To protect and improve the quality of our environment, government of India has passed Environment (Protection) Act in the year ______
1. 1974 2. 1981
3. 1986 4. 1987
Read the following statements and chooser the correct option
Statement A: Electrostatic precipitator can remove over 99% particulate matter present in exhaust from a thermal power plant.
Statement B: According to CPCB particulate size 2.5m or less in diameter are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
1. Only statement A is correct.
2. Only statement B is correct.
3. Both statements A and B are correct.
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect.
State True (T) or False (F) for the following statements and select the correct option
A. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
B. Recently government of India has instituted the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award for
individuals from urban areas that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting
wildlife.
C. Reforestation may occur naturally in a deforested area.
A B C
1. T T F
2. T F T
3. T F F
4. F F T
Choose the correct match
|
Type of Biome |
Mean Annual Rainfall (mm) |
Mean Annual Temperature (C) |
1 |
Tropical Rain Forest |
2000-3500 |
23-27 |
2 |
Temperate Needle Leaf Forest |
1000-2500 |
"6-15" |
3 |
Tropical deciduous forest |
900-1600 |
"6-20" |
4 |
Temperate Broad Leaf Forest |
400-900 |
0-10 |
Triangular age pyramid represents
1. Expanding population.
2. Declining population.
3. Mature population.
4. Both 1. and 3.
Match the following columns and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a. Eurythermal (i) 0.1-0.28 m
b. Hypersaline lagoons (ii) Organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature
c. Stenohaline (iii) > 100 ppt saltconcentration
d. UV–C (iv) Organisms are restricted to a narrow range of salinities
1. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
2. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
3. a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Choose the incorrect match
1 |
Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels |
- |
Stratification |
2 |
The most productive ecosystem |
- |
Sugarcane field |
3 |
The most limiting nutrient of marine ecosystem |
- |
Nitrogen |
4 |
Release of inorganic nutrients from humus during the process of decomposition |
- |
Mineralisation |
Each tropic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called
1. Standing crop 2. Standing state
3. GPP 4. NPP
Term ‘biodiversity’ was popularised by
1. Robert May 2. Edward Wilson
3. Paul Ehrlich 4. C. Mobius
Choose the incorrect match regarding examples of recent extinctions.
1. Quagga - Africa
2. Steller’s Sea Cow - Russia
3. Dodo - Myanmar
4. Thylacine - Australia
Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1:The success of mammals is largely due to their ability to maintain a constant body temperature.
Statement 2:Majority of the animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment.
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statements are correct.
4. Both statements are incorrect
Select the correct option regarding relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Select the incorrect statement
1. Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator toward the poles.
2. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species in the last 500 years.
3. Amazon rainforest is so huge that it is called the ‘heart of the planet’
4. Extinction of Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon were due to their overexploitation by humans.
Who coined the term ecosystem and defined it as the sum total of interactions between biotic and abiotic
components?
1. C. Mobius 2. A.G. Tansley
3. Forbes 4. Friederich
Detritus is
1. Dead raw material for decomposition.
2. Partially decomposed organic matter.
3. Dead remains of animals & plants.
4. Both 1 and 3
In aquatic ecosystem, major channel for energy flow is
1. | Grazing food chain. | 2. | Detritus food chain. |
3. | Auxiliary food chain. | 4. | Parasitic food chain. |
State True (T) or False (F) for the following statements and select the correct option
a. Mammals from colder climates generally have larger ears and limbs to minimize the heat loss.
b. Experience of altitude sickness is due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes.
c. The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.
d. Resources for growth for most of the animal population are finite and become limiting sooner
or later.
a b c d
1. T T T T
2. F T T T
3. F F F F
4. T F T F
If ‘N’ is the population density at time t, then its density at time ‘t+1’ will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Choose the incorrect match regarding population interactions.
Species A Species B
1. Amensalism – –
2. Parasitism + –
3. Commensalism + 0
4. Mutualism + +
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called sere.
(b) The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock.
(c) Ecological pyramids do not accommodate food web.
1. Only statement (a) is correct.
2. Only statement (b) is correct.
3. All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
4. All (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids of number, energy and biomass are upright. It indicates that
(a) Producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores.
(b) Herbivores are less in number and biomass than the carnivores.
(c) Energy at a lower tropic level is always more than at a higher level.
Choose the correct option.
1. Only (a) is correct.
2. Only (b) is correct.
3. Both (a) and (c) are correct.
4. Both (b) and (c) are correct.
Which one is not an example of primary pollutants?
1. DDT 2. CO
3. Pollen 4. PAN
Select the mismatched pair.
(1) Minimata disease - Mercury
(2) Black foot disease - Arsenic
(3) Uremia - Copper
(4) Itai-itai - Lead
In which part of the atmosphere ‘good ozone’ is found?
1. Troposphere 2. Stratosphere
3. Ionosphere 4. Exosphere
Choose the correct types of ecological pyramid on the basis of following data of dry weights.
(i) Secondary consumer - 11 kg/
(ii) Tertiary consumer - 1.5 kg/
(iii) Primary producer - 809 kg/
(iv) Primary consumer - 37 kg/
1. Upright pyramid of biomass.
2. Inverted pyramid of biomass.
3. Inverted pyramid of energy.
4. Upright pyramid of number.
During primary succession on rocks, pioneer species are
1. Annual grasses.
2. Perennial grasses.
3. Xerophytic shrubs.
4. Lichens.
Out of total cost of various ecosystem services, the soil formation accounts for about __A__, and contribution of other services like recreation and nutrient cycling, are less than __B__ each.
In the above statement for ‘A’ and ‘B’, which option is correct?
1. A – 6%, B – 10% 2. A – 50%, B – 10%
3. A – 10%, B – 50% 4. A – 10%, B – 6%
Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
|
Column-I |
|
Column-II |
a |
Doha Amendment |
(i) |
Marrakesh |
b |
COP-15 |
(ii) |
Bali Action Plan (2007) |
c |
COP-13 |
(iii) |
To reduce GHG emission by at least 18% below 1990 level |
d |
COP-22 |
(iv) |
Copenhagen Accord |
1. a. – (iii), b. – (iv), c. – (ii), d. – (i)
2. a. – (iii), b. – (ii), c. – (iv), d. – (i)
3. a. – (i), b. – (iv), c. – (ii), d. – (iii)
4. a. – (i), b. – (ii), c. – (iv), d. – (iii)
What is/are the correct explanation(s) for the species richness of the tropics?
1. Tropics had less evolutionary time for species diversification.
2. Tropics provide a relatively constant environment.
3. Tropics receive more solar energy which contributes to greater productivity.
4. Both 2. and 3. are correct.
Which one is not an effect of increase in the level of greenhouse gases?
1. fertilisation effect.
2. EI Nino effect.
3. Snow blindness.
4. Warming of troposphere and cooling of stratosphere and thermosphere
In terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through______
1. GFC 2. DFC
3. Parasitic food chain 4. Both 1. and 3.
Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement-1 :Food webs provide stability to ecosystem.
Statement-2 : Food web operates because of taste
preference for particular food and unavailability of food.
1. Only statement (2) is correct.
2. Only statement (1) is correct.
3. Both statements are correct.
4. Both statements are incorrect
How many categories of species, IUCN Red List has?
1. 9 2. 12
3. 8 4. 7
Initially, how many biodiversity hot spots were identified globally?
1. 34 2. 25
3. 20 4. 30
National Forest Policy __A__ of India has recommended __B__ forest cover for the plains and __C__ for the hills. Fill the blanks with suitable A, B and C
A B C
1. 1988 33% 67%
2. 1988 30% 19.4%
3. 1989 30% 65%
4. 1987 19.4% 30%
‘Chipko Movement’ was originated in Himalayan region. At present this region is a part of ______
1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Uttarakhand
3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Jammu and Kashmir
In logistic growth pattern, the influence of environmental resistances over the biotic potential is denoted by
1. r N 2.
3. (b-d)×N 4. None
Read the statements given below and choose the correct option
Statement I: Decomposition is purely an anaerobic process.
Statement II: The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.
1. Only statement I is correct.
2. Only statement I is incorrect.
3. Both statements I and II are correct.
4. Both statements I and II are incorrect
Biomagnification of DDT in aquatic food chain leads to high concentration of DDT in fish eating birds. It results in
(a) Disturbance in calcium metabolism in birds.
(b) Thinning of egg shell and their premature breaking.
(c) Decline in bird population
1. (a) and (b) only 2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only 4. All (a), (b) and (c)
Which one is not a cause of biodiversity loss?
1. Alien species invasion.
2. Co-extinction.
3. Endemism.
4. Overexploitation
Select the odd one with respect to strategies of biodiversity conservation
1. Biosphere reserves.
2. Sacred groves.
3. National parks.
4. Zoological parks.
Match the columns and select the correct option:
|
Column-I |
|
Column-II |
A |
Earth Summit |
(i) |
Johannesburg |
B |
World summit on sustainable development |
(ii) |
Broadly utilitarian |
C |
Biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services |
(iii) |
Narrowly utilitarian |
D |
Direct economic benefits from nature |
(iv) |
Rio de Janerio |
1. A – (iv), B– (i), C– (ii), D– (iii)
2. A – (i), B– (iv), C– (iii), D– (ii)
3. A – (iv), B– (i), C– (iii), D– (ii)
4. A – (i), B– (iv), C– (ii), D– (iii)
What is the percentage of PAR (Photosynthetically active radiation) in incident solar radiation?
1. 50% 2. > 50%
3. 0% 4. < 50%
Which statement is incorrect for photochemical smog?
1. It is mainly , PAN and .
2. It is called brown air and grey air.
3. It causes blue-baby syndrome.
4. It is formed in traffic congested cities where warm condition and intense solar radiations are present.
Which one is not a key criterion for determining a hotspot?
1. Very high levels of species richness.
2. High degree of those species which are confined to that region and not found anywhere else.
3. Degree of threat, which is measured in terms of habitat loss.
4. No habitat loss.
The famous double helix model of DNA was proposed by Watson and Crick in ____ and they shared Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine in ________ for their effort.
1. 1951, 1971
2. 1943, 1963
3. 1953, 1962
4. 1969, 1972
In Mendel’s experiments, the contrasting traits did not show any blending in:
1. stage
2. stage
3. Both and stages
4. The statement is false as blending was seen at all stages
What could be the genotype of a garden pea plant that expresses tall trait of height?
1. TD
2. Tt
3. Td
4. tt
A genetic cross between homozygous individuals but with different alleles for a single gene of interest is called as:
1. A reciprocal cross
2. Monohybrid cross
3. Dihybrid cross
4. Test cross
A graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross is called as:
1. Forked line diagram
2. Punnett square
3. Pedigree chart
4. Idiogram
The F2 genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is:
1. 1 : 1
2. 3 : 1
3. 1 : 2 : 1
3. 9 : 7
In a test cross, the plant expressing the dominant phenotype is crossed with the plant:
1. Which is heterozygous dominant
2. Which is heterozygous recessive
3. Which is homozygous recessive
4. Which is homozygous dominant
Which of the following is not true for the Law of Dominance given by Mendel?
1. Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
2. Factors occur in pairs.
3. In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates the other.
4. The alleles show blending at the time of fertilization
What is the F2 genotypic ratio in cases of incomplete dominance?
1. 1 : 1
2. 3 : 1
3. 1 : 2 : 1
4. 1 : 1
Blood group antigens are:
1. Carbohydrates present in plasma
2. Carbohydrates present on the surface of RBCs
3. Plasma proteins
4. Proteins present on the surface of RBCs
What can be the blood groups of progeny whose father and mother are of AB and O blood group respectively?
1. A and B only
2. AB only
3. All except O
4. A, B, AB and O
“Chromosomes, which are seen in all dividing cells and pass from one generation to the next, are the basis for all genetic inheritance”.
This statement is credited to:
1. Watson and Crick
2. Hershey and Chase
3. Sutton and Boveri
4. Meselson and Stahl
T. H. Morgan worked on the fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster . Which of the following is not an advantage of this fly?
1. They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory.
2. They complete their life cycle in about two years, and a single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies.
3. There was a clear differentiation of the sexes – the male and female flies are easily distinguishable.
4. It has many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscopes.
When the two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome:
1. The proportion of parental gene combinations was much higher than the non-parental type.
2. The proportion of parental gene combinations was much lesser than the non-parental type.
3. The proportion of parental gene combinations was equal to the non-parental type.
4. Only recombinants are formed.
During his observation of spermatogenesis in few insects, Henking found that a nuclear structure was received by 50 % of the sperms. He called this structure as:
1. X – body
2. Y – body
3. X – chromosome
4. Y – chromosome
In birds, the mechanism of sex determination is:
1. XX – XY; male heterogamety
2. XX – XY; female heterogamety
3. XX – XO; male heterogamety
4. ZZ – ZW; male heterogamety
It is unfortunate that in our society women are blamed for producing female children and have been ostracised and ill-treated because:
1. | The sex is determined by the type of sperm fertilizing the egg |
2. | The sex is determined by the type of egg fertilizing the sperm |
3. | The sex is determined by the hormones produced by the fetus |
4. | The sex is determined by the God’s will |
The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a number of haemophilic descendants as she was:
1. Affected by the disease
2. Carrier for the disease
3. Did not carry the allele for hemopihilia
4. Was not a queen
Which of the following amino acid substitution in the beta chain of the haemoglobin molecule leads to the development of sickle cell anaemia?
1. Arginine by tyrosine 2. Tyrosine by phenylalanine
3. Valine by Glutamic acid 4. Glutamic acid by Valine
An individual affected with Turner’s Syndrome:
I. Is a female
II. Has 45 chromosomes
III. Has rudimentary ovaries
Of the above statements, the correct statements are:
1. Only I and II 2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III
Nucleic acids are polymers of:
1. Nucleosides 2. Nucleotides
3. Amino acids 4. Polypeptides
The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is made of:
1. Sugar and nitrogenous bases
2. Phosphate and nitrogenous bases
3. Sugar and phosphate
4. Sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous bases
The distance between a base pair in the DNA double helix is approximately:
1. 2.0 nm
2. 0.34 nm
3. 20 nm
4. 3.4 nm
Histones are:
1. Positively charged and basic amino acids
2. Negatively charged and basic proteins
3. Positively charged and acidic proteins
4. Not found in bacteria
Consider the following statements:
I. The largest known human gene is dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
II. Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
III. There are about 2.4 million locations where single base DNA differences occur in humans.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I. RNA is the genetic material of the QB bacteriophage.
II. DNA chemically is less reactive and more stable than RNA.
III. Viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life span mutate & evolve slowly.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I. Inheritance of a character is affected by promoter and regulatory sequences of a structural gene.
II.The split-gene arrangement represents an ancient feature of the genome.
III.The process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA world.
Which of the above statements are true?
1.I and II only
2.I and III only
3.II and III only
4.I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I. All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with coding strand.
II. It is the presence of a promoter in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands.
III. Exons are said to be sequences that do not appear in mature or processed RNA.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2.I and III only
3. II and III only
4.I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I. | Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates act as substrates as well as provide energy for polymerization reaction during DNA replication. |
II. | The replication of DNA is both semiconservative and semi-discontinuous |
III. | In bacterial DNA replication, there are multiple ori and replication fork moving bi-directionally |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I. The unequivocal proof of DNA being the genetic material was given by Hershey and Chase.
II. Meselson and Stahl proposed that DNA replication is semi-conservative.
III. Beadle and Tatum proposed the one - gene - one - enzyme hypothesis.
Which of the above statements are true?
1.I and II only
2.I and III only
3.II and III only
4.I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I.The VNTRs belong to a class of satellite DNA called as mini-satellite.
II. Southern blotting is the transfer of DNA fragments to a filter cellulose membrane.
III. VNTRs are used in DNA fingerprinting as they do not show any variations and are not inherite4.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2.I and III only
3.II and III only
4.I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I. The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing proteins is the ribosome.
II.The ribosome also acts as a catalyst for the formation of peptide bond.
III.The UTRs (untranslated regions) in an mRNA are not required for translation.
Which of the above statements are true?
1.I and II only
2.I and III only
3. II and III only
4.I, II, and III
Which of the following cannot be inferred from the information given in the following diagram:
1. The DNA from the crime scene matches individual B
2. VNTRs are hypervariable
3. The larger fragments remain near the point on introduction in the gel electrophoresis
4. The smaller chromosomes in the human genome have smaller repeats of VNTR
Consider the following diagram showing the working of the lac operon in E.coli in the presence of inducer and choose the correct statement from the ones given below:
1. A is the inducer and can be either lactose or cAMP
2. B is the enzyme that will metabolize glucose, the preferred energy source
3. Some amount of C will be present in the cell even if lactose is absent
4. The absence of D will stop lactose from entering the cell
Study the diagram given below and choose the correct information that can be deduced:
1. The core RNA polymerase is capable of catalyzing elongation only
2. Sigma factor and Rho factor are needed for termination of transcription
3. DNA Helicase opens the strand of the DNA
4. Both strands of DNA are transcribed by the same RNA polymerase
Consider the transcription unit given in the following diagram and choose the correct statements:
I. The promoter on the promoter is situated upstream and 5’ to the structural gene.
II. It is the presence of the structural gene that defines the template strand.
III. The coding strand does not code for anything and is displaced during transcription
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Study the results of the Meselson and Stahl experiment. What theoretically possible mode of DNA replication can be excluded after one round of replication?
1. Conservative
2. Semiconservative
3. Disruptive
4. Both 1 and 3
Which histone is represented by the letter X in the given diagram?
1. H 1
2. H 2 A
3. H 2 B
4. H 3
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and chose your answer from the codes given below:
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
|
(antibiotic) |
|
(effect) |
I. |
Tetracycline |
A |
inhibits binding of amino acyl tRNA to ribosome |
II. |
Streptomycin |
B |
inhibits initiation of translation |
III. |
Chloramphenicol |
C |
inhibits peptidyl transferase |
IV. |
Erythromycin |
D |
inhibits translocation of mRNA along ribosome |
Codes:
I II III IV
1. A B C D
2. B A D C
3. B A C D
4. A B D C
In the genetic code, the codon UUC codes for:
Sickle cell anemia is caused by:
1. Chromosomal aberration
2. Point mutation
3. Non disjunction event
4. An arthropod vector
Insertion or deletion of how many bases will not cause a frame shift mutation?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) Any number
Which of the following is also called as the soluble RNA?
(1) tRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) mRNA
(4) siRNA
The structure of ribosome is made of:
(1) rRNA and Proteins
(2) rRNA and Polysaccharides
(3) mRNA, rRNA and tRNA
(4) RNA, DNA and Proteins
The lac Y gene codes for permease which increases the permeability of the cell to:
(1) Glucose
(2) Galactose
(3) cAMP
(4) β-galactosides
Which conformational form of 2-Fluoro ethanol is most stable ?
1. Anti
2. Partially eclipsed
3. Full eclipsed
4. Gauche
Indicate whether each of the following pairs are identical, or enantiomers and diastereomers ?
(I)
(II)
(III)
I II III
1. enantiomers diastereomers enantiomers
2. identical enantiomers enantiomers
3. enantiomers diastereomers identical
4. enantiomers identical identical
How many optical isomers are possible in this compound ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following molecule have (2R, 3-Z) configuration ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which is an example of ipso substitution ?
1. Halogenation of Benzene
2. Formation of 2, 4, 6- tribromophenol from salicylic acid
3. Friedal craft alkylation
4. All of these
Which has highest heat of combustion ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which has highest heat of hydrogenation ?
1. Cis-but-2-ene
2. 2-Methyl propene
3. Trans-but-2-ene
4. all have same heat of hydrogenation
Which order for basic character of amine is correct for following compounds ?
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)
1. C > A > B > E > D
2. C > B > A > E > D
3. C > A > B > D > E
4. C > B > A > D > E
Which of the following is the most stable carbocation
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the folloiwng compounds
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
The order of acidity is
1. III > IV > I > II
2. I > IV > III > II
3. II > I > III > IV
4. IV > III > I > II
Match the following reactions with the corresponding reaction intermediates
List I List II
A. Transition state
B. Carbocation
C. Carbanion
D. Free radical
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
1. C B A D
2. C D A A
3. B D C A
4. C D A B
In the above compound, arrange the nitrogen according to their decreasing basic strength
1. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
2. 4 > 3 > 1 > 2
3. 2 > 4 > 1 > 3
4. 3 > 4 > 1 > 2
What is major product of following reaction ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of these is the correct fischer projection for the wedge and dash formula given below ?
1.
2.
3.
4. All of these
Trans-2-butene on bromination using gives which dibromoderivative ?
1. (R), (R)-2, 3-dibromobutane
2. (S), (S)-2, 3-dibromobutane
3. Racemic -2, 3-dibromobutane
4. Meso-2, 3-dibromobutane
(B) is most likely
1. 2-ethyl-2-methyl butane
2. 3, 3-dimethyl pentane
3. 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
4. 2, 4-dimethyl pentane
Gas is same as
1. Gas A + Gas B
2. Only Gas B
3. Gas B + Gas C
4. Only Gas A
Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable ?
1. 2.
3. 4.
Neopentyl alcohol on treatment with HBr gives
1. neopentyl bromide
2. 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
3. 2-methyl-2-butane
4. 2-methyl 1-butene
On warming with and aqueous iodoform and sodium succinate are formed. The formula of the compound should be
1.
2.
3.
4. none of these
The is :
1. 2-acetoxybenzoic acid
2. methyl salicylate
3. methyl benzoate
4. 2-methoxy benzoic acid
An amide on hydrolysis gives an amine and an acid . gives carbylamine reaction where as reduces Tollen's reagent. is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Identify the product (c) in the series:
1.
2.
3.
4.
When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous sodium bicarbonate, is liberated. The of comes from
1. carboxylic acid group
2. methylene group
3. bicarbonate
4. methyl group
Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following statements are true about ?
1. It is stronger acid than
2. It reduces Tollen's reagent
3. It gives and on heating conc.
4. all of these
Which carboxylic acid is least reactive towards decarboxylation on heating ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
What is ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The correct order of increasing reactivity towards acid hydrolysis is
1. A < B < C
2. C < A < B
3. A < C < B
4. B < A < C
The product is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
How many cyclic isomers of are possible ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Lassaigne's extract is boiled with dilute before testing for halogens because
1. Silver halides are soluble in
2. and are decomposed by
3. and are oxidised by
4. is soluble in
In which of the following homolytic bond fission takes place
1. Alkaline hydrolysis of ethyl chloride
2. Addition of HBr to double bond
3. Photochlorination of methane
4. Nitration of benzene
The correct order of basic nature of the following compounds is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
1. B > A > C > D
2. A > C > B > D
3. C > A > B > D
4. A > B > C > D
Which of the following structures correspond to the product expected, when excess of reacts with in presence of anhydrous ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the reaction sequence :
Identify [Z] in the above reaction.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
If 3-hexanone is reacted with followed by hydrolysis with , the product will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which is the non reducing sugar ?
1. Glucose
2. Fructose
3. Maltose
4. Sucrose
When glycerol is oxidised with bismuth nitrate then the product formed is
1. Glyceraldehyde
2. Dihydroxy acetone
3. Glyceric acid
4. Meso oxalic acid
The end product in the following sequence of chemical reaction is
1. acetaldehyde oxime
2. formaldehyde oxime
3. methyl nitrate
4. acetoxime
Alkyl isocyanide is hydrolysed in
1. Acidic medium
2. Alkaline medium
3. Acidic as well as alkaline medium
4. Neither acidic nor alkaline medium
Number of Chiral carbon atoms in glucose is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following is used to make non stick cookware ?
1. PVC
2. Polystyrene
3. Polyethylene
4. PTFE
The speed of sound in hydrogen is v; in a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen as 5:1 by volumes and same temperature the speed of sound will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Wave equations of two particles are
,
then the particles are :
1. Moving in opposite directions
2. Having a phase difference of
3. Having a phase difference of
4. In phase
Two waves 50 cm and 51 cm long produce 12 beats per second the velocity of sound is :
1. 306 m/s
2. 330 m/s
3. 340 m/s
4. 360 m/s
A stretched string of length l fixed at both ends can sustain stationary waves of wavelength given by
1.
2.
3.
4.
(n is a whole number)
Organ pipe closed at one end viberating in its third harmonic and another pipe open at both ends vibrating in its fourth harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of to that of is :
1. 8/3
2. 3/8
3. 1/2
4. 1/3
Two wave trains, with intensities I and 2I respectively arrive and superpose at a point P in opposite phases. The amplitude of the superposed wave at P at that instant will be proportional to,
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a resonance tube, the first resonance with a tuning fork occurs at 16 cm and second at 49 cm. If the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, the frequency of tuning fork is :
1. 500
2. 300
3. 330
4. 165
50 tuning forks are arranged in increasing order of their frequencies such that each gives 4 beats/sec with its previous tuning fork. If the frequency of the last fork is an octave of the first, then the frequency of the tuning fork is :
1. 200 Hz
2. 204 Hz
3. 196 Hz
4. None of these
A car is moving towards a high cliff. The driver sounds a horn of frequency . The reflected sound heard by the driver has frequency . If v is the velocity of sound, then the velocity of the car, in the same velocity units, will be :
1.
2. v/3
3. v/4
4. v/2
A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q are at distances of 2 m and 3 m respectively from the source. The ratio of the intensities of the waves at P and Q is:-
1. 3 : 2
2. 2 : 3
3. 9 : 4
4. 4 : 9
Two sound waves are represented by the following equations :
and
Then the ratio of their amplitudes is given by:
1. 1 : 1
2. 1 : 2
3. 2 : 1
4. 2 : 5
The frequencies of sources A and B as shown in the figure are the same. The nature of interference at points P, Q and R will be, if and the two sources are in the same phase :
1. Constructive at P. destructive at Q and R
2. Constructive at P and R destructive at Q
3. Constructive at P and Q destructive at R
4. Constructive at R. destructive at P and Q
Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to the occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be :
1. 0.02
2. 0.03
3. 0.04
4. 0.01
A train is moving at a speed of 220 m/s towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as an echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is (speed of sound in air is 330 m/s)
1. 3500 Hz
2. 4000 Hz
3. 5000 Hz
4. 3000 Hz
When a string is divide into three segments of length the fundamental frequencies of these three segments are and respectively. The original fundamental frequency of the string is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two sources of sound placed close to each other are emitting progressive waves given by . An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear
1. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning
2. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning
3. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning
4. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning
The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04 kg is given by
The tension in the string is
1. 4.0 N
2. 12.5 N
3. 0.5 N
4. 6.25 N
The length of elastic string, obeying Hooke's law is metres when the tension is 4N, and metres when the tension is 5N. The length in metres when the tension is 0 N will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If are the Young's moduli of the materials, then-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A steel wire of uniform cross-sectional area is heated up to C and is stretched by clamping its two ends rigidly. The change in tension when the temperature falls from is given by-
1. 88 N
2. 5 N
3.
4.
A metallic rod of young's modulus undergoes a strain of 0.05%. The energy stored per unit volume of the rod will be-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The following four wires (length \(L\) and diameter \(D\)) are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?
1. | \(L=50\) cm, \(D=0.5\) mm |
2. | \(L=100\) cm, \(D=1\) mm |
3. | \(L=200\) cm, \(D=2\) mm |
4. | \(L=300\) cm, \(D=0.5\) mm |
A cylindrical vessel filled with water is released on an inclined surface of an angle as shown in the figure. The friction coefficient of the surface with the vessel is . Then the constant angle made by the surface of the water with the incline will be-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A large tank is filled with two immiscible liquids of densities and as shown in figure. A small hole is made at the bottom of tank from which liquid of density is start flowing out. Bernoulli's equation can be applied between points :
1. A and C
2. A and B
3. B and C
4. A, B and C
The shape of the meniscus formed by two liquids when capillaries are dipped into them are shown. In I it is hemispherical whereas in II it is flat. Pick the correct statement regarding the contact angle formed by the liquids in both situations-
1. It is in I and in II
2. It is in I and in II
3. It is in I and in II
4. It is greater than in I and equal to in II
For a fluid which is flowing steadily, the level in the vertical tubes is best represented by-
1.
2.
3.
4.
If the Reynolds number of water flowing in a pipe in CGS units is 1000, then the Reynolds number of water in SI units will be :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative density 0.72. If the relative density of silver is 10, then tension in the string will be [take g=10] :
1. 37.12 N
2. 42 N
3. 73 N
4. 21 N
A block of iron is kept at the bottom of a bucket full of water at . The water exerts a buoyant force on the block. If the temperature of the water is increased by the temperature of the iron block also increases by . The buoyant force on the block by water :
1. will increase
2. will decrease
3. will not change
4. many decrease or increase depending on the values of their coefficient of expansion
A rectangular vessel when full of water takes 10 minutes to be emptied through an orifice in its bottom. How much time will it take to be emptied when half filled with water ?
1. 9 minutes
2. 7 minutes
3. 5 minutes
4. 3 minutes
The coefficient of viscosity \(\eta \) of a liquid is defined as the tangential force on a layer in that liquid per unit area per unit velocity gradient across it. Then a sphere of radius \(a,\) moving through it under viscous force \(F\) attains a constant velocity \(v\) given by: (where \(K\) is a numerical constant)
1. \(KFa\eta\)
2. \(\frac{KF\eta }{a}\)
3. \(\frac{KF}{a \eta }\)
4. \(\frac{Ka\eta }{F}\)
Consider the following statements :
(i) Young's modulus is numerically equal to the stress which will double the length of a wire.
(ii) The viscosity of gases is greater than that of liquids.
(iii) The surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of insoluble contamination.
The number of statements that are true is -
1. one
2. two
3. three
4. zero
A space 2.5 cm wide between two large plane surfaces is filled with oil. The force required to drag a very thin plate of the area just midway the surfaces at a speed of 0.5 m/sec is 1N. The coefficient of viscosity in kg- is-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A tank is filled upto a height 2H with a liquid and is placed on a platform of height H from the ground. The distance x from the ground where a small hole is punched to get the maximum range R is:
1. H
2. 1.25 H
3. 1.5 H
4. 2 H
A cubical block of side 'a' and density '' slides over a fixed inclined plane with constant velocity 'v' There is a thin film of viscous fluid of thickness 't' between the plane and the block. Then the coefficient of viscosity of the thin film will be-
1.
2.
3.
4. None of these
A raindrop of radius r has a terminal velocity v m/s in air. The viscosity of air is poise. The viscous force on it is F. If the radius of the drop be 2r and the drop falls with terminal velocity in the same air, the viscous force on it will be:
1. F
2. F/2
3. 4F
4. 8F
An open tank 10m long and 2m deep is filled up to 1.5 height of oil of specific gravity 0.82. The tank is uniformly accelerated along its length from rest to a speed of 20 m/sec horizontally. The shortest time in which the speed may be attained without spilling any oil is [g=10m/]
1. 20 sec
2. 18 sec
3. 10 sec
4. 5 sec
The figure shows a semi-cylindrical massless gate pivoted at the point O holding a stationary liquid of density . A horizontal force F is applied at its lowest position to keep it stationary. The magnitude of the force is :
1.
2.
3.
4. none of these
A capillary tube of radius \(0.20\) mm is dipped vertically in the water. The height of the water column raised in the tube will be:
(Surface tension of water\(=0.075\) N/m and density of water\(=1000\) kg/m3. Take \(g=10\) m/s2 and contact angle \(0^\circ.\))
1. \(7.5\) cm
2. \(6\) cm
3. \(5\) cm
4. \(3\) cm
To break a wire, a force of is required. If the density of the material is , then the length of the wire which will break by its own weight will be:
1. 34 m
2. 30 m
3. 300 m
4. 3 m
The diameter of a brass rod is 4 mm and Young's modulus of brass is . The force required to stretch it by 0.1% of its length is :
1. 360 N
2. 36N
3.
4.
The Young's modulus of a wire of length L and radius r is Y N/. If the length and radius are reduced to L/2 and r/2, then its Young's modulus will be :
1. Y/2
2. Y
3. 2 Y
4. 4 Y
The graph is drawn between the applied force F and the strain (x) for a thin uniform wire. The wire behaves as a liquid in the part :
1. ab
2. bc
3. cd
4. oa
An Indian rubber cord L meter long and of the area of cross-section 'a' is suspended vertically. The density of rubber is D kg / and Young's modulus of rubber is E newton/ . If the rubber extends by l meter under its own weight, then extension l is:
1.
2.
3.
4. L
A force F is needed to break a copper wire having radius R. The force needed to break a copper wire of radius 2 R will be :
1. F/2
2. 2 F
3. 4 F
4. F/4