FORTIUS - PYQ based Unit Test # 2 (OLD NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

How many true-breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

1.	2	2.	14
3.	6	4.	4

2.

A cell at the telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at the telophase stage. There is no formation of the cell plate and thus the cell is containing more chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:
1. Polyteny
2. Aneuploidy
3. Polyploidy
4. Somaclonal variation

3.

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1.	When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place.
2.	Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell.
3.	Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months.
4.	Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.

4.

Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of:

1.	–120 °C	2.	–80 °C
3.	–196 °C	4.	–160 °C

5.

The product of sexual reproduction generally generates:
1. Large biomass
2. Longer viability of seeds
3. Prolonged dormancy
4. New genetic combinations leading to variations

6.

Which of the following statements is correct?
1. Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.
2. Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
3. Adenine does not pair with thymine.
4. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.

7.

The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:

1.	Chasmogamy	2.	Cleistogamy
3.	Xenogamy	4.	Geitonogamy

8.

Vegetative propagule in Agave is :

1.	Rhizome	2.	Bulbil
3.	Offset	4.	Eye

9.

What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in prokaryotes?

1.	σ and ρ respectively	2.	α and β respectively
3.	β and γ respectively	4.	α and σ respectively

10. Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?

1.	Hydrilla	2.	Yucca
3.	Banana	4.	Viola

11.

Offsets are produced by:

1.	Meiotic divisions
2.	Mitotic divisions
3.	Parthenocarpy
4.	Parthenogenesis

12.

Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:

1.	Tegmen	2.	Chalaza
3.	Perisperm	4.	Hilum

13.

Double fertilization is:

1.	Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
2.	Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
3.	Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
4.	Syngamy and triple fusion

14.

In some plants, the thalamus contributes to fruit formation. Such fruits are termed as:

1.	False fruits	2.	Aggregate fruits
3.	True fruits	4.	Parthenocarpic fruits

15.

In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I transcribe -
1. mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing
2. tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs
3. rRNAs - 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
4. Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA

16.

In Mendel’s experiments with Garden Pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledons (YY) were dominant over green cotyledons (yy). What is the expected phenotype in F₂ generation after the crossing of RRYY x rryy?

1.	Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
2.	Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
3.	Only round seeds with green cotyledons
4.	Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons.

17.

Which one of the following traits of Garden Pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?
1. Axial flower position
2. Green seeds colour
3. Green pod colour
4. Round seed shape.

18.

Which one of the following options gives one correct example of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?

	Convergent Evolution	Divergent Evolution
1.	Eyes of octopus and mammals	Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates
2.	Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils Cucurbita	Wings of butterflies and birds
3.	Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates	Wings of butterfly and birds
4.	Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita	Eyes of Octopus and mammals

19.

Select the correct statement from the following:

1.	Mutations are random and directional.
2.	Darwinian variations are small and directionless.
3.	Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
4.	All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae.

20.

A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:

1.	Okazaki fragment	2.	Polysome
3.	Polymer	4.	Polypeptide

21.

In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
1. Poaceae; Solanaceae
2. Rosaceae; Leguminosae
3. Poaceae; Rosaceae
4. Poaceae; Leguminosae

22.

In a three-dimensional view, the molecule of t-RNA is:

1.	L-shaped	2.	S-shaped
3.	Y-shaped	4.	E-shaped

23.

Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross:

1.	Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
2.	Genes far apart, on the same chromosome, show very few recombinations
3.	Genes loosely linked, on the same chromosome, show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones
4.	Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations

24.

Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?
1. Ovules develop into an embryo sac
2. Ovary develops into fruit
3. Zygote develops into an embryo
4. Central cell develops into endosperm

25.

What are those structures that appear as beads-on-string in the chromosomes when viewed under an electron microscope?

1.	Genes	2.	Nucleotides
3.	Nucleosomes	4.	Base pairs

26.

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:
1. Micropyle
2. Nucellus
3. Chalaza
4. Hilum

27.

Chargaff's rule states that in an organism:

1.	The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C).
2.	The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of cytosine (C).
3.	The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of cytosine (C) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of guanine (G).
4.	Amounts of all bases are equal.

28.

Which one of the following statements is not true?

1.	Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programs.
2.	Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.
3.	Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin.
4.	Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies.

29.

Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of:

1.	Retrogressive evolution	2.	Analogous organs
3.	Homologous organs	4.	Vestigial organs

30.

In majority of angiosperms:

1.	a small central cell is present in the embryo sac
2.	egg has a filiform apparatus
3.	there are numerous antipodal cells
4.	reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells

31.

Monoecious plant of Chara shows the occurrence of:

1.	Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
2.	Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
3.	Stamen and carpel on the same plant
4.	Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

32.

Select the correct sequence of events.

1.	Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis
2.	Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis → Cell differentiation
3.	Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Gamete transfer → Zygote → Cell division (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → Organogenesis
4.	Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell differentiation → Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis

33.

Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon :

(a)	Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
(b)	In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region.
(c)	The z-gene codes for permease.
(d)	This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod.

The correct statements are :

1.	(a) and (c)	2.	(b) and (d)
3.	(a) and (b)	4.	(b) and (c)

34.

According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is:

1.	Phenotypic variations	2.	Saltation
3.	Multiple-step mutation	4.	Minor mutations

35.

The concept of chemical evolution is based on:

1.	Possible origin of life by a combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions.
2.	Crystallization of chemicals
3.	Interaction of water, air, and clay under intense heat
4.	Effect of solar radiation on chemicals

Biology I - Section B

36.

In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F₁ generation, pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F₂ generation showed white, red, and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

1.	Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment.
2.	This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance.
3.	The pink colour in F₁ is due to incomplete dominance.
4.	Ratio of F₂ is 1/4(red):2/4(pink):1/4(white).

37.

A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

1.	0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
2.	0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
3.	0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
4.	0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

38.

Which is the "Only enzyme" that has the "Capability" to catalyze Initiation, Elongation, and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
1. DNA Ligase
2. DNase
3. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
4. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

39.

Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of the following mRNA?
5'AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3'

1.	Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
2.	Insertion of G at the 5th position
3.	Deletion of G from the 5th position
4.	Insertion of A and G at the 4th and the 5th positions respectively

40.

A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the following condition will lead to adaptive radiation?

1.	Area with a large number of habitats having very low food supply
2.	Area with a single type of vacant habitat
3.	Area with many types of vacant habitats
4.	Area with many habitats occupied by a large number of species

41. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule?

1.	it helps in the entry of pollen tube into the synergid
2.	it prevents the entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac
3.	it brings about opening of the pollen tube
4.	it guides pollen tube from the synergid to the egg

42.

In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of:

1.	2'C pentose sugar	2.	3'C pentose sugar
3.	5'C pentose sugar	4.	1'C pentose sugar

43.

Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

1.	The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor.
2.	Out of one pair of factors, one is dominant, and the other recessive.
3.	Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in the F₂ generation.
4.	Factors occur in pairs.

44.

Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

1.	Transcription- Writing information from DNA to t-RNA
2.	Translation- Using the information in m-RNA to make protein
3.	Repressor protein- Binds to an operator to stop enzyme synthesis
4.	Operon- Structural genes, operator, and promoter

45.

The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on:

1.	Bacterial virus	2.	Bacterium
3.	Fungus	4.	Viroid

46.

Hair found in the inflorescences of Zea mays is the modification of:
1. Style
2. Stigma
3. Spathe
4. Filaments

47.

A gene encoding for a polypeptide of 50 amino acids gets mutated at 25 codons UAU becoming UAA. The result would be:

1.	Polypeptide of 24 amino acid
2.	Two polypeptides one with 24 amino acids and the second with 25 amino acids
3.	A polypeptide with 49 amino acid
4.	A polypeptide of 25 amino acids

48.

A low frequency recombination indicates that the genes are:
1. Located far apart from each other
2. Located close to each other
3. Not linked
4. Present on different chromosomes

49.

AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?

1.	AGGUAUCGCAU	2.	UGGTUTCGCAT
3.	ACCUAUGCGAU	4.	UCCAUAGCGUA

50.

In some plants, the female gamete develops into an embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is known as:

1.	Parthenogenesis	2.	Autogamy
3.	Parthenocarpy	4.	Syngamy

Biology II - Section A

51.

Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on:

1.	Perivitelline space	2.	Zona pellucida
3.	Corona Radiata	4.	Vitelline membrane

52.

Extrusion of the second polar body from the egg nucleus occurs:

1.	simultaneously with the first cleavage
2.	after entry of sperm but before fertilization
3.	after fertilization
4.	before entry of sperm into the ovum

53.

Signals from a fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of:
1. Oxytocin from the maternal pituitary
2. Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
3. Relaxin from the placenta
4. Estrogen from the placenta

54.

Sickle cell anaemia is due to:

1.	Change of Amino Acid in α-chain of Haemoglobin.
2.	Change of Amino Acid in β-chain of Haemoglobin.
3.	Change of Amino acid in both α and β chains of Haemoglobin.
4.	Change of Amino acid either α or β chain of Haemoglobin.

55.

Match the items given in Column-I with those in Column-II and select the correct option given below:

	Column-I		Column-II
(a)	Proliferative Phase	(i)	Breakdown of the endometrial lining
(b)	Secretory Phase	(ii)	Follicular Phase
(c)	Menstruation	(iii)	Luteal Phase

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)
1.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
2.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
3.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(ii)

56.

In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
1. LH only
2. Combination of FSH and LH
3. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
4. FSH only

57.

What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development gynaecomastia, and is sterile?
1. Down's syndrome
2. Turner's syndrome
3. Klinefelter's syndrome
4. Edward syndrome

58.

Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (a-d) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:

	Method		Mode of action
A	The pill	a	Prevents sperms from reaching the ovum
B	Condom	b	Prevents implantation
C	Vasectomy	c	Prevents ovulation
D	Copper - T	d	Semen contains no sperms

Options:	A	B	C	D
1.	c	a	d	b
2.	d	a	b	c
3.	c	d	a	b
4.	b	c	a	d

59.

In a marriage between a male with blood group A and a female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of the parents?
1. I^A i (Male) ; I^B I^B (Female)
2. I^A I^A (Male) ; I^B I^B (Female)
3. I^A I^A (Male) ; I^B i (Female)
4. I^A i (Male) ; I^B i(Female)

60.

Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern?

1.	Phenylketonuria	2.	Sickle cell anaemia
3.	Haemophilia	4.	Thalassemia

61.

Select the correct option of haploid cells from the following groups :

1.	Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte, Spermatid
2.	Secondary spermatocyte, First polar body, Ovum
3.	Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte, Spermatid
4.	Primary spermatocyte, Secondary spermatocyte, Second polar body

62. If a female individual is with a small round head, furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm with characteristic palm crease. Also, the physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. The karyotype analysis of such an individual will show:

1.	47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes
2.	45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes
3.	47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes
4.	Trisomy of chromosome 21

63.

The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of:

1.	progesterone	2.	intestinal mucus
3.	glucagon	4.	androgens

64.

Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which:
1. Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.
2. Ovaries are removed surgically.
3. Small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up.
4. Uterus is removed surgically.

65. Given below are two statements :

Statement I:	Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are autosomal dominant traits.
Statement II:	Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are disorders of the blood.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

66.

A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is:
1. Down's Syndrome
2. Klinefelter's Syndrome
3. Turner's Syndrome
4. Sickle Cell Anemia

67.

The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

1.	who cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilisation.
2.	who cannot produce an ovum.
3.	who cannot retain the fetus inside the uterus.
4.	whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms.

68.

The eye of an octopus and the eye of a cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar functions. This is an example of:

1.	Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
2.	Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
3.	Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
4.	Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.

69.

Artificial insemination means:

1.	Transfer of sperm of husband to a test tube containing ova.
2.	Artificial introduction of sperm of a healthy donor into the vagina.
3.	Introduction of sperm of a healthy donor directly into the ovary.
4.	Transfer of sperm of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova.

70.

Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if:

1.	the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.
2.	the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix.
3.	the sperms are transported into the cervix within 48 hrs of the release of the ovum in the uterus.
4.	the sperms are transported into the vagina just after the release of the ovum in the fallopian tube.

71.

Presence of the gills in the tadpole of a frog indicates that:
1. fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
2. frogs will have gills in future
3. frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
4. fishes were amphibious in the past

72.

The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system in humans. Which one set of three parts out of A-F have been correctly identified?

1. C-lnfundibulum, D-Fimbriae, E-Cervix
2. D-Oviducal funnel, E-Uterus, F-Cervix
3. A-Perimetrium, B-Myometrium, C-Fallopian tube
4. B-Endometrium, C-Infundibulum, D-Fimbriae

73.

If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from:
1. epididymis to vas deferens
2. ovary to uterus
3. vagina to uterus
4. testes to epididymis

74.

In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy, the following is observed:

1.	Eyelids and eyelashes are formed
2.	Most of the major organ systems are formed
3.	The head is covered with fine hair
4.	Movement of the fetus

75.

The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is:

1.	In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed.
2.	In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation, spermatids are formed.
3.	In spermiogenesis, spermatids are formed, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed.
4.	In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

76.

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?

1.	Twelve weeks	2.	Eighteen weeks
3.	Six weeks	4.	Eight weeks

77.

Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into:

1.	Fallopian tube	2.	Fimbriae
3.	Cervix	4.	Uterus

78.

Test tube baby means a baby born when:

1.	it is developed in a test tube.
2.	it is developed through the tissue culture method.
3.	the ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus.
4.	it develops from a non-fertilized egg.

79.

If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is $6.6 \times 10^{9}$ bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:

1.	2.5 meters	2.	2.2 meters
3.	2.7 meters	4.	2.0 meters

80.

Study the pedigree chart given below:

What does it show:

1.	Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia
2.	Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
3.	Inheritance of condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
4.	The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

81.

Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

1.	Klinefelter syndrome	2.	Sex of the foetus
3.	Down's syndrome	4.	Jaundice

82.

Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?
1. Multiload 375
2. Lippes loop
3. Cu7
4. LNG-20

83.

Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle -
1. Just before the end of the secretory cycle.
2. At the beginning of the proliferative phase.
3. At the end of the proliferative phase.
4. At the mid-secretory phase.

84.

Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism is associated with:
1. developmental mutations
2. differential expression of genes
3. lethal mutations
4. deletion of a gene

85.

Match the following columns and select the correct option:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Ovary	(i)	Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b)	Placenta	(ii)	Estrogen & Progesterone
(c)	Corpus luteum	(iii)	Androgens
(d)	Leydig cells	(iv)	Progesterone only

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
2.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
4.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)

Biology II - Section B

86.

DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called:

1.	Single nucleotides	2.	Polymorphic DNA
3.	Satellite DNA	4.	Repetitive DNA

87.

What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related to a chimpanzee than to other hominoid apes?

1.	Comparison of chromosome morphology only.
2.	Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone.
3.	Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes, and mitochondria.
4.	Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only.

88.

In the context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

1.	It is used for prenatal sex determination
2.	It can be used for the detection of down syndrome
3.	It can be used for the detection of cleft palate
4.	it is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant

89.

In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner?

1.	Mutations	2.	Random drift
3.	Selection	4.	Migration

90.

Given below is a diagrammatic sketch for a portion of the human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled a, b, c, d:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	Ureter	Seminal Vesicle	Prostate	Bulbourethral gland
2.	Ureter	Prostate	Seminal Vesicle	Bulbourethral gland
3.	Vas deferens	Seminal Vesicle	Prostate	Bulbourethral gland
4.	Vas deferens	Seminal Vesicle	Bulbourethral gland	Prostate

91.

Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moths proves that:

1.	Melanism is a pollution-generated feature.
2.	The true black melanic forms arise from a recurring random mutation.
3.	The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter from the industrial area.
4.	The lighter form of the moth has no selective advantage either in a polluted industrial area or a non-polluted area.

92.

A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colourblind mother and a normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?

1.	25%	2.	0%
3.	50%	4.	75%

93.

In a species, the weight of a newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborns with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 kg to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?
1. Cyclical selection
2. Directional selection
3. Stabilizing selection
4. Disruptive selection

94.

Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?

1.	Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization.
2.	The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelop facilitating fertilization.
3.	Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum.
4.	Acrosome serves no particular function.

95.

The probability of four sons to a couple is:

1.	1/4	2.	1/8
3.	1/16	4.	1/32

96.

In Drosophila the XXY condition leads to femaleness whereas in human beings the same condition leads to Klinefelter's syndrome in males. It proves:

1.	In human beings, the Y chromosome is active in sex determination.
2.	Y chromosome is active in sex determination in both human beings and Drosophila.
3.	In Drosophila Y-chromosome decides femaleness.
4.	The Y chromosome of man has genes for the syndrome.

97.

Assuming that the fur colour of an animal is dark, the range of colour shades vary between dark and white. A cross is made between a male (AABBCC) with dark fur colour and a female (aabbcc) with white fur colour. What would be the fur colour of F₁ generation?
1. All intermediate colour
2. Range of colour shade
3. All dark colour
4. All white colour

98.

Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of men?

1.	Agriculture came around 50,000 years back.
2.	The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates existing 15 million years ago, walked like men.
3.	Homo habilis probably ate meat.
4.	Neanderthal men lived in Asia between 100000 and 40000 years back.

99.

Match the following genes of the lac operon with their respective products:

(a)	i gene	(i)	$β$ -galactosidase
(b)	Z gene	(ii)	Permease
(c)	A gene	(iii)	Repressor
(d)	Y gene	(iv)	transacetylase

Select the correct option

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
3.	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)

100.

Match the hominids with their correct brain size:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Homo habilis	(i)	900 cc
(b)	Homo neanderthalensis	(ii)	1350 cc
(c)	Homo erectus	(iii)	650-800 cc
(d)	Homo sapiens	(iv)	1400 cc

Select the correct option.

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
3.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

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