ALTIUS - Unit Test # 1 (OLD NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

Dehydration synthesis is not involved in:
1. joining monosaccharides to form a polysaccharide
2. base pairing in a double-stranded DNA
3. linking of fatty acid molecules to glycerol
4. joining of amino acids to form a peptide

2. The plant Strobilanthes kunthiana [Neelakurinji] flowers once in every:

1.	2 years	2.	6 years
3.	12 years	4.	50 years

3.

Perisperm differs from endosperm in:

1.	having no reserved food.
2.	being a diploid tissue.
3.	its formation by fusion of a secondary nucleus with several sperms.
4.	being a haploid tissue.

4.

An example of a seed with endosperm perisperm and caruncle is:

1.	cotton	2.	coffee
3.	lily	4.	castor

5.

Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac-

1.	Persistant synergid	2.	Egg cell
3.	Central cell	4.	Degenerated synergid

6.

The spliceosome is composed of :

1.	RNA and DNA.	2.	Protein and DNA.
3.	RNA and protein.	4.	Lipids and monosaccharides

7.

Which of the following is true for both transcription and DNA replication?

1.	The principle of complementarity governs the processes
2.	Only if the two strands act as a template
3.	Only a segment of both strands is involved
4.	Adenine base pairs with thymine

8.

Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:

1.	microspore	2.	generative cell
3.	vegetative cell	4.	microspore mother cell

9.

In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as a template. Such a DNA is called:

1.	A-DNA	2.	B-DNA
3.	cDNA	4.	rDNA

10. The chromosome number in the meiocyte of Ophioglossum, a fern, is:

1.	23	2.	46
3.	630	4.	1260

11.

What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells?

1.	63	2.	84
3.	21	4.	42

12.

Adventive embryony in citrus is due to:

1.	Nucellus	2.	Integuments
3.	Zygotic embryo	4.	Fertilized egg

13.

The first genetic map of a chromosome was constructed by:

1.	T H Morgan	2.	Alfred Sturtevant
3.	Hargobind Khorana	4.	Marshall Nirenberg

14.

A deoxyribonucleotide contains:
I. Nitrogenous base.
II. Deoxyribose sugar.
III. Phosphate group.

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

15.

Male gametophyte with the least number of cells is present in:

1.	Pteris	2.	Funaria
3.	Lilium	4.	Pinus

16.

A plant, on repeated self-pollination, preserves the trait expressed for many generations. Such a plant is said to be:

1.	Panmictic	2.	Homologous
3.	Apomictic	4.	Pure line

17.

The first genetic code of life was based on:

1.	DNA	2.	RNA
3.	Proteins	4.	Lipids

18.

Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are:

1.	anthers	2.	styles
3.	ovaries	4.	hairs

19.

The recombination frequency between genes A and B is 9 percent, between A and C is 17 percent, and between B and C is 26 percent. What is the sequence of genes on the chromosome?

1.	ABC
2.	ACB
3.	BAC
4.	Can't be determined from the given information

20.

Even in the absence of pollinating agents, seed-setting is assured in:

1.	Commelina	2.	Zostera
3.	Salvia	4.	Fig

21.

Lagging strand is replicated in a discontinuous manner in small Okazaki fragments because:

1.	DNA polymerase cannot synthesize large stretches of DNA.
2.	DNA polymerase needs to be replaced every 1000-2000 nucleotide.
3.	DNA polymerase requires a free 3' OH group to attach new nucleotides.
4.	Only one DNA strand can be used as the template at a time

22.

Almost all pollens, that are allergens, are from:

1.	Anemophilous species	2.	Hydrophilous species
3.	Ornithophilous species	4.	Entomophilous species

23.

What event during meiosis is most likely to cause a change in the number of chromosomes like trisomies and monosomies in progeny?
1. an independent assortment of chromosomes
2. allele segregation
3. non-disjunction
4. recombination

24. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Asexual reproductive structure in Chlamydomonas	Zoospores
2.	Vegetative propagule in Agave	Bulbil
3.	Monoecious plant	Marchantia
4.	Bisexual animal	Pheretima

25.

The mRNA codon GUG codes for:

1.	Valine	2.	Glutamic acid
3.	Tryptophan	4.	Formylated methionine

26.

The analysis of viral nucleic acid reveals that it contains adenine 21%, guanine 31%, cytosine 23%, and some unexpected base 19%. What will be true for this virus?
I. It probably uses RNA as its genetic material.
II. The genetic material of this virus is probably single-stranded.
III. Base pairing rules in this virus probably include adenine: cytosine.

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

27.

Charging of tRNA molecules is catalyzed by the enzyme:

1.	Polynucleotide phosphorylase	2.	RNA polymerase III
3.	Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase	4.	Peptidyl transferase

28.

The best evidence for tracing phylogeny amongst a group of organisms will be similarities in their:

1.	anatomy	2.	DNA and Proteins
3.	development	4.	courtship behavior

29.

Match the scientists listed under column ‘I’ with ideas listed in column ‘II’.

	Column I		Column II
1.	Darwin	i.	abiogenesis
2.	Oparin	ii.	use and disuse of organs
3.	Lamarck	iii.	continental drift theory
4.	Wagner	iv.	evolution by natural selection

1.	A-i; B-iv; C-ii; D-iii	2.	A-iv; B-i; C-ii; D-iii
3.	A-ii; B-iv; C-iii; D-i	4.	A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i

30.

Which of the following would be diploid in an angiosperm?
1. Cells of the pollen tetrad
2. Tube nucleus of the pollen tube
3. Functional megaspore
4. Megaspore mother cell

31.

The type of natural selection where more individuals acquire value other than the mean character value is known as:

1.	Stabilizing	2.	Directional
3.	Disruptive	4.	Saltation

32.

Winged pollen grains are present in:

1.	Mustard	2.	Cycas
3.	Mango	4.	Pinus

33.

“Chromosomes, which are seen in all dividing cells and pass from one generation to the next, are the basis for all genetic inheritance”.
This statement is credited to:

1.	Watson and Crick	2.	Hershey and Chase
3.	Sutton and Boveri	4.	Meselson and Stahl

34.

The arrangement of nuclei in a normal dicot embryo sac is:

1.	3 + 3 +2	2.	2 + 4 + 2
3.	3 + 2 + 3	4.	3 + 3 + 3

35.

A mutation leading to the formation of a nonfunctional sigma subunit of RNA polymerase holoenzyme in prokaryotes will result in bacteria being unable to:
1. assemble RNA polymerase onto the DNA strand.
2. identify and tightly bind promoter elements.
3. convert a closed complex to an open complex.
4. synthesize RNA once an open complex is formed.

Biology I - Section B

36.

The physical basis of independent assortment is explained by which of the following stages of meiosis?

1.	Metaphase I	2.	Anaphase I
3.	Metaphase II	4.	Anaphase II

37.

The term that describes ‘differential reproduction’ in Darwinian terms will be:

1.	Evolution	2.	Natural selection
3.	Struggle for existence	4.	Survival of the fittest

38.

Hargobind Khorana was awarded the noble prize for:
1. discovering DNA
2. discovering RNA
3. discovering DNA polymerase
4. chemical synthesis of a gene

39.

If there are two forms of a specific enzyme in a population, and if the relative frequencies of the individuals possessing each form of the enzyme changes, then certainly there is:

1.	mutation	2.	genetic drift
3.	gene migration	4.	evolution

40.

The plant parts which consist of two generations, one within the other, are:
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

1.	(a), (b), and (c)	2.	(c) and (d)
3.	(a) and (d)	4.	(a) only

41.

What must be true for a transfer RNA molecule?
1. It must have a base pair sequence identical to the codon in the mRNA.
2. It must be attached to a particular amino acid.
3. It must bind to the protein to determine the primary sequence.
4. It must be destroyed immediately after it brings an amino acid to the ribosome.

42.

In the F₂ generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross, the number of phenotypes and genotypes are:
1. phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 16
2. phenotypes - 9; genotypes - 4
3. phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 8
4. phenotypes - 4; genotypes – 9

43.

Consider the two statements:
I. A shorter style is evolutionarily better than long style.
II. All pollen tubes must be able to reach the embryo sac easily to enhance reproductive success.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect

44.

The fact that a purine base always pairs through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base in the DNA double helix leads to:
1. the antiparallel nature
2. the semiconservative nature
3. uniform width throughout DNA
4. uniform length in all DNA

45.

The inheritance of genes finds a parallel with the behavior of chromosomes, especially during cell division for gamete formation. Such parallels include:
I. they are both present in pairs in all diploid cells and one of the pairs is present in the gamete
II. they both undergo segregation during meiosis.
III. their copy numbers in the cell decrease after meiosis, and increase during fertilization.
IV. they are both copied during the S phase of the cell cycle.

1.	I, II and III only	2.	I, II and IV only
3.	II, III and IV only	4.	I, II, III and IV

46.

All the following are required for accurate transcription except:
1. Regulatory information within the DNA.
2. Proteins which bind to the DNA.
3. Proteins that copy the information from the DNA.
4. Ori.

47.

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	If the pituitary gland is removed, spermatogenesis can still be initiated by follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone.
Reason (R):	In contrast to FSH, LH appears to have little role in spermatogenesis outside of inducing gonadal testosterone production.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

48.

The untranslated regions [UTR] in mRNA:
1. are present at both 5’ and 3’ ends only in prokaryotes
2. are present at both 5’ and 3’ ends only in eukaryotes
3. are present at only 5’ end both in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
4. are present at both 5’ and 3’ ends in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

49.

Two individual plants heterozygous at two unlinked loci are crossed. What proportion of progeny is expected to be homozygous recessive at least at one of the loci?

1.	1/16	2.	3/4
3.	9/16	4.	7/16

50.

When compared with the maternal contribution to the genetic constitution of the embryo, the maternal contribution to the endosperm in angiosperms is:

1.	Same	2.	Double
3.	Three times	4.	Four times

Biology II - Section A

51.

Coelocanth called lobefins evolved into the first:

1.	Amphibians	2.	Reptiles
3.	Birds	4.	Mammals

52.

During a menstrual cycle, the part of the female reproductive system that undergoes the greatest changes is the:

1.	Cervix	2.	Uterine endometrium
3.	Uterine perimetrium	4.	Oviducts

53.

What happens to the corpus luteum if fertilization does not take place?
1. It secretes more progesterone.
2. It stops secreting progesterone but continues to secrete estrogen.
3. It degenerates into the corpus albicans.
4. It secretes gonadotropins

54.

The menstrual cycle is seen in the females of all the following except:

1.	Humans	2.	Apes
3.	Dogs	4.	Monkeys

55.

Chose the correct chronological order of the male duct system beginning from the seminiferous tubules:

a. ductus deferens	b. efferent ductule
c. epididymis	d. ejaculatory duct
e. rete testis

1.	b,c,e,d,a	2.	b,e,c,d,a
3.	c,b,d,a,e	4.	e,b,c,a,d

56.

One of the legal methods of birth control is:
1. by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
2. by having coitus at the time of daybreak
3. by premature ejaculation during coitus
4. abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

57.

At the time of the origin of life, the primeval earth's atmosphere most likely did not have significant amounts of:

1.	Free oxygen	2.	Hydrogen
3.	Ammonia	4.	Methane

58.

In the luteal phase, the secretion of progesterone levels results in:

1.	increased vascularization and development of the uterine glands
2.	regeneration of endometrium through proliferation.
3.	sloughing off of the functional layer of the endometrium
4.	increased secretion of LH and FSH by the anterior pituitary

59. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation show great synchrony between the sexes.
Reason (R):	Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation release a large number of gametes into the surrounding medium.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) does not correctly explain(A).
2.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) explains the (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

60.

Which substance can be used as a male contraceptive in the future:

1.	FSH	2.	LH
3.	Testosterone	4.	Progesterone

61.

A chromosomal disorder caused by a primary autosomal non-disjunction is:

1.	Klinefelter's syndrome	2.	Turner's syndrome
3.	Down's syndrome	4.	Conn's syndrome

62.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	STI	Causative agent
1.	Gonorrhoea	Bacteria
2.	Syphilis	Bacteria
3.	HIV	Retrovirus
4.	Trichomoniasis	Fungus

63.

The primary mechanism of action of copper IUDs is that they prevent:

1.	fertilization	2.	ovulation
3.	implantation	4.	insemination

64.

The two strains, R and S, of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae, differ as:

1.	Rough bacteria can evade the immune system of a mouse.
2.	Rough bacteria do not have most genes present in smooth bacteria.
3.	Smooth bacteria do not have most genes present in rough bacteria.
4.	Smooth bacteria are able to synthesize a polysaccharide capsule.

65.

Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as?

1.	Pregnancies with a genetic abnormality
2.	Implantation of an embryo at a site other than the uterus
3.	Implantation of the defective embryo in the uterus
4.	Pregnancies terminated due to the hormonal imbalance

66.

The length of DNA in a typical mammalian cell is approximately:

1.	1.1 meter	2.	1.5 meter
3.	2.2 meter	4.	3.3 meter

67.

Spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans differ in all the following except:
1. The timing of the beginning of the process
2. The number of gametes produced per meiocyte
3. The ploidy of the resultant gametes
4. The amount of cytoplasm in the resultant gametes

68.

Female secondary sexual characteristics develop in response to:

1.	estrogen	2.	progesterone
3.	androgen	4.	luteinizing hormone

69.

To induce uterine contractions for parturition, which of the following hormones can be injected into the female?

1.	hCG	2.	Estrogen
3.	Progesterone	4.	Oxytocin

70.

Surgical interventions like tubectomy and vasectomy block:

1.	Ovulation	2.	Spermatogenesis
3.	Gamete transport	4.	Implantation

71.

Speciation of Darwin finches on Galapagos islands is a prototypical example of:

1.	Adaptive radiation	2.	Saltation
3.	Genetic drift	4.	Industrial melanism

72.

In cases of Phenylketonuria:

1.	The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid tyrosine into phenylalanine.
2.	The affected individual makes an enzyme that converts the amino acid tyrosine into phenylalanine.
3.	The affected individual makes an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine.
4.	The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine.

73.

Members belonging to the same biological species are potentially able to:
1. compete with members of other species only
2. express all the same genes in all their cells
3. breed with members of other biological species
4. interbreed and produce fertile offspring

74.

The onset of puberty in humans coincides with a significant increase in the secretion of:

1.	LH	2.	FSH
3.	Adrenal androgens	4.	GnRH

75.

ZZ / ZW type of sex determination is seen in:

1.	Platypus	2.	Snails
3.	Cockroach	4.	Peacock

76.

What is incorrect for Hemophilia?

1.	In this disease, a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood is affected.
2.	In an affected individual, a simple cut will result in non-stop bleeding.
3.	The heterozygous female (carrier) for haemophilia may transmit the disease to her sons.
4.	The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare because the mother of such a female has to be hemophilic and the father should be a carrier.

77.

Plica semilunaris on the inside corner of the eye and, muscles in the pinna are:

1.	analogous structures	2.	homologous structures
3.	vestigial structures	4.	phylogenetic structures

78.

The mRNA codon for which there will be no cognate-charged tRNA molecule is:

1.	UAA	2.	UGG
3.	AUG	4.	UAC

79.

Artificial insemination means:

1.	transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
2.	transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
3.	artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
4.	introduction of sperms of healthy donor directly into the ovary

80.

The correct chronology in the ovarian cycle in a non-pregnant woman would be:

1.	corpus luteum > ovulation > primary & secondary follicles > vesicular follicle
2.	primary & secondary follicles > vesicular follicle > ovulation > corpus luteum
3.	ovulation > primary follicles > corpus luteum > secondary & vesicular follicles
4.	ovulation > primary & secondary follicles > corpus luteum > vesicular follicle

81.

The first movements of the foetus and the appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during the:
1. the first month of pregnancy
2. the second month of pregnancy
3. the fifth month of pregnancy
4. the sixth month of pregnancy

82. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select the correct option:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Gonorrhea	(i)	HIV
(b)	Syphilis	(ii)	Neisseria
(c)	Genital Warts	(iii)	Treponema
(d)	AIDS	(iv)	Human Papilloma-Virus

1.	a-(iii) b-(iv) c-(i) d-(ii)	a-(iv) b-(ii) c-(iii) d-(i)
3.	a-(iv) b-(iii) c-(ii) d-(i)	a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(iv) d-(i)

83.

An individual affected by Klinefelter’s syndrome:

1.	Has 47 autosomes.
2.	Has overall feminine development.
3.	Has gynecomastia.
4.	Has an additional copy of the Y chromosome.

84.

If pregnancy is established, the corpus luteum:
I. is no longer needed because of hormones produced by the pre-embryo
II. typically continues to secrete progesterone through the third month of pregnancy
III. transforms into a corpus albicans soon after the placenta is fully functional

1.	I and II are correct	2.	I and III are correct
3.	I and II are incorrect	4.	II and III are correct

85.

Both Hepatitis B and HIV infections:
1. are completely curable STIs
2. are caused by bacterial pathogens
3. can be transmitted by sharing injection needles
4. are preventable by vaccination

Biology II - Section B

86.

The way lac operon is regulated by regulatory gene and the substrate means that it should be classified as a:
1. negative repressible operon
2. negative inducible operon
3. positive inducible operon
4. positive repressible operon

87.

The mode of inheritance of the trait in the given pedigree is most likely [affected individuals are shown by solid symbols]:

1.	Autosomal recessive
2.	Sex-linked recessive
3.	Sex-linked dominant
4.	Autosomal dominant

88.

'Living about 1.5 mya, with a brain size of about 900 cc, probably ate meat' – the description applies to:

1.	Ramapithecus	2.	Homo habilis
3.	Homo erectus	4.	The Neanderthal man

89.

The first organism whose genome was sequenced was:

1.	Haemophilus influenzae.	2.	Escherichia coli.
3.	Arabidopsis thaliana.	4.	Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

90.

The hormones that attain a peak level in the middle of the menstrual cycle include:

I. Oestrogen

II. Progesterone

III. LH

IV. FSH

1.	I, II, and III only	2.	I, III, and IV only
3.	II, III, and IV only	4.	I, II, III, and IV

91.

Inhibin is a hormone that:

1.	inhibits FSH production in both males and females
2.	inhibits LH production in both males and females
3.	inhibits FSH production in males and LH production in females
4.	inhibits LH production in males and FSH production in females

92.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the comparison of an RNA and a DNA molecule:

1.	Both are composed of nucleotides joined by phosphodiester bonds.
2.	Both have secondary and tertiary structures.
3.	RNA is always single-stranded while DNA is always double-stranded.
4.	Both have the same purine bases.

93.

The most critical period of gestation where the fetus is most vulnerable to genetic birth defects from drugs taken by the mother is:

1.	last trimester	2.	third to sixth month
3.	first trimester	4.	a week prior to parturition

94.

A pure line, red-eyed female fruit fly is crossed to a white-eyed male fruit fly. The percentage of the male offspring with white eyes is expected to be: [white eyes are X-linked, recessive]

1.	100%	2.	50%
3.	25%	4.	0%

95.

The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained directly by:

1.	GnRH	2.	Gonadotropins
3.	Testicular androgens	4.	Adrenal medullary androgens

96.

Normally the process of DNA fingerprinting does not involve:

1.	Southern blot	2.	Elution
3.	Radiolabelled VNTR probes	4.	Autoradiography

97.

Just before the endometrium is shed during menstruation:
1. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease.
2. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase.
3. the corpus luteum gets fully developed.
4. ovulation occurs.

98.

Human skin color is controlled by three polygenes A, B, and C. What proportion of the progeny from a cross between two individuals with intermediate skin color will also have intermediate skin color?

1.	1/64	2.	6/64
3.	15/64	4.	20/64

99. The contraceptive 'SAHELI':

1.	blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing implantation.
2.	increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
3.	is an lUD.
4.	is a post-coital contraceptive.

100.

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is itself least likely to be influenced by:

1.	nonrandom mating.	2.	migration.
3.	mutation	4.	genetic drift

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