ALTIUS - Unit Test # 2 (OLD NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

In a dihybrid cross AaBb X AaBb, the ratio of progeny with the genotypes AaBb: Aabb: AAbb: aabb is expected to be:

1.	1: 1: 1: 1	2.	2: 1: 1: 2
3.	4: 2: 1: 1	4.	9: 3: 3: 1

2.

The growth of pollen tubes in angiosperms is an example of:

1.	Tactic movement	2.	Nastic movement
3.	Autonomous movement	4.	Tropic movement

3.

Consider the following statements:
I. Reproduction is a seasonal event for most animals.
II. Seasonal availability of resources determines the time of reproduction.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. Only I is correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

4.

In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, embryos develop directly from:
1. Nucellus or integument
2. Zygote
3. Synergids of antipodals of embryo sac
4. Accessory embryo sac in the ovule

5.

In organic evolution what is it that actually evolves?

1.	individual	2.	family
3.	population	4.	species

6.

Packaging of DNA ensures:

1.	Very long molecules of DNA can be packed into a small space.
2.	Information within DNA is made available to drive cellular functions.
3.	Information within DNA is modified from generation to generation.
4.	All genes are transcribed.

7.

Mendel was able to propose laws of genetics mainly because:

1.	He knew about the correct sequence of DNA.
2.	Mendel carefully established true breeding lines and used them in hybridization experiments carried out over multiple generations.
3.	Mendel's use of peas as a model organism and his experience with plant breeding in his father's orchard.
4.	He had analyzed the results of experiments of a large number of scientists before him.

8. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
1. Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
2. Egg cell and antipodal cells
3. Nucellus and antipodal cells
4. Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus

9.

The process of RNA splicing shows the dominance of:

1.	DNA world	2.	RNA world
3.	Protein world	4.	Microbial world

10.

In case of incomplete dominance, the F₁ progeny of a monohybrid cross resembles:

1.	Either of the parents	2.	The male parent
3.	Neither of the parents	4.	Both parents

11.

Transmission tissue is a characteristic feature of:

1.	Solid style	2.	Dry stigma
3.	Wet stigma	4.	Hollow style

12.

Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene that has two alleles B and b. A heterozygote is expected to produce:
1. Large-sized seeds with a round shape
2. Intermediate-sized seeds with wrinkled shape
3. Intermediate-sized seeds with a round shape
4. Small-sized seeds with a round shape

13.

If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of N15/N15: N15/N14: N14/N14 containing DNA in the fourth generation would be:

1.	1:1:0	2.	1:4:0
3.	0:1:3	4.	0:1:7

14.

What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of aleurone layer in plant species that have 8 chromosomes in their synergids?

1.	8	2.	16
3.	24	4.	32

15. Identify the incorrect statement regarding angiosperms:

1.	Microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs.
2.	Microspores develop into pollen grains.
3.	Nucellus is the female gametophyte.
4.	The basal bulged part of the pistil is the ovary.

16.

Statement I:	Cucurbits and Coconuts are dioecious plants.
Statement II:	Papaya and date palms are monoecious plants.

1.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

17. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of:

1.	egg	2.	synergid
3.	zygote	4.	suspensor

18. Clear-cut vegetative reproduction and senescent phases are seen in:
I: Annual plants
II: Biennial plants
III: Perennial Plants
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

19.

Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. The seed in grasses is not endospermic.
2. Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit.
3. A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain.
4. A sterile pistil is called a staminode.

20.

Chromatin is:

1.	Complete genetic sequences contained by members of a particular species.
2.	The DNA-protein complex comprising of eukaryotic chromosomes.
3.	Tandem repetitive sequences in the non-coding DNA.
4.	All the transcription units in the genome.

21.

In a culture medium in a laboratory with unlimited nutrients, a bacterium divides every 20 minutes. Beginning with a single bacterium, the number of bacteria at the end of 3 hours would be:

1.	180	2.	440
3.	512	4.	1000

22.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	The use of biocontrol measures totally eliminates the use of chemical pesticides by an organic farmer.
II:	In organic farming, the pests are completely eliminated by biocontrol.

Of the two statements:
1. Both I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

23.

What would be the correct explanation of ‘segregation’ in Mendelian genetics?

1.	Genes are inherited in discrete units from one generation to the next.
2.	Genes can exist in different forms, known as alleles.
3.	Homologous chromosomes separate during gamete formation.
4.	Genes on different chromosomes are inherited independently.

24.

Identify the correct statement regarding the stage of embryogenesis in a eudicot shown in the given diagram:

1.	The shape is called as ‘spherical’ and A represents endosperm.
2.	The shape is called as ‘globular’ and B represents cotyledons.
3.	The shape is called as ‘heart’ and C represents shoot apical meristem.
4.	The shape is called as ‘torpedo’ and D represents root apical meristem.

25.

Identify the statement that will be incorrect for transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes:

1.	RNA polymerase identifies and binds to specific promoter elements in the DNA.
2.	Transcription factors control the binding of RNA polymerase.
3.	RNA polymerase opens a double-stranded DNA to expose the template strand.
4.	RNA polymerase catalyzes RNA synthesis from 3' to 5' of the new strand.

26.

Pollen tablets are available in the market for:

1.	In vitro fertilization	2.	Breeding programmes
3.	Supplementing food	4.	Ex situ conservation

27.

Natural selection operates on the _______ of an individual organism.

1.	survival	2.	environment
3.	genotype	4.	phenotype

28.

Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of:

1.	coconut	2.	castor
3.	pea	4.	maize

29.

Attractants and rewards are required for:

1.	Entomophily	2.	Hydrophily
3.	Cleistogamy	4.	Anemophily

30. In the diagram showing an enlarged view of one microsporangium showing wall layers, cells that possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus are depicted by the letter:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

31.

Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. Hence genetic code is:

1.	Unambiguous	2.	Non-specific
3.	Degenerate	4.	Universal

32.

In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without undergoing meiosis and if one of the megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei would be:
1. Haploid
2. Diploid
3. A few haploid and a few diploid
4. With varying ploidy

33.

Identify A – D in the diagram showing L.S. of an embryo of grass:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Scutellum	Coleoptile	Epiblast	Coleorrhiza
2.	Epiblast	Coleoptile	Scutellum	Coleorrhiza
3.	Scutellum	Coleorrhiza	Epiblast	Coleoptile
4.	Epiblast	Coleorrhiza	Scutellum	Coleoptile

34.

Which of the following anticodons will hybridize with the mRNA codon 5’ – AUG – 3’?

1.	5’ – UAC – 3’	2.	5’ – TAC – 3’
3.	3’ – UAC – 5’	4.	3’ – TAC – 5’

35.

Identify the correct statements regarding the structural genes that are part of an operon:

I:	Tend to be regulated by a common regulatory mechanism.
II:	Are generally involved in the same biochemical pathway.
III:	Are expressed as a polycistronic RNA.

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

Biology I - Section B

36.

Factors known to affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium include all except:

1.	Genetic drift	2.	Mutation
3.	Natural selection	4.	Random mating

37.

Theoretically, what can be the maximum number of alleles a particular gene can have?

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	Any number

38.

In true breeding, the allelic pair of genes are:

1.	Homologous	2.	Linked
3.	Stable	4.	Homozygous

39.

All the following structures in a eukaryotic chromosome are composed of DNA except:

1.	Centromere	2.	Ori
3.	Kinetochore	4.	Telomeres

40.

Eukaryotic ribosomes [apart from those present in mitochondria and chloroplast] are different from prokaryotic ribosomes. The essential difference will be:

1.	Prokaryotic ribosomes consist of two subunits.
2.	Eukaryotic ribosomes consist of both protein and RNA.
3.	Eukaryotic ribosomes are smaller than prokaryotic ribosomes.
4.	None of these.

41.

A dihybrid test cross between two linked loci results in the formation of four different phenotypes in the progeny with the number of each type being 88, 12, 8, and 92. What is the distance between the two loci on the chromosome they are placed upon?
1. 50 map units
2. 25 map unit
3. 20 map units
4. 10 map units

42.

All progenies of a cross between a tall plant and a short plant are intermediate in size between the two parental plants. When these progenies are allowed to self-pollinate, plants produced followed a normal distribution. This most likely is due to:

1.	Overdominance	2.	Epistasis
3.	Polygenic inheritance	4.	Incomplete dominance

43.

The basic difference between the two key enzymes, DNA pol III and DNA ligase, required for DNA replication is:

1.	Only DNA pol III synthesizes phosphoester bonds.
2.	Only DNA ligase synthesizes phosphoester bonds.
3.	DNA pol III can synthesize DNA from 3'-5'.
4.	DNA ligase can use energy from ATP rather than nucleotides.

44.

During DNA replication, a short RNA oligonucleotide is synthesized at initiation sites by:

1.	Primase	2.	DNA Ligase
3.	DNA Gyrase	4.	DNA polymerase

45.

A very low level of expression of the lac operon has to be present in the cell:

1.	When lactose is present	2.	When lactose is absent
3.	When glucose is absent	4.	All the time

46.

The persistence of different genotypes in a population through heterozygote superiority is an example of:

1.	mutation	2.	parallel evolution
3.	polymorphism	4.	adaptive radiation

47.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	Some errors in the genetic code cause only a silent mutation.
II:	The genetic code is degenerate and shows redundancy.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

48.

For the origin of life, which of the following is not a precondition needed to be fulfilled by the protobionts under consideration?

1.	They should have been able to totally isolate themselves from the general environment.
2.	They should have been able to replicate.
3.	They should have acquired a perpetual source of energy.
4.	Their replication should have been subject to error via mutation.

49.

Peptide bond formation between adjacent amino acids during translation is because of:

1.	Peptidyl transferase activity of the large subunit.
2.	Proteins in the large and small subunits of the ribosome.
3.	Ribozyme activity of tRNA.
4.	The charging effect of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase.

50.

The biochemical evidence for the fact that genetic code is a triplet code and read in a contiguous manner is:

1.	Insertions or deletions caused significant defects in the protein structure.
2.	The effect of single insertions could be remedied by single deletions nearby.
3.	Two nearby insertions caused significant defects in protein structure.
4.	Three insertions near each other often led to minor defects in protein structure.

Biology II - Section A

51.

In the ovaries of a girl child, what is basically happening?
1. atresia of primordial follicles
2. completion of meiosis I by primary oocytes
3. formation of antral follicles
4. completion of metaphase II by some oocytes

52.

Penicillin used to be very effective against a large number of bacteria when introduced initially but now many bacteria have developed resistance to it. This is because:

1.	penicillin causes gene mutations, some of which are beneficial.
2.	previously resistant forms survived and reproduced better than non-resistant forms.
3.	the hospital environment inhibits competition among bacteria.
4.	penicillin triggers the synthesis of resistant proteins.

53.

A cut section through the middle piece of sperm will show:
1. the proximal pair of centriole
2. the haploid nucleus
3. microtubules in the 9 + 2 pattern of cilia and flagella
4. absence of mitochondria

54. All fertility treatments in which either eggs or embryos are handled are called:
1. IVF procedures
2. ICSI and SUZI
3. Surrogacy
4. Assisted Reproductive Technologies

55.

The trophoblast cells of the blastocyst form:

1.	Embryo	2.	Umbilical cord
3.	Placenta	4.	Teratoma

56.

A recessive pattern of inheritance can be easily identified in a pedigree analysis if it shows that:

1.	Two affected individuals have three affected children.
2.	Two unaffected individuals have one affected and two unaffected children.
3.	There are four instances where at least one affected parent has an affected child.
4.	Two known heterozygotes have two affected and one unaffected child.

57.

‘Founder effect’ and ‘genetic bottleneck’ are associated with:
1. Stabilizing natural selection
2. Genetic drift
3. Assortative mating
4. Industrial melanism

58.

Aquatic mammals do not contain gill slits because:
1. they are fish and not mammals
2. they only float on the water
3. their adaptation to aquatic life is secondary
4. they respire through their moist skins and lungs

59.

The number of cells in ‘Morula’ varies between:

1.	8 – 16	2.	16 – 32
3.	32 – 48	4.	48 – 64

60.

The government of India legalized Medical Termination of Pregnancy in:

1.	1971	2.	1975
3.	1993	4.	2017

61.

The statutory marriageable age in India for males and females respectively are:

1.	21, 18	2.	18, 21
3.	18, 18	4.	21, 21

62. Identify the correct statement:

1.	The maternal mortality rate in India has increased consistently since independence.
2.	The statutory marriageable age for males in India has recently been increased to 25 years.
3.	Prenatal sex determination and male foeticide are legally allowed in India.
4.	The most important step to control the population increase in India is to motivate smaller families by using various contraceptive methods.

63.

A female with normal color vision but whose father was color-blind marries a color-blind man. What is the probability that their firstborn boy will be color blind?

1.	25%	2.	50%
3.	75%	4.	100%

64.

In males, the secondary sexual characters develop in response to:
1. ICSH
2. FSH
3. testosterone
4. gonadotropin-releasing hormone

65.

In males, FSH:
1. inhibits progesterone.
2. initiates testosterone production.
3. increases protein synthesis.
4. increase spermatogenesis.

66.

Which of the following is not a feature of Down’s Syndrome?

1.	It is caused by a non-disjunction in an autosome.
2.	The affected individual has a trisomy of chromosome 21.
3.	The affected individual has a characteristic simian palmar crease.
4.	The mental development of the affected individual is normal.

67.

The correct sequence of development of embryonic stages in humans is:

1.	Zygote → Blastula → Blastocyst
2.	Zygote → Gastrula → Blastula
3.	Zygote → Blastocyst → Gastrula
4.	Zygote → Gastrula → Blastocyst

68.

The location of ovaries in the human body would most accurately be described as:

1.	upper abdominal cavity	2.	lower thoracic cavity
3.	upper pelvic cavity	4.	retroperitoneal

69. Prevention of implantation can be a mechanism of action of all the following methods of contraception except:

I:	Intra-uterine devices
II:	Oral contraceptive combination pills
III:	Barrier contraceptives

1.	Only III	2.	Only I and II
3.	Only I	4.	Only II

70. MTPs are not allowed in which of the following cases?

1.	Continuation of pregnancy poses a great risk to the life of the mother.
2.	Failure of contraceptive.
3.	Pregnancy resulting from sexual assault.
4.	Aborting a female foetus after pre–natal sex determination.

71.

The nitrogenous bases purines and pyrimidines basically differ in that:

1.	The former is found in RNA while the latter is found in DNA.
2.	The latter is found in RNA while the former is found in DNA.
3.	The former contains a double-ring backbone, while the latter contains a single-ring backbone.
4.	The latter contains a double-ring backbone while the former contains a single-ring backbone.

72.

In the periodic abstinence method of natural contraception, couples avoid or abstain from coitus:
1. at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
2. around the timing of ovulation.
3. during the last days of the menstrual cycle.
4. during the entire menstrual cycle.

73.

In females, estrogen is secreted by:

1.	follicles	2.	corpus luteum
3.	placenta	4.	all of the above

74. Menstrual cycle is not seen in the female:

1.	Monkeys	2.	Apes
3.	Humans	4.	Cows

75.

Pedigree analysis is used for genetic analysis in humans rather than conventional genetic methods because:

I:	Choice matings are not possible.
II:	The number of progeny is limited.

Of the two statements:
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

76.

Sex-linked recessive traits are more common in males of the species than females. This is because:

1.	males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
2.	male hormones such as testosterone often exacerbate the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
3.	female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X.
4.	X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.

77.

3 out of 64 codons are termination codons. These termination codons:
1. recognise a single tRNA
2. are capable of binding to many different tRNAs
3. bind to release factors instead of tRNAs
4. only specify a single amino acid

78.

During oogenesis, the first polar body:
1. is formed before fertilization.
2. is formed after fertilization.
3. develops into the ootid.
4. does not have chromosomes.

79.

A person with sickle cell anemia is:

1.	more prone to malaria.	2.	more prone to typhoid.
3.	less prone to malaria.	4.	less prone to typhoid.

80.

Union of the vas deferens with the duct of the seminal vesicle that opens into the prostatic duct is:

1.	ampulla of vas	2.	ejaculatory duct
3.	urethra	4.	efferent ductules

81.

Identify the hormone that helps in parturition by its action on uterine smooth muscles and also in lactation by its action on myoepithelial cells:

1.	Vasopressin	2.	Oxytocin
3.	Progesterone	4.	Estrogen

82.

Scientists believe that a gas, not present in significant amounts in its free form in the primeval Earth atmosphere, was:

1.	Hydrogen	2.	Ammonia
3.	Oxygen	4.	Methane

83. The age group most vulnerable to getting sexually transmitted infections is:

1.	10 to 15 years	2.	15 to 24 years
3.	35 to 45 years	4.	65 to 72 years

84.

All the following are a result of convergent evolution except:

1.	The eye of an octopus and the eye of a mammal.
2.	Sweet potato and potato.
3.	Flippers of penguins and flippers of dolphins.
4.	Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita.

85.

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect reproductive organs?
1. Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
2. Syphilis and Genital herpes
3. AIDS and Hepatitis B
4. Chlamydiosis and AIDS

Biology II - Section B

86.

Consider the given sexually transmitted infections:
Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Genital herpes, Chlamydiasis, Genital warts, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis – B, HIV
How many of these diseases are caused by bacteria?

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	1

87.

What is the most important feature that enabled reptiles, birds, and mammals to become highly successful on land when compared to amphibians?

1.	Respiration by lungs	2.	Calcareous eggs
3.	Amnion	4.	Scaly skin

88. The smallest units of natural selection and evolution respectively are:
1. Population, Species
2. Individual, Species
3. Family, Population
4. Individual, Population

89.

Which of the following statements about fossil evidence for evolution is correct?

1.	Fossil evidence shows a sudden and complete appearance of modern species without transitional forms.
2.	Fossils of transitional forms, such as Archaeopteryx, demonstrate the evolutionary link between reptiles and birds.
3.	The fossil record is complete and provides evidence for every stage of evolution in all organisms.
4.	Fossils primarily show that extinct species were entirely unrelated to modern species.

90.

In Britain, with the passage of clean air legislation, the frequency of melanic forms of the peppered moth decreased dramatically. This is called :

1.	saltatory evolution	2.	retrograde evolution
3.	reverse evolution	4.	Antievolution

91.

An inducible operon like the ‘lac operon’ will be characterized by:

1.	A repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in absence of any other factor.
2.	A repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in the presence of a corepressor.
3.	An activator protein, which is bound to DNA in absence of any other factor.
4.	An activator protein, which is bound to DNA only in the absence of an inhibitor.

92.

Thecodonts are thought to be the common ancestors to all the following except:

1.	Crocodiles	2.	Dinosaurs
3.	Birds	4.	Mammals

93.

Fitness in Darwinian terms is a measure of:

1.	an organism's adaptability to various habitats.
2.	the number of mates each individual of the population selects.
3.	the relative health of each individual in the population.
4.	the contribution of a genotype to the gene pool of the next generation.

94.

Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows:

1.	a direct relationship	2.	an inverse relationship
3.	a parallel relationship	4.	no relationship

95.

A decrease in the secretion of FSH in males would:

1.	affect the formation of differentiated sperms.
2.	have no effect as males do not have any follicle for FSH to act upon.
3.	lead to the lack of development of secondary sexual characters post-puberty.
4.	cause impotence and hence sterility.

96.

If E.coli was allowed to grow for 80 minutes in Meselson and Stahl experiment, then what would be the proportions of light and hybrid densities of DNA molecules?

1.	1 : 2	2.	1 : 7
3.	1 : 1	4.	0 : 16

97.

Milk ejection or milk letdown is a function of:

1.	progesterone	2.	prolactin
3.	oxytocin	4.	dopamine/PIH

98.

The endometrium is maintained in a healthy condition in the latter half of the pregnancy by:
1. FSH and LH
2. human chorionic gonadotropin
3. Ovarian steroids
4. placental estrogen and progesterone

99.

β Thalassemia is controlled by:

1.	A single gene HBB on chromosome 11.
2.	A single gene HBB on chromosome 16.
3.	Two closely linked genes HBB 1 and HBB 2 on chromosome 11.
4.	Two closely linked genes HBB 1 and HBB 2 on chromosome 16.

100.

The sperms get stored and matured in:
1. seminal vesicles
2. seminiferous tubules
3. vas deferens
4. epididymis

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