 13.5%
For inputs A and B and output C, following truth table is for
1. AND gate
2. XOR gate
3. NAND gate
4. NOR gate
From the statements given below choose the option that are not true for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant:
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
(ii) It is cellular during the development
(iii) It is situated inside the nucellus
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
1. i and iv
2. ii and iii
3. i and ii
4. ii and iv
Match the items in Column ‘A’ and Column ‘B’ and choose correct answer.
Column A Column B
i. Lady bird a. Methanobacterium
ii. Mycorrhiza b. Trichoderma
iii. Biological control c. Aphids
iv. Biogas d. Glomus
The correct answer is
1. i b, ii d, iii c, iv a
2. i c, ii d, iii b, iv a
3. i d, ii a, iii b, iv c
4. i c, ii b, iii a, iv d
The mature seeds of plants such as gram and peas, posses no endosperm, because
1. These plants are not angiosperms
2. There is no double fertilization in them
3. Endosperm is not formed in them
4. Endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development
The bacteria and mould involved in the work of Alexander Fleming are :-
1. Staphylococci and Penicillium chrysogenum
2. Streptococci and Penicillium chrysogenum
3. Staphylococci and Penicillium notatum
4. Streptococci and Penicillium notatum
Match the following and choose correct option
Group A Group B
A. Aleurone layer i. without fertilization
B. Parthenocarpic fruit ii. Nutrition fruit
C. Ovule iii. Double fertilization
D. Endosperm iv. Seed
1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
2. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
3. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
4. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
Name the product formed by Trichoderma polysporum and give its use.
1. Statins which are used as blood cholesterol lowering agent.
2. Cyclosporin A that is used as immunosuppressive agent.
3. Statins which are used as clot buster.
4. Cyclosporin A that is used to inhibit the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis.
Following are four statements find out correct statements
(i) Microsporangia has four layers, outer three are protective and inner one is nutritive
(ii) Each cell of sporogenous tissue within micorsporangia is capable of giving raise to a microspore tetrad.
(iii) Dehydration of anther is important for seperation of pollen grains in a tetrad.
(iv) Generative cell in pollen grain is small with respect to vegetative cell and it floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
Options
1. All are correct
2. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) is correct
3. Except (ii) all are correct
4. Expect (iii) all are correct.
The causative organism of African sleeping sickness is:
1. Glossina palpalis
2. Phlebotomus
3. Trypanosoma
4. Giardia lamblia
Which of the following is mismatched?
1. B cells: can be activated to produce antibodies
2. Helper T cells: directly target and kill cancer cells
3. Cytotoxic T cells: carry out cellular immune responses
4. Suppressor T cells: release inhibitory cytokines to dampen the immune response
Which type of molecule is produced by viral-infected cells to communicate to non-infected cells in the presence of a virus?
1. Complement
2. Interferon
3. Interleukin
4. Pyrogen
The ineffectiveness of many antibiotics today is most closely associated with:
1. Bacteriophages
2. F plasmids
3. R plasmids
4. Catabolite repression