Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
1. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show very few recombinations.
2. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
3. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
4. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked
ones.
Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
1. Factors occur in pairs.
2. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor.
3. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other is recessive.
4. Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation.
Somaclones are produced by
1. Micropropagation.
2. Mutation.
3. Polyploidy.
4. Hybridisation.
Death of organism is the beginning of food chain in which
1. Energy and nutrient requirement is met by degrading organic matter.
2. Major conduct for energy flow is operational in aquatic ecosystem.
3. Number of trophic levels are limited.
4. Producers belong to first carefully.
The type of population interaction exhibited by visiting flamingos and resident fishes in South American Lakes, is also shown by
1. Sparrow eating any seed.
2. Cuckoo and crow.
3. Abingdon tortoise and goats in Galapagos island.
4. Sea anemone and clown fish.
Arrange the following stages of microspore development into pollen grain, in correct sequence

1. b, c, d, and a
2. b, d, a and c
3. a, c, b and d
4. b, a, d and c
The phytohormone that speed up the malting process in brewing industry is also responsible for
| a. | Initiates rooting in stem cutting. |
| b. | Increases chloroplast in leaves. |
| c. | Promotes root hair formation. |
| d. | Inhibits seed germination. |
| e. | Promotes seed germination. |
| d. | Promotes internode elongation just prior to flowering. |
1. a and c
2. b and d
3. d and f
4. e and f
Examine the figure given below and select the wrong option
| 1. | A - Present in only grana lamellae. |
| 2. | B - involves downhill movement of electrons in terms of oxidation-reduction potential. |
| 3. | C - Absorbs 700 nm light. |
| 4. | The electrons return back to the reaction center. |
What happens, when a cell is placed in a isotonic solution?
(a) There is not net flow of water towards the inside or outside.
(b) Cells are said to be flaccid.
(c) becomes positive.
(d) Enlargement and extension growth of cells occur.
The correct statement(s) is/are
1. a only
2. a and b only
3. a, b and c only
4. all are correct
Consider the following four statements (I- IV) related to cell cycle, and select the correct option stating them as true (T) and false (F).
| I. | Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process. |
| II. | Interphase is the phase of actual cell division. |
| III. | The number of chromosomes doubles in S-phase. |
| IV. | The cell that does not divide further exits G1-phase to enter a metabolically inactive stage. |
Options:
I II III IV
1. T F F F
2. F T T T
3. F F T T
4. T F F T
The spherical structures present in the nucleoplasm
| 1. | Has contents continuous with rest of the ncueloplasm. |
| 2. | Is a membrane bound structure. |
| 3. | Is a site of active messenger RNA synthesis. |
| 4. | Are smaller and more numerous in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis. |
The permanent tissue that forms the major component within the organs :
1. Provides mechanical support to the growing parts of plant.
2. Is thin-walled and performs the function of photosynthesis, storage and secretion.
3. is made up of four different kinds of elements.
4. Is usually dead without protoplast and has thick lignified cell wall.
How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?
(1) Aseptate and coenocytic mycelium – Albugo
(2) White rust causing fungi – Puccinia
(3) Unicellular sac fungi – Yeast
(4) Endogenous asexual spores – Trichoderma
(5) Sex organs are absent – Puffballs
1. Three
2. Five
3. Two
4. Four
World Summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in
1. Rio de Janeiro
2.Japan
3. Johannesburg
4. London
Which of the following organisms are abundant in the bottom of the pond?
1. Zooplanktons and actinomycetes.
2. bacteria, fungi and flagellates.
3. Phytoplanktons and flagellates.
4. Green algae, actinomycetes and flagellates.
Which of the following is one of the most significant discoveries of the twentieth century that greatly contributed towards the welfare of human society?
1. Biogas
2. Curd
3. Penicillin
4. Citric acid
Which one of the following statement is false in respect of flowering plants?
1. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones.
2. Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small opening called the germ pore is present.
3. Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
4. Apomicts have several advantages in horticulture and agriculture.
Mark the mis-matched pair
1. Polycarpic plants - Recovery phase
2. Offset - Water hyacinth
3. Marchantia - Monoecious plant
4. Bulbil - Agave
The microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes in
| 1. | Metaphase - I |
| 2. | Prophase - I |
| 3. | Metaphase |
| 4. | Metaphase - II |
How many organisms in the list given below are free living nitrogen-fixing aerobic? Rhizobium Beijernickia Rhodospirllum Azotobacter Frankia
1. 4
2. 3
3. 5
4. 2
CO2 is utilized for the carboxylation of RuBP inside the bundle sheath cells of:
1. Maize, Sorghum
2. Tomato, Bell pepper
3. Cacti, Sedum
4. Rice, Wheat
Exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere and the internal tissue of the woody stem is possible by
1. Hydathaodes.
2. Lens shaped openings.
3. Stomata.
4. Gas vacuoles.
In which of the following options the PGR is correctly matched with its two functions?
1. Abscisc acid - (i) Induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves.
(ii) Induce rooting is a twig.
2. Gibberellins - (i) Bolting in rosette plant.
(ii) Speed up the malting process in brewing industry.
3. Ethylene - (i) Delay leaf senescence.
(ii) Controls xylem differentiation.
4. Auxin - (i) Used to kill mocotyledonous weeds.
(ii) Promotes nutrient mobilisation.
Which of the following group represents exotic species?
1. Glycyrhiza and Parthenium.
2. Eichhornia crassipes and Nile perch.
3. Thylacine and Dodo.
4. Podophyllum and Blue Vanda.
Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of biological organization, which one of the following is
correct representation?
1. Population Ecosystem Biome Landscape.
2. Communities Population Ecosystem Biome.
3. Organisms Population Communities Biome.
4. Species Ecosystem Communities Biome.
Find the correct match with respect to crop variety for their disease resistant
Column I Column II
(a) Pusa Komal (i) Tobacco mosaic virus
(b) Pusa Sadabahar (ii) Black rot
(c) Pusa Shubhra (iii) White rust
(d) Pusa Swarnim (iv) Bacterial Blight
1. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
2. a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
3. a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Megaspore mother cell differentiates from
1. Nucellus in the micropylar region.
2. Nucellus in the chalazal region.
3. Primary parietal cell in chalazal region.
4. Integument cell in micropylar region.
Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because of the presence of
1. Pollenkitt.
2. Sporopollenin.
3. Pecto-cellulose.
4. Lingo-cellulose.
Read the following statement and select the right choice
a. Semi-dwarf varieties, Jaya and Ratna were developed in IRRI, Phillippines.
b. Classical plant breeding involves crossing or hybridization of pure lines.
c. Saccharum barberi was originally growth in South India.
d. Genetic variability is the root of any breeding programme.
1. Only a is correct.
2. b and d are correct.
3. a, b and c are correct.
4. b, c and d are correct.
Which of the following complex of mitochondrial ETS possess two copper centers?
1. Cytochrome b complex.
2. NADH dehydrogenase complex
3. Succinate dehydrogenase complex
4. Cytochrome c oxidase complex
Which of the following function is performed by pericycle of dicot root?
1. Lateral root formation.
2. Lateral meristem formation.
3. Part of vascular cambium.
4. All the above.
Gametophyte in the pteridophytes is
(i) Small, inconspicuous.
(ii) Long lived, unicellular.
(iii) Mostly photosynthetic thalloid or saprophytic.
(iv) Short lived, haploid.
How many statements are correct with respect to gametophyte?
1. Two
2.Three
3. Four
4. One
In the given graph what does A, B represent?
| 1. | A - Absorption spectrum; B - Action spectrum (Chl. a). |
| 2. | A - Action spectrum; B - Absorption spectrum (carotenoids). |
| 3. | A - Absorption spectrum; B - Action spectrum (Ch. b). |
| 4. | A - Action spectrum; B - Absorption spectrum (Ch.a). |
Find the incorrect statement:
| 1. | Plastids found in plant cells and in euglenoids. |
| 2. | Golgi apparatus is site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids. |
| 3. | Nucleus during interphase has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibers. |
| 4. | Centriole Microtubular organization is referred to as the 9 + 2 and it forms basal body of cilia and flagella. |
Given below are three statements each with one blank. Select the option which correctly fill up the blanks in two statements
(i) _______ systems gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characteristics.
(ii) Number and codes are assigned to all the characters and the data are then processed in _______ taxonomy.
(iii) ________ systems assume that organisms belonging to the same taxa have a common ancestor.
1. (i) - Artificial, (iii) - Natural
2. (ii) - Phenetics, (iii) - Artificial
3. (i) - Artificial, (ii) - Chemotaxonomy
4. (iii) - Phylogenetic, (i) - Artificial
In pea and bean flowers, the __________ petal overlaps the two ______ petals which in turn overlap the two ___________ pteals.
1. Largest, anterior, lateral.
2. Posterior, keel, smallest.
3. Posterior, wings, anterior.
4. Anterior, lateral, smallest.
In racemose type of inflorescence
1. Main axis does not terminate in a flower.
2. Flowers are borne in a basipetal order.
3. Main axis shows limited growth.
4. Both 1 and 2.
Development of the zygotes into young embryo takes within the female gametophytes in
1. Adiantum.
2. Selaginella.
3. Riccia.
4. Batrachospermum.
Photosynthetic protists with indestructible cell wall are
1. Pyrophytes.
2. Chrysophytes.
3. Euglenophytes.
4. Myxomycetes.
According to Whittaker system, organisms with chemosynthetic autotrophic nutrition and cellular body organization belong to
1. Monera and protista.
2. Monera.
3. Monera and fungi.
4. Protista.
Select correct match between Column I and II
Column I Column II
a. As quick referral system (i) Monograph
in taxonomical studies
b. Collection of preserved (ii) Herbarium
plants and animals
c. Index to the plant species (iii) Museum
found in a particular area
d. Complete information of (iv) Flora
any one taxon
1. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
2. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
3. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
4. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Which of the following statement is not correct?
| 1. | Satellite DNA normally do not code for any protein but they form a large portion of human genome. |
| 2. | Satellite DNA shows high degree of polymorphism and forms basis of DNA finger printing. |
| 3. | Satellite DNA is widely used as identification tool in forensic science. |
| 4. | Satellite DNA is not transmitted as mendelian trait from parent to progeny. |
Satellite DNA is classified into many types on the basis of ?
1. Base composition.
2. Length of segment.
3. Number of repetitive units.
4. All the above.
Sequencing of genome of non-human organism will help in
1. Solving challenges in health care and agriculture.
2. Energy production.
3. Environmental remediation.
4. All the above.
Following are six statements how many of them is related human genome project (HGP)
I. HGP is closely associated with rapid development of Bio informatics.
II. In HGP two methods are used i.e., ESTs and sequence annotation.
III. For HGP commonly used host is YAC and BAC and commonly used vector is bacteria and yeast.
IV. Chromosome number 1 is the last chromosome to be sequenced, which has 2968 gene.
V. In human genome “snips” are present at 1.4 million location.
VI. Out of 3 × 109 bp less than 2 percent codes for proteins.
Options :
1. All
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3
Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
1. Alanine
2. Asparagine
3. Glycine
4. Tyrosine
G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of -
1. Leucocytes
2. Lymphocytes
3. Platelets
4. RBCs
Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
| 1. | Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein |
| 2. | Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly |
| 3. | Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme |
| 4. | Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amounts of substrate |
In contrast to Annelids, the Platyhelminths show:
1. Absence of body cavity
2. Presence of pseudocoel
3. Radial symmetry
4. Bilateral symmetry
Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals, because all of these -
1. Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism as at present
2. enhance oxidative metabolism
3. Are conjugated proteins
4. Help in regulating metabolism
E. coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because -
1. They cannot synthesize functional beta galactosidase
2. They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
3. The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
4. In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilize lactose
An acromion process is characteristically found in the -
1. Skull of frog
2. Sperm of mammals
3. Pelvic girdle of mammals
4. Pectoral girdle of mammals
In ornithine cycle which of the following wastes are removed form the blood -
1. CO2 and ammonia
2. Ammonia and urea
3. CO2 and urea
4. Urea and urine
At a particular locus, frequency of 'A' allele is 0.6 and that of 'a' is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium -
1. 0.24
2. 0.16
3. 0.48
4. 0.36
Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cell of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells -
1. Osteocytes
2. Liver cells
3. Neurons
4. Malpighian layer of the skin
A student wishes to study the cell structure under a light microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X objective. He should illuminate the object by which one of the following colours of light so as get the best possible resolution -
1. Red
2. Green
3. Yellow
4. Blue
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel -
1. Bioinsecticidal plants
2. Bio-mineralization processes
3. Biofertilizers
4. Bio-metallurgical techniques
Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in -
1. Oesophagus
2. Ileum
3. Duodenum
4. Pyloric stomach
Grey crescent is the area -
1. At the point of entry of sperm into ovum
2. Just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum
3. At the animal pole
4. At the vegetal pole
Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originates as adaptation. These imprints need to be used -
1. On plates with and without streptomycin
2. Only on plates with streptomycin
3. On plates with minimal medium
4. Only on plates without streptomycin
Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non- living matter -
| 1. | Larva could appear in decaying organic matter |
| 2. | Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel |
| 3. | microbes did not appear in stored meat |
| 4. | Microbes appeared form unsterilized organic matter |
Which of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia -
1. Alveolar lungs
2. Ten pairs of cranial nerves
3. Seven cervical vertebrae
4. Thecodont dentition
Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic evolution -
1. production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning
2. Development of organs from 'stem' cells for organ transplantation
3. Development of transgenic animals
4. Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by -
1. Base-sugar-OH
2. Base-sugar-phosphate
3. Sugar-phosphate
4. (Base-sugar-phosphate)n
The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is -
1. 20 mm Hg
2. 50 mm Hg
3. 75 mm Hg
4. 30 mm Hg
Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface -
1. Zymogen granules
2. Pinocytic vesicles
3. Phagocytic vesicles
4. Microvilli
If the mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely-
1. Estrogen secretion further decreases
2. Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
3. Corpus luteum will disintegrate
4. Primary follicle starts developing
The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the -
1. The Km value
2. The pH optimum value
3. Molecular size of the enzyme
4. Formation of the product
The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran larva, are useful in gene mapping because -
1. They have endoreduplicated chromosomes
2. These are fused
3. These are easy to stain
4. These are much longer in size
Which group of three of the following five statements (a-e) contain is all the three correct statements regarding beri-beri -
(a) A crippling disease prevalent among the native population of sub-Saharan Africa
(b) A deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin B1)
(c) A nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is persistently deficient in essential protein
(d) Occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice
(e) The symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive oedema, mental deterioration and finally heart failure
1. b, c and e
2. a, b and d
3. b, d and e
4. a, c and e
Which of the following unicellular organism has a macronucleus for trophic function and one or more micronuclei for reproduction -
1. Trypanosoma
2. Paramecium
3. Euglena
4. Amoeba
Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs -
1. On ribosomes presents in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
2. On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
3. Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
4. Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
Centromere is required for -
1. Movement of chromosomes towards poles
2. Cytoplasmic cleavage
3. Crossing over
4. Transcription
Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain-
1. Lipase
2. protease
3. Exonuclease
4. Endonuclease
Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example
1. Colour change in chameleon
2. Poison fangs in snakes
3. Melanism in moths
4. Enlargement of body size by swallowing airin puffer fish
According to widely accepted "fluid mosaic model" cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In this regard, which of the following statements are incorrect -
1. Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer
2. Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer
3. Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer
4. Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membranes
Which of the following is not a hereditary disease -
1. Haemophilia
2. Cretinism
3. Cystic fibrosis
4. Thalasasemia
Which of the following is the relatively most accurate method for dating of fossils -
1. Electron-spin resonance method
2. Uranium-lead method
3. Potassium–argon method
4. Radio-carbon method
Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because
1. Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
2. The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
3. The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
4. The genetic code is universal
Which of the following substances, if introduced into the blood stream, would cause coagulation of blood at the site of its introduction -
1. Thromboplastin
2. Fibrinogen
3. Heparin
4. Prothrombin
The world's highly prized wool yielding 'Pashmina' breed is -
1. Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
2. Goat
3. Sheep
4. Goat-sheep cross
One of the examples of the action of the autonomous nervous system is -
1. Knee-jerk reponse
2. Pupillary reflex
3. Peristalsis of the intestines
4. Swallowing of food
At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell -
1. During telophase
2. During S-phase
3. During G-2 stage of prophase
4. During entire prophase
The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to their destinations is -
1. Endoplasmic Reticulum
2. Lysosome
3. Mitochondria
4. Chloroplast
Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
1. A reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
2. A reduction in stem cell production
3. Loss of antibody mediated immunity
4. Loss of cell mediated immunity
Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness -
1. Morphine
2. Valium
3. Hashish
4. Amphetamines
There are two opposing views about origin of modern man. According to one view Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern man. A study of variation of DNA however suggested African origin of modern man. What kind of observation of DNA variation could suggest this -
1. Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
2. Similar variation in Africa and Asia
3. Variation only in Asia and no variation inAfrica
4. Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
Which of the following is not true for a species -
1. Members of a species can interbreed
2. Variations occur among members of a species
3. Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
4. Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects
1. Activator B cells
2. T4 lymphocytes
3. Cytotoxic T cells
4. All lymphocytes
Parkinson's disease (characterized by tremors and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by degeneration of brain neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of neurotransmitter -
1. Norepinephrine
2. Acetylcholine
3. GABA
4. Dopamine
Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour -
1. [Zn (NH3)6]2+
2. [Ni (NH3)6]2+
3. [Cr (NH3)6]3+
4. [Co (NH3)6]3+
Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour -
1. CO2
2. ClO2
3. SO2
4. SiO2
The best method for the separation of naphthalene and benzoic acid from their mixture is -
1. Sublimation
2. Chromatograpy
3. Crystallisation
4. Distillation
Which one of the following forms micelles in aqueous solution above certain concentration -
1. Glucose
2. Urea
3. Dodecyl trimetlyl ammonium chloride
4. Pyridinium chloride
The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless -
1. Fe2+
2 Mn2+
3. Ti3+
4. Sc3+
[Atomic number : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 24, Mn = 25]
A reaction occurs spontaneously if -
1. T∆S > ∆H and ∆H is +ve and ∆S are –ve
2. T∆S = ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
3. T∆S < ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
4. T∆S > ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
In a face – centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells :-
1. 4
2. 2
3. 6
4. 8
Which amongst the following is the most stable carbocation :-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the following equilibria :
are related as -
1.
2.
3.
4.
The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is :-
1. 0.027
2. 0.036
3. 0.018
4. 0.009
The chirality of the compound
1. E
2. R
3. S
4. Z
Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign) of the given atomic species :-
1. F < Cl < O < S
2. S < O < Cl < F
3. O < S < F < Cl
4. Cl < F < S < O
The vapour pressure of two liquids 'P' and 'Q' are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of Q would be :-
1. 68 torr
2. 140 torr
3. 72 torr
4. 20 torr
The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbondioxide) in the production of 270 kg of aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall process is :-
1. 90 kg
2. 540 kg
3. 180 kg
4. 270 kg
(Atomic mass : Al = 27)
The absolute enthalpy of neutralisation of the reaction : MgO(s) +2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq)+H2O(l) will be : -
1. 57.33 kJ mol–1
2. –57.33 kJ mol–1
3. Greater than –57.33 kJ mol–1
4. Less than –57.33 kJ mol–1
Which one of the following alkenes will react faster with H2 under catalytic hydrogenation conditions :-
1.
2.
3.
4.
[R = Alkyl substituent]
A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol–1) boils at 100.18oC at the atomospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512K kg mol–1 respectively , the above solution will freeze at :-
1. –6.54oC
2. –0.654oC
3. 6.54oC
4. 0.654oC
The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1; hence the energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be :-
1. –1312 kJ mol–1
2. –82 kJ mol–1
3. –41 kJ mol–1
4. –164 kJ mol–1
The surface tension of which of the following liquid is maximum :-
1. C6H6
2. H2O
3. C2H5OH
4. CH3OH
Which one of the following pair represents stereo isomerism :-
1. Linkage isomerism and Geometrical isomerism
2. Chain isomerism and Rotational isomerism
3. Optical isomerism and Geometrical isomerism
4. Structural isomerism and Geometrical isomerism
The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one mole of KI in alkaline medium is :-
1. One
2. Two
3. Five
4. One fifth
Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by SN1 mechanism :
1. Ethyl chloride
2. Isopropyl chloride
3. Benzyl chloride
4. Chlorobenzene
Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy :-
1. Vanadium (Z = 23)
2. Manganese (Z = 25)
3. Chromium (Z = 24)
4. Iron (Z = 26)
Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomerism ? (en = ethylenediamine)
1. cis – [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
2. cis – [Co(en)2Cl2]
3. trans – [Co(en)2Cl2]
4. trans – [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
A solution has a 1:4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressures of the pure hydrocarbons at 20oC are 440 mm Hg for pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be-
1. 0.200
2. 0.478
3. 0.549
4. 0.786
The rate of reaction between two reactants A and B decreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration of reactant B is doubled. The order of this reaction with respect to reactant B is :-
1. 2
2. –1
3. 1
4. –2
The monomer of the polymer :
1. CH3CH = CH.CH3
2. CH3CH = CH2
3. (CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2
4.
Which functional group participates in disulphide bond formation in proteins :-
1. Thioether
2. Thiol
3. Thioester
4. Thiolactone
At 25oC, the dissociation constant of a base, BOH, is 1.0 × 10–12. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in 0.01M aqueous solution of the base would be :-
1. 1.0 × 10–6 mole L–1
2. 1.0 × 10–7 mole L–1
3. 2.0 × 10–6 mole L–1
4. 1.0 × 10–5 mole L–1
The correct order in which the O-O bond length increases in the following is :-
1. O3 < H2O2 < O2
2. O2 < O3 < H2O2
3. O2 < H2O2 < O3
4. H2O2 < O2 < O3
Which of the following molecules has trigonal planner geometry ;
1. NH3
2. BF3
3. PCl3
4. IF3
The main reason for larger number of oxidation states exhibited by the actinoids than the corresponding lanthanoids, is :-
1. Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
2. More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
3. Greater reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids
4. Larger atomic size of actinoids than the lanthanoids
Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives :-
1. Aniline
2. p-Hydroxy aniline
3. N-Phenyl hydroxyl amine
4. Nitroso benzene
Which one of the following compounds is most acidic :-
1.
2.
3.
4. Cl–CH2–CH2–OH
For a first order reaction A → B the reaction rate at reactant concentration of 0.01M is found to be 2.0 × 10–5 mole L–1s –1. The half life period of the reaction is :-
1. 300s
2. 30s
3. 220s
4. 347s
What is the correct relationship between the pHs of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH1), sodium sulphide (pH2), sodium selenide (pH3) and sodium telluride (pH4) ?
1. pH1< pH2 < pH3 < pH4
2. pH1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4
3. pH1 < pH2 < pH3 ≈ pH4
4. pH1 > pH2 ≈ pH3 > pH4
The cell membranes are mainly composed of :
2. Phospholipids
2. Proteins
3. Fats
4. Carbohydrates
The major organic product formed from the following reaction
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D
The structure of D would be -
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following pairs of a chemical reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous reaction -
1. Endothermic and decreasing disorder
2. Exothermic and increasing disorder
3. Endothermic and increasing disorder
4. Exothermic and decreasing disorder
Products of the following reaction :
are
1. CH3COOH + CH3COCH3
2. CH3COOH + HOOC. CH2CH3
3. CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO
4. CH3COOH + CO2
Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment -
1. BF3
2. SF4
3. SiF4
4. XeF4
Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D
The structure of the product D would be -
1. C6H5CH2OH
2. C6H5CH2NH2
3. C6H5NHOH
4. C6H5NHCH2CH3
The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by -
1. BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
2. NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
3. BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
4. LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
IUPAC Name of some compounds are given. Which one is incorrect -
1.
3-Methyl-4-ethyl-heptane
2.
3-Methyl-2-butanol
3.
2-Ethyl-3-methyl-but-1-ene
4.
4-Methyl-2-pentyne
The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5eV. According to Einstein's equation, the metals which will emit photo electrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 is/are-
1. None
2. A only
3. A and B only
4. All the three metals
Zener diode is used for:-
1. Rectification
2. Stabilization
3. Amplification
4. Producing oscillations in an oscillator
If mass of proton = 1.008 amu and mass of neutron = 1.009 amu, then the binding energy per nucleon for 4Be9 (mass = 9.012 amu) will be:
(1) 0.0672 MeV (2) 0.672 MeV
(3) 6.72 MeV (4) 67.2 MeV
In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. The current leads the voltage by 45º. The value of C is -
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following processes is reversible?
1. Transfer of heat by radiation
2. Transfer of heat by conduction
3. Isothermal compression
4. Electrical heating of a nichrome wire
Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal resistance 2Ω and the other of emf 12 volt and internal resistance 1Ω, are connected as shown. The voltmeter V will record a reading of.
1. 18 volt
2. 30 volt
3. 14 volt
4. 15 volt
Two charges and are placed 30 cm apart, as shown in the figure. A third charge is moved along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in the potential energy of the system is , where k is:
1. 8
2. 6
3. 8
4. 6
An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A 5-ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is :
1. 5 ohm
2. 0.04 ohm
3. 0.2 ohm
4. 0.4 ohm
As per this diagram , a point charge +q is placed at the origin O. Work done in taking another point charge –Q from the point A(0, a) to another point B(a, 0) along the straight path AB is
1.
2. zero
3.
4.
A very long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant when a charge +Q at point P has velocity , as shown, the force on the charge is-
1. Along OX
2. Opposite to OY
3. Along OY
4. Opposite to OX
If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and ferromagnetic material are denoted by , and respectively, then
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by and . Number of beats produced per minute is
1. 3
2. 360
3. 180
4. 60
When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length l and resistance R is bent into a complete circle, resistance between any two of diametrically opposite points will be -
1. R/2
2. R/4
3. R/8
4. 4R
A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s. The frequency of its oscillation is :
1. 1Hz
2. 3Hz
3. 2Hz
4. 4Hz
If the sun’s surface radiates heat at \(6.3\times 10^7~\text{Wm}^{-2}.\) The temperature of the sun assuming it to be a black body is:
\((\sigma=5.7\times 10^{-8}~\text{Wm}^{-2}\text{K}^{-4})\)
1. \(5.8\times 10^3~\text K\)
2. \(8.5\times 10^3~\text K\)
3. \(3.5\times 10^8~\text K\)
4. \(5.3\times 10^8~\text K\)
The ratio of the dimension of Planck's constant and that of the moment of inertia is the dimension of :
1. Velocity
2. Angular momentum
3. Time
4. Frequency
A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of 18kg mass is 6ms–1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is :
1. 524 J
2. 256 J
3. 486 J
4. 324 J
The nuclei of which one of the following pairs of nuclei are isotones:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, \(h\nu_{0}.\)If the photons of energy, \(2h\nu_{0}\) falls on the surface, the electrons come out with a maximum velocity of \(4\times10^{6}\) m/s. When the photon energy is increased to \(5h\nu_{0},\) then the maximum velocity of photo-electrons will be:
1. \(2\times10^{7}\) m/s
2. \(2\times10^{6}\) m/s
3. \(8\times10^{5}\) m/s
4. \(8\times10^{6}\) m/s
As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the closed loop shown in the figure, an e.m.f. V volt is induced in the loop. The work done (joules) in taking a charge Q coulomb once along the loop is-
1. QV
2. QV/2
3. 2QV
4. Zero
An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs of heat at higher temperature. Amount of heat converted to work is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that is parallel to plane of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle, a torque acts on it, the side l of the triangle is-
1.
2.
3.
4.
If and represent the wavelengths of visible light, x-rays and microwaves respectively, then-
1.
2.
3.
4.
For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is:
1. \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
2. \(2\)
3. \(\sqrt{2}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{2}\)
For the network shown in the figure, the value of the current I (in Ampere) is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is-
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a nuclear reactor, graphite is used as:
1. Coolant
2. Fuel
3. Electrode
4. Moderator
One end of the string of length l is connected to a particle of mass m and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed v, the net force on the particle (directed towards centre) will be (T represents the tension in the string)
(a) T
(b)
(c) T-
(d) Zero
Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them-
1. Decreases with mass number at low mass numbers
2. Increases with mass number at low mass numbers
3. Decreases with mass number at high mass numbers
4. Increases with mass number at high mass numbers
The angular resolution of a 10cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 is of the order of -
1.
2.
3.
4.
A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to and are conducted to a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of the charges on and is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
A drum of radius R and mass M, rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane of angle θ. The frictional force-
1. Decreases the rotational and translational motion
2. Dissipates energy as heat
3. Decreases the rotational motion
4. Converts translational energy to rotational energy
A stone tied to the end of a string of \(1\) m long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes \(22\) revolutions in \(44\) s, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone?
| 1. | \(\pi^2~\mathrm{ms^{-2}}\) and direction along the tangent to the circle. |
| 2. | \(\pi^2~\mathrm{ms^{-2}}\) and direction along the radius towards the centre. |
| 3. | \(\frac{\pi^2}{4}~\mathrm{ms^{-2}}\) and direction along the radius towards the centre. |
| 4. | \(\pi^2~\mathrm{ms^{-2}}\) and direction along the radius away from the centre. |
Choose the only false statement from the following.
| 1. | The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with an increase in temperature. |
| 2. | Substances with an energy gap of the order of \(10~\text{eV}\) are insulators. |
| 3. | In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may overlap. |
| 4. | The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with an increase in temperature. |
The coordinates of a moving particle at a time t, are given by, x=5 sin 10t, y=5 cos 10t. The speed of the particle is:
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 10
(D)
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is about –3.4eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is-
1. –6.8 eV
2. 3.4 eV
3. 6.8 eV
4. –3.4 eV
Water rises in a vertical capillary tube upto a height of 2.0 cm . If the tube is inclined at an angle of with the vertical, then upto what length the water will rise in the tube ?
(a) 2.0 cm (b) 4.0 cm
(c) (d)
Which of the following circular rods, (given radius r and length l) each made of the same material and whose ends are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most heat
1.
2.
3.
4.
If a vector is perpendicular to the vector , then the value of
1.
2.
3.
4.
Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth in size. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and that on the surface of the new planet is g', then -
1. g' = 3g
2. g' = 9g
3. g' = g/9
4. g' = 27g
If the angle between the vector and is , the value of the product is equal to -
1. Zero
2.
3.
4.
A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q are at distance of 2m and 3m respectively from the source. The ratio of the intensities of the waves at P and Q is -
1. 3 : 2
2. 2 : 3
3. 9 : 4
4. 4 : 9
A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown here.
The force is in N and x in m. The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is
1. 18.0 J
2. 13.5 J
3. 4.5 J
4. 9.0 J
Volume-temperature graph at atmospheric pressure for a monoatomic gas is
1.
2.
3.
4.