In the circuit shown in the figure, the maximum output voltage is :
1. 0 V 2. 5 V
3. 10 V 4.
The opening of stoma is aided due to the orientation of the microfibrils in the cell walls of the guard cells. These microfibrils are
1. Proteinaceous.
2. Cellulosic.
3. Lipid derivative.
4. Polynucleotide chains.
Select the incorrect statement
1. In monocots, guard cells are dumb-bell shaped.
2. The positive pressure that develops in xylem is called root pressure.
3. Active transport is a downhill process.
4. Diffusion is a slow process.
Read the given statements and choose the correct option
A. Like dark reactions, light reactions are also temperature sensitive.
B. plants respond to lower temperatures and show higher rate of photosynthesis.
1. Only A is correct.
2. Only B is correct.
3. Both A and B are incorrect.
4. Both A and B are correct.
In plants, bundle sheath cells are characterised by how many features given below?
I. Large cells.
II. Having large number of agranal chloroplasts.
III. Thin walled.
IV. Impervious to gaseous exchange.
V. Presence of intercellular space.
1. 5
2. 4
3. 2
4. 3
Which of the following prevents inactivation of enzyme nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning, during biological nitrogen fixation?
1. Nod factors.
2. Leguminous haemoglobin.
3. Cytochrome.
4. Amides.
Which one of the following elements helps in photolysis of water and to maintain anion-cation balance in cells?
1. Boron.
2. Chlorine.
3. Manganese.
4. Both 2 and 3.
Select the correct set of non-mineral essential elements
1. C, Cl, N
2. C, H, B
3. C, H, O
4. H, O, Cl
On the basis of the RQ values, arrange the given respiratory substrates in descending order.
A. Glucose B. Oxalic acid
C. Tripalmitin D. Protein
1. B > A > D > C
2. A > B > D > C
3. B > C > A > D
4. C > B > A > D
Read the given statements and choose the correct option
A. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%.
B. During glucose activation phase of glycolysis, 2 ATP are consumed.
1. Only A is correct.
2. Only B is incorrect.
3. Both A and B are correct.
4. Both A and B are incorrect.
Identify the wrong statements
A. There are three steps in Krebs cycle where is reduced to NADH + .
B. Krebs cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with fumaric acid to yield citric acid.
C. Cytochrome c is a small, mobile carrier protein, which transfers protons between complex III and IV.
D. In glycolysis, glucose undergoes partial oxidation and at the end produces 2 molecules of pyruvic acid.
1. B, C and D
2. B and C only
3. A, B and C
4. C and D only
Match the phytohormones given in column-I with their precursors given in column-II
Column-I Column-II
(Phytohormones) (Precursors)
A. Ethylene I. Violaxanthin
B. Cytokinins II. Methionine
C. Gibberellin III. t-RNA
D. Abscisic acid IV. Acetyl CoA
1. A(III), B(II), C(IV), D(I)
2. A(III), B(II), C(I), D(IV)
3. A(I), B(III), C(IV), D(II)
4. A(II), B(III), C(IV), D(I)
Auxin promotes the apical dominance whereas it is counteracted by__________.
Complete the statement by choosing the correct option.
1. Gibberellin.
2. Cytokinin.
3. Ethylene.
4. ABA.
How many ATP molecules will be formed from complete oxidation of two molecules of 3-PGAL in an
eukaryotic cell?
1. 34
2 40
3. 36
4. 42
In electron transport system of respiration, which enzyme complex is odd with respect to electron carrier?
1. Complex I
2. Complex III
3. Complex IV
4. Complex V
Maximum energy is released during conversion of
1. Glucose into pyruvic acid.
2. Glucose into ethyl alcohol and
3. Pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA.
4. Pyruvic acid into and .
In a flaccid cell
1. DPD = 0
2. DPD = OP
3. DPD > OP
4. DPD = TP
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement-A : Potassium pump theory explains that during opening of stomata in light, ion exchange is an active process.
Statement-B : PGR ABA is involved in closing of stomata.
1. Only statement A is correct.
2. Only statement B is incorrect.
3. Both statements are incorrect.
4. Both statements are correct.
Which one is incorrectly matched pair
1. Lenticular transpiration – Approximately 0.1% of total water loss.
2. Direction of movement – Low DPD to of water high DPD.
3. w of pure water – Minimum.
4. w (solute potential) – Lowering of free energy of water.
The direction of movement of water in given cells A, B and C can be represented as
1.
2.
3.
4.
For a solution at atmospheric pressure
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which set of elements become toxic when their concentration exceeds 10 mmol/kg of dry matter in
plants?
1. C, Mg, S
2. S, Mg, Fe
3. B, Zn, Cu
4. Mn, Mg, Ca
Match the column I of elements with their deficiency symptoms in plants in column II and then select the correct option.
Column I Column II
(Elements) (Deficiency symptoms)
A. Zn I. Plastid disintegration
B. Mn II. Accumulation of anthocyanin
C. S III. Grey spots in oats
D. K IV. Little leaf
1. A(IV), B(II), C(III), D(I)
2. A(I), B(II), C(III), D(IV)
3. A(II), B(I), C(IV), D(III)
4. A(IV), B(III), C(II), D(I)
Select the incorrect statement related to Mn toxicity
1. Prevention of binding of Mg with enzyme.
2. Promotion of Ca translocation to shoot apex.
3. Reduction in uptake of Mg.
4. Combined deficiency symptoms of Mg, Fe and Ca.
Who described the first action spectrum of photosynthesis by using an alga Cladophora, a prism and aerobic bacteria in an experiment?
1. Jan Ingenhousz.
2. T.W. Engelmann.
3. Joseph Priestley.
4. C. Van Niel.
Choose the events which correctly differentiate non-cyclic photophosphorylation from cyclic photo
phosphorylation.
A. Requirement of an external electron donor.
B. Synthesis of ATP.
C. Photolysis of water.
D. Involvement of PS I.
E. Formation of NADPH.
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C, D and E
3. A, C and E only
4. A, B, C and E
Immediate donor of electrons to PS I is
1. Phaeophytin
2. Cyt
3. Plastocyanin
4. Plastoquinone
In cycle, fixation of one requires
1. 5ATP + 2NADPH
2. 5ATP + 3NADPH
3. 3ATP + 3NADPH
4. 3ATP + 2NADPH
The primary acceptor molecule during cycle is a
(a) Five carbon keto-sugar.
(b) Three carbon aldo-sugar.
(c) Five carbon aldo-sugar.
(d) Three carbon keto-sugar.
Select the wrong statement.
1. In epigeal seed germination, hypocotyl grows first.
2. In a plant, the perception site of light/dark is the leaves.
3. Rate of respiration decreases rapidly during seed germination.
4. Vernalisation can help in shortening the period between germination and flowering.
Which one is odd with respect to LDP?
1. Wheat
2. Tobacco
3. Sugarbeet
4. Radish
Auxin (IAA) was first isolated from
1. Yeast.
2. Rhizopus.
3. Fusarium.
4. Human urine.
Which phytohormone is known as stress hormone?
1. Cytokinin.
2. Gibberellin.
3. Abscisic acid.
4. Ethylene.
Which phytohormone stimulates cell division and delays senescence?
1. Auxins.
2. Gibberellins.
3. Cytokinins.
4. Vernalins.
At the sink, sucrose is moved out of the phloem sap by .....A..... , as a result the osmotic pressure ....B.... in sieve tube elements.
Fill the blanks with suitable A and B.
A B
1. Active transport Increases
2. Active transport Decreases
3. Passive transport Increases
4. Passive transport Decreases
solutes and allow the passage of ions in one direction only?
1. Epiblema.
2. Endodermis.
3. Pericycle.
4. Cortex.
Potometer is a device used for measuring rate of
1. Imbibition.
2. Ascent of sap.
3. Transpiration.
4. Phloem transport.
Nitrifying bacteria such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are
1. Heterotrophs.
2. Photoautotrophs.
3. Symbiotic.
4. Chemoautotrophs.
Nitrate assimilation is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Molybdenum (Mo) is more commonly found in
1. Roots
2. Stems
3. Leaves
4. Fruits
Which phytohormone is known as Anti GA hormone?
1. Ethylene
2. ABA
3. Cytokinin
4. Auxin
Avena coleoptile test is a bioassay of
1. Auxin activity.
2. Gibberellic acid (GA) activity.
3. Benzyl amino purine (BAP) activity.
4. Abscisic acid (ABA) activity.
Dimorphic chloroplasts are found in
1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Maize
4. Pea
Which of the following plants has scotoactive stomata?
1. Opuntia
2. Cuscuta
3. Sugarcane
4. Rice
Choose the correct statement
1. pathway is a slower process of carbon fixation than pathway.
2. 6 ATP are consumed to fix one via pathway.
3. The first stable product is a 4C compound in pathway.
4. The primary acceptor of is PEP in pathway.
Which one is not a correct statement with respect to cyclic photophosphorylation?
1. It occurs mostly in stroma lamellae membrane.
2. It operates under high light intensity and aerobic conditions only.
3. It operates when availability is poor.
4. It does not take part in photosynthesis except for certain bacteria.
Organism belonging to which kingdom was first time used to hypothesized that all photosynthetic organisms require a source of hydrogen
1. Plantae
2. Protista
3. Monera
4. Fungi
Which of the following is not correct about stroma lamellae
1. It lacks PS – II.
2. Enzyme NADP – reductase is absent.
3. Only site of cyclic – photophosphorylation.
4. Contains chlorophyll pigment as well.
Following are the statements related to Dark reaction, how many of them are correct?
I. RuBP is always one of the acceptor molecule of .
II. In some plants dark reaction is affected by high internal concentration.
III. If supply of light is cut dark reaction stops immediately.
IV. Dark reaction is fast when non-cyclic photophosphorylation is stopped.
Option :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
What is the significance of vernalisation when it occurs naturally?
1. It gives enough time to plant to reach maturity.
2. It helps in shortening life-cycle of plant.
3. It is a physiological process to remove effect of photoperiodism.
4. It helps in overproduction without use of fertilizer.
Senescence and abscission of especially leaves and flowers are promoted by which PGR?
1. ABA
2. Ethylene
3. Auxin
4.
Study the graph below and find out that out of A, B and C which has maximum efficiency index
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. Either B or C
How many of the following statements is correct about respiration?
I. Respiratory substrate is often more than one in living organism.
II. Pure protein or pure fat can never be respiratory substrates.
III. Protein has maximum possible option for entry into respiratory pathway.
IV. Acetyl CoA can be product or precursor of fatty acid .
Option :
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
During electron transport in mitochondria, which statement is not correct about complex – IV
1. It is terminal donor of electron to oxygen.
2. It is also known as cytochrome oxidase .
3. It contains Cu, which is reversibley oxidise from
4. It receives electron from UQ.
If pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to two medium one having pure water (A) and another having solution (B), then what would be effect on water potential
Pure water (A) Solution (B)
1. Increase Increase
2. No change Increase
3. No change Decrease
4. Decrease Decrease
Transport of food material takes place via sieve tube, continuity between these tubes are maintained by ?
1. Plasmodesmata.
2. Cytoplasmic strands.
3. Companion cell.
4. Phloem parenchyma.
Ferrodoxin which is involved in electron transport, contains
1. Fe, S
2. Fe, Cu
3. Cu, S
4. S, K
During biological nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium 8-ATP is used for production of one . This ATP comes from
1. Respiration in cytoplasm of Rhizobium.
2. Respiration in host cell.
3. Both 1 and 2.
4. Depends on soil type.
Calcium is required for cell-wall formation but despite its presence in the medium plant fails to absorb and utilize calcium. This is due to deficiency of?
1. Cu
2. B
3. Zn
4. Mo
Which one is correct
1. During the fermentation, 2 molecules of ATP per molecule of glucose is the net gain.
2. Oxidative phosphorylation produces the most ATP in the cell.
3. During TCA cycle oxidative steps are coupled to the reductions of carriers.
4. All.
Which one is false?
1. Less than 7% of energy in glucose is released during lactic or alcoholic fermentation.
2. Fermentation is observed in all cells.
3. is an essential requirement for aerobic respiration but it enters the respiratory process at the end.
4. In aerobic respiration glucose is broken down into
The electron flow from PSll to NADP via ETS and PSl follows
1. Uphill Downhill → Uphill → Downhill.
2. Downhill → Uphill → Downhill → Uphill.
3. Downhill → uphill → Uphill → Downhill.
4. Uphill → Downhill → Downhill → Uphill.
is used to synthesise amino acids in plants. For it there are 2 main ways
(i)
(ii)
1. Both (i) and (ii) are reductive amination.
2. Both (i) and (ii) are transamination.
3. (i) is transamination and (ii) is reductive amination.
4. (i) is reductive amination and (ii) is transamination.
Go through the following statements about the chemiosmotic mechanism
I. protons are pumped across the membrane.
II. Protons return through the membrane by way of a channel protein.
III. ATP is required for protons to return.
IV. The membrane in questions is the inner mitochondrial membrane.
V. Proton pumping is associated with the respiratory chain.
1. V is incorrect.
2. III is incorrect.
3. III and V is correct .
4. Only III is correct.
Match the following and choose the correct option from those given below.
Column A Column B
A. Molecular oxygen (i) Ketoglutaric acid
B. Electron acceptor (ii) hydrogen acceptor
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase (iii) cytochrome C
D. Decarboxylation (iv) acetyl CoA
1. A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
2. A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i
3. A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
4. A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
Which of the following statement is not correct about nitrogen?
1. Plants competes with microbes for limited nitrogen present in soil.
2. Nitrogen is a limiting nutrient for both natural and agricultural ecosystems.
3. During nitrification chemi-hetrotrophic bacteria play very important role.
4. Bacteria such as Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus can produce nitrogen gas from nitrate.
I. Initial acceptor.
II. Extent of photorespiration.
III. Enzyme catalyzing reaction that fixes .
IV. Presence of Calvin Cycle.
V. Leaf anatomy.
Which one does not differ between a and a plant?
1. I and V
2. IV
3. II and III
4. II
How many of the following statement is/are correct?
(1) Both Rhizobium and Frankia are free living in soil and can fix only under symbiotic condition.
(2) Root nodules can be best observed before flowering.
(3) Formation of root nodule takes place as a result of division of cortical and endodermal cell.
(4) When Rhizobium is free living it is aerobic but when it is symbiont it becomes anaerobic to protect Mo-Fe protein.
Options :
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
I. Cytokinin is primarily concerned with cell division.
II. breaks seed and bud dormany in some.
III. ABA stimulates the opening of stomata.
IV. initiates germination in peanut seeds, sproduting of potato tubers.
V. ABA is synergistic to . The false statement is
1. I, II, IV
2. III, V
3. III, IV
4. IV, V
How many of the following statement is/are correct about fate of ammonia is plants?
(1) At physiological pH is protonated to form which cannot be stored as it is toxic.
(2) Most plants can assimilate NH4+ as well as
(3) Assimilation of ammonia can take place by reductive amination as well as transamination.
(4) Tranport of fixed nitrogen in form of amides and ureides take place via xylem vessel.
Options :
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
Half-leaf experiment, where a part of leaf is enclosed in a test tube containing KOH is performed to show that :-
1. is required for photosynthesis.
2. is required for photosynthesis.
3. Light is required for photosynthesis .
4. is source of released during photosynthesis.
Although concentration of is increased but there is no increase in rate of photosynthesis reason could be (for both and plants)
1. Low light intensity.
2. Water stress.
3. High internal O2 concentration .
4. Both 1 and 2.
The correct match is
Column I Column II
I. IAA A. Terpenes
II. GA B. Indole compounds
III. ABA C. Adenine derivatives
IV. D. Gases
V. Kinetin, ( furfuryl amino purine) E. Carotenoid derivatives
1. I – B, II – A, III – E, IV – D, V – C
2. I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D, V – E
3. I – E, II – D, III – A, IV – B, V – C
4. None
In leguminous plant root nodules are formed due to division in cells of
1. Cortex.
2. Pericycle.
3. Both 1. and 2.
4. Xylem and phloem.
How many of the following statement is correct for glycolysis?
(1) It is the only process of respiration in aerobic respiration.
(2) During glycolysis there is partial oxidation of glucose to form one molecule of pyruvic acid.
(3) In glycolysis, there are ten enzyme catalysed steps.
(4) When PGAL is converted into BPGA, two redox equivalents are removed.
Options :
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
What could be the possible reasons for production of less than 36-ATP during aerobic respiration of glucose?
(1) Pathway was not sequential.
(2) Cytoplasmic NADH was not transferred to mitochondria.
(3) Some of the intermediate of pathway was utilized.
(4) Respiratory substrate was other than glucose.
Options :
1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4
Pruning of tea plants is done to discard the effects of
1.
2. Auxin
3. Cytokinin
4. ABA
Which of the following pair of plants respond to higher temperatures and show higher rate of photosynthesis ?
1. Tomato, Bell pepper.
2. Rice, Wheat.
3. Zea mays, sorghum.
4. Bell pepper, Rice.
Following are the statements related to PGR how many of them are correct?
(1) Auxin is responsible for the phototrophism.
(2) Sterile filtrates of the fungus Gibberella fujikuroi can break seed dormancy.
(3) A ripened orange can cause sprouting in potato.
(4) Extract of maize endosperm can overcome apical dominance.
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
Among Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium and Calcium how many of them is required by meristematic tissue :
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
The plants show saturation to concentration at about
1. 450 ppm
2. 0 10 ppm
3. 360 ppm
4. 25 100 ppm
Which of the following set of bacteria involved in nitrogen fixation, nitrification and denitrification respectively?
1. Nitrosomonas, Rhizobium, Nitrobacter.
2. Frankia, Nitrosomonas, Pseudomonas.
3. Rhizobium, Frankia, Nitrobacter.
4. Thiobacillus, Nitrobacter, pseudomonas.
Which of the following hormone pramotes flowering in pineapple?
1. IAA
2.
3.
4. Both 1 and 2
Which of the following statements does not apply to reverse osmosis?
1. It is used for water purification.
2. In this technique, pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied to the system.
3. It is a passive process.
4. It is an active process.
Which one of the following will not directly affect transpiration?
1. Temperature.
2. Light.
3. Wind speed.
4. Chlorophyll content of leaves
The process of guttation takes place
1. When the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low.
2. When the root pressure is low and the rate of transpiration is high.
3. When the root pressure equals the rate of transpiration.
4. When the root pressure as well as rate of transpiration are high.
When a plant undergoes senescence, the nutrients may be
1. Exported.
2. Withdrawn.
3. Reduced.
4. None of the above.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
1. Essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
2. Essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
3. Essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
4. None of the above.
The reaction that is responsible for the primary fixation of is catalysed by
1. RuBP carboxylase.
2. PEP carboxylase.
3. RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase.
4. PGA synthase.
Which pigment acts directly to convert light energy to chemical energy?
1. Chlorophyll a.
2. Chlorophyll b.
3. Xanthophyll.
4. Carotenoid.
Splitting of water is associated with
1. Photosystem I.
2. Lumen of thylakoid.
3. Both Photosystem I and II.
4. Inner surface of thylakoid membrane.
Which of the following is not a mineral of aluminium?
1. Bauxite
2. Cryolite
3. Gibbsite
4. Malachite
Serpek's method involves the heating of bauxite with
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the metallurgy of copper, the slag is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Galena Contains ZnS with PbS. Which of the following is used as depressant to stop ZnS to come with foam?
1.
2. Aniline
3. Pine Oil
4.
In Ellingham diagrams of oxide formation , which of the following graphs has negative slope?
1.
2.
3.
4. All of these
Which of the following is leached with NaCN?
1. Ore of Al
2. Ore of Cu
3. Ore of Ag
4. Ore of Zn
Vapour phase refining can be carried out in case of
1. Ni
2. Zr
3. Ti
4. All of these
In the metallurgy of copper, matte contains
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following metal is purified by distillation process?
1. Zn
2. Fe
3. Al
4. Cu
The purest form of iron is
1. Cast iron
2. Steel
3. Wrought iron
4. Grey cast iron
Out of following which metal can be purified by Van Arkel method?
1. Ti
2. Zr
3. Hf
4. All of these
is the anhydride of
1.
2.
3.
4. None of these
Which hydride possesses the maximum complex-forming nature?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
When is hydrolysed then oxyacid of phosphorous is obtained. The basicity of oxyacid is
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
Which set of oxide of nitrogen is paramagnetic in nature?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Correct order of boiling point of group 16 hydrides
1.
2.
3.
4.
S – S bond is present in
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which is incorrectly given according to order indicated?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The correct order of acidic strength of oxyacid of phosphorous is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which has the highest bond angle?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which is mismatched regarding the shape?
1. = Square planar
2. = Square Pyramidal
3. = Distorted Octahedral
4. = Bent Shape
Which has the highest melting point?
1. Cr
2. Fe
3. Cu
4. Mo
The colour of is due to
1. d – d transition
2. Charge transfer spectra
3. Polarisation of ion
4. p – d transition
Which of the following element does not show the variable oxidation state?
1. Fe
2. Mn
3. Cu
4. Zn
With F highest stable oxidation state of Mn is
1. + 6
2. + 4
3. + 7
4. + 3
oxidised product of X, X in the above reaction cannot be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Lanthanoid which is radioactive is
1. Promethium
2. Europium
3. Plutonium
4. Neptunium
In dichromate dianion
1. 4 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
2. 6 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
3. All Cr – O bonds are equivalent
4. All Cr – O bonds are non equivalent
The basic oxide is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following compound will not give positive chromyl chloride test?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The pair having similar magnetic moment is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The hybridised state of Cu in is
1.
2.
3.
4.
How many hydrate isomers are possible for the molecular formula ?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
If excess of solution is added to 100ml of 0.024M solution of dichlorobis (ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) Chloride, how many moles of will be precipitated?
1. 0.0012
2. 0.0016
3. 0.0024
4. 0.0048
The shape of and respectively are
1. Square planar, Square planar
2. Tetrahedral, Tetrahedral
3. Tetrahedral, Square planar
4. Square planar, Tetrahedral
Which of the following compounds exhibit geometrical isomerism?
1.
2.
3.
4. All of these
bonding is not involved in
1. Ferrocene
2. Dibenzene Chromium
3. Zeise’s Salt
4. Grignard Reagent
The co-ordination number of Fe in Ferrocene is
1. 2
2. 5
3. 6
4. 10
The number of geometrical isomers possible for a square planar complex are
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
EAN of Fe in is
1. 34
2. 35
3. 36
4. 47
Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?
1.
2.
3.
4.
can show
1. Optical isomerism
2. Geometrical isomerism
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Neither (1) nor (2)
Cyanide process is used in the extraction of
1. Au
2. Cu
3. Ag
4. both 1 and 3
Conc. reacts with to give
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following has the highest magnetic moment?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A proton and an electron both have a kinetic energy of 1 eV. Which has the longer wavelength?
1. Electron
2. Proton
3. Both have the same wavelength
4. Wavelength and K.E. are not related
The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit is related to the radius R of the orbit as
1.
2.
3.
4.
Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on photo-sensitive material. If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the photocurrent becomes
1. Quadrupled
2. Doubled
3. Halved
4. Zero
A beam of alpha particles passes without deflection through crossed electric and magnetic field with Newton per Coulomb and . Their speed in metre per sec is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A nuclear reaction along with the masses of, the particle taking part in it is as follows
A + B C + D + QMeV
1.002 1.004 1.001 1.003 Q
amu amu amu amu amu
The energy Q liberated in the reaction is
1. 1.234 MeV
2. 0.931 MeV
3. 0.465 MeV
4. 1.862 MeV
The ratio of the radii of the nuclei and is approximately
1. 6 : 10
2. 13 : 52
3. 40 : 177
4. 14 : 73
The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding energy per nucleon for helium in MeV?
1. 28
2. 7
3. 4
4. 1
The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass number A as
1.
2.
3. Constant
4.
A stationary radioactive nucleus of mass 210 units disintegrates into an alpha particle of mass 4 units and residual nucleus of mass 206 units. If the kinetic energy of the alpha particle is E, the kinetic energy of the residual nucleus is
1.
2.
3.
4.
After 2 hours of the initial amount of a certain radioactive isotope remains undecayed. The half-life of isotope is
1. 60 minutes
2. 45 minutes
3. 30 minutes
4. 15 minutes
The radioactivity of a given sample of whisky due to tritium (half life 12.5 years) was found to be only 3% of that measured in a recently purchased bottle marked “7 year old”. The sample must have been prepared about
1. 220 years back
2. 300 years back
3. 400 years back
4. 70 years back
In a common base transistor amplifier, the input resistance is and output resistance is if the voltage gain is
1. 7
2. 49
3. 5
4. 25
An n-p-n transistor is biased to use it as an amplifier. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1. The electrons go from emitter region to base region.
2. The electrons go from base region to collector region
3. The electrons go from collector region to base region
4. The holes go from base region to emitter region
A sinusoidal voltage of rms value of 200 volt is connected to the diode and capacitor C in the circuit shown so that half wave rectification occurs. The final potential difference in volt across C is
1. 500
2. 200
3. 283
4. 141
Figure shows the connections of two ideal diodes and two capacitors C and 2C. A 120 volt battery is connected to the input terminals with a at positive potential and b at lower potential. The output voltage across cd is
1. 60 V
2. 40 V
3. 30 V
4. 20 V
The circuit represents-
1. OR gate
2. AND gate
3. NOR gate
4. NAND gate
The combination of the gates shown below produces
1. AND gate
2. XOR gate
3. NOR gate
4. NAND gate
The magnetic moment () of a revolving electron around the nucleus varies with principal quantum number n as
1.
2.
3.
4.
Energy required to break one bond in DNA is approximately
1. ~ 1 eV
2. ~ 0.1 eV
3. ~ 0.01 eV
4. ~ 2.1 eV
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is about – 3.4 eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is
1. 3.4 eV
2. 6.8 eV
3. – 3.4 eV
4. – 6.8 eV
Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of Energy i.e., . If , and are wavelengths of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the following relations is correct?
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the reaction , if the binding energies of and are respectively a, b and c (in MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them
1. Increases with mass number at low mass numbers
2. Decreases with mass number at low mass numbers
3. Increases with mass number at high mass number
4. Decreases with mass number at high mass number
Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by and respectively. Which one of the following relationships is true in their case?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A radioactive element of mass A gives out an -particle with a velocity v. What is the velocity of recoil of the element?
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a hydrogen like atom, when an electron jumps from the M- shell to the L - shell, the wavelength of emitted radiation is . If an electron jumps from N-shell, the wavelength of emitted radiation will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each with a forward resistance of 50. If the battery voltage is 6V, the current through the 100 resistance (in Amperes) is :
1. 0.027
2. 0.020
3. 0.030
4. 0.036
A hydrogen atom, initially in the ground state is excited by absorbing a photon of wavelength . The radius of the atom in the excited state, it terms of Bohr radius , will be: ()
1. 9
2. 25
3. 4
4. 16
At a given instant, say t = 0, two radioactive substances A and B have equal activities. The ratio of their activities after time t itself decays with time t as . If the half-life of A is ln2, the half-life of B is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3V and 0.7V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode connecting are reversed, the value of changes by: (assume that the Ge diode has large breakdown voltage)
1. 0.6V
2. 0.8V
3. 0.4V
4. 0.2V
Consider the nuclear fission
Given that the binding energy/nucleon of , and are, respectively, 8.03 MeV, 7.07 MeV and 7.68 MeV, identify the correct statement:
1. 8.3 MeV energy will be released
2. energy of 12.4 MeV will be supplied
3. energy of 11.9 MeV has to be supplied
4. energy of 3.6 MeV will be released
A metal plate of area is illuminated by a radiation of intensity . The work function of the metal is 5eV. The energy of the incident photons is 10 eV and only 10% of it produces photoelectrons. The number of emitted photoelectrons per second and their maximum energy, respectively, will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Mobility of electrons in a semiconductor is defined as the ratio of their drift velocity to the applied electric field. If, for an n-type semiconductor, the density of electrons is and their mobility is then the resistivity of the semiconductor (since it is an n-type semiconductor contribution of holes is ignored) is close to:
1. 2 m
2. 0.4 m
3. 4 m
4. 0.2 m
A sample of radioactive material A, that has an activity of 10 mCi (1 Ci = 3.7 x 1010 decay/s), has twice the number of nuclei as another sample of a different radioactive material B which has an activity of 20 mCi. The correct choices for hall-lives of A and B would then be respectively:
1. 20 days and 5 days
2. 20 days and 10 days
3. 5 days and 10 days
4. 10 days and 40 days
The output of the given logic circuit is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field . If Bohr’s quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals and energy levels vary with quantum number n as:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A 100 V carrier wave is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by a modulating signal. What is the modulation index?
1. 0.6
2. 0.5
3. 0.3
4. 0.4
A particle A of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is accelerated by a potential difference of 50 V. Another particle B of mass ‘4m’ and charge ‘q’ is accelerated by a potential difference of 2500 V. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths is close to:
1. 10.00
2. 14.14
3. 4.47
4. 0.07
Using a nuclear counter the count rate of emitted particles from radioactive source is measured. At t = 0 it was 1600 counts per second and t = 8 seconds it was 100 counts per second. The count rate observed, as counts per second, at t = 6 seconds is closed to :
1. 150
2. 360
3. 200
4. 400
To get output ‘1’ at R, for the given logic gate circuit the values must be:
1. X = 0, Y = 1
2. X = 1, Y = 1
3. X = 0, Y = 0
4. X = 1, Y = 0
The ratio of coefficient of cubical expansion and linear expansion is
1. 1 : 1
2. 3 : 1
3. 2 : 1
4. None of these
Minimum amount of steam of required to melt 12 gm ice completely will be
1. 1.5 gm
2. 1 gm
3. 2 gm
4. 5 gm
If be the ratio of specific heats of a perfect gas, the number of degrees of freedom of a molecule of the gas is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
The temperature of a substance increases by . On the Kelvin scale, this increase is equal to
1. 300 K
2. 2.46 K
3. 27 K
4. 7 K