Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Diffusion is a slow process and not dependent upon a living system.
2. Diffusion across the membrane depends upon its solubility in lipids.
3. Porins are proteins that forms huge pores, in the inner membrane of the plastids, mitochondria and some bacteria.
4. Water channels are made up of eight different aquaporins.
In a herbaceous plant the amount of dry matter as a fresh weight is?
1. 5 – 10 %
2. 10 – 15 %
3. 15 – 20%
4. 20 – 25%
In plants short distance transport can take place by?
1. Diffusion
2. Cytoplasmic streaming
3. Active transport
4. All the above
Direction of transport in plants can be multidirectional for?
1. Organic nutrients
2. Mineral nutrients
3. PGR
4. Both 1. and 2.
Following are two statements, find the correct option
(I) In a flowering plant there is a complex traffic of compounds moving in different directions.
(II) Each organ of plant receives some substance and gives out some
Options:
1. Both (I) and (II) are correct
2. Only (I) is correct
3. Only (II) is correct
4. Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
If the external solution balances the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm it is said to be?
1. Isotonic
2. Hypotonic
3. Hypertonic
4. Plantonic
Various ions from the soil are transported by the means of
(1) Facilitated Transport
(2) Plasmolysis
(3) Active transport
(4) Imbibition
Which of the following statements are not incorrect?
a. Root pressure only provide a modest push in the overall process of water transport
b. Root Pressure obviously does not play a major role in water movement up tall trees
c. The greatest contribution of root pressure may be to re-establish the continuous chains of water molecules in the xylem which often break under the enormous tensions created by transpiration
d. Most of the plants meet their need by transpiratory pull
e. The exudate of guttation has pure water only
1. a,b,d,e
2. a,b,c,d
3. b,c,d,e
4. c,d,e
Which of the following is not correct for imbibitions?
1. Imbibition plays very important role in emergence of seedling.
2. In imbibition movement of solvent is against the gradient.
3. Water potential gradient is essential for imbibition.
4. Affinity between liquid and solid is pre-requisite for imbibitions.
In a plant water potential is measured at four different points A, B, C and D. At A it is – 7 Pa at B it is – 5 Pa at C it is – 10 Pa and at D it is – 2 Pa. Which one the following can be water potential of leaf?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
How many of the following statement are correct?
(a) Vacuolar sap contributes to the solute potential of cell.
(b) The net direction and rate of osmosis depends upon pressure gradient and concentration gradient.
(c) Osmotic pressure is function of the solute concentration.
(d) Osmotic pressure is the positive pressure while osmotic potential is negative.
Options:
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
Bulk flow of substance can be achieved through?
1. Positive hydrostatic pressure gradient
2. Negative hydrostatic pressure gradient
3. Both 1. and 2.
4. Atmospheric pressure gradient
Most of the water movement in the roots via apoplast but it ultimately becomes symplastic because of the presence of ?
1. Cortex
2. Epidermis
3. Limiting layer of cortex
4. Pericycle
Which of the following is not associated with root pressure?
1. Guttation
2. Helps in re-establishing water column, when it breaks.
3. Positive pressure.
4. Accounts for bulk of water transport.
The rate of upward movement of in plant is upto?
1. 20 m / hr
2. 15 m / hr
3. 25 m/hr
4. 30 m/hr
How many of the following statements are correct?
(a) Less than one percent of water reaching the leaves is used in photosynthesis and plant growth.
(b) Turgidity of guard cells play very important role in stomata opening and closing.
(c) In dorsiventral leaf upper surface has greater number of stomata.
(d) In guard cells cellulosic microfibrils are oriented radially.
Options:
1. 4 2. 3
3. 2 4. 1
Which of the following dues not help in stomatal opening and closing :
1. Turgidity of guard cell.
2. Differential thickening of guard cell wall.
3. Orientation of cellulosic microfibrils in guard cell.
4. Size of stomatal pore
The transpiration driven ascent of sap depends upon following physical property of water except
1. Cohesion 2. Tensile strength
3. Adhesion 4. Surface tension
The physical property of water that is cohesion, adhesion and surface tension is responsible for?
1. Tensile strength
2. Capillarity
3. Both 1. and 2.
4. Percolation
In plants capillarity is added by
1. Small diameter of the treachery elements
2. Presence of lignin in treachery elements
3. Small size of the treachery elements
4. Dead nature of the treachery element
The plants are twice efficient with respect to plants because
1. They have ability to maximize availability of while minimizing loss.
2. They have low requirement with minimum loss.
3. There stomata remains always open and high water loss.
4. There stomata open during night, and minimum loss.
How many of the following statement is correct for transpiration
(a) Help in creation of transpirational pull.
(b) Supplies for photosynthesis.
(c) Cool leaf surface by 10 – 15°C.
(d) Helps in maintaining shape and structure of the plants.
Options :
1. 4 2. 3
3. 2 4. 1
Why all minerals are not absorbed by the roots passively?
1. Minerals are present in soil as charged particles.
2. Minerals are present in soil as neutral particles.
3. Mineral concentration in soil is higher than root.
4. Both 1. and 3.
How many of the following statements are correct?
(a) The active uptake of ions is partly responsible for the water potential gradient in roots.
(b) Specific proteins in the membranes of root hair cells actively pumps ions from the soil into the cytoplasm of epidermal cell.
(c) Endodermal cells have proteins which selectively transports protein across membrane.
(d) Transport proteins of endodermal cells acts as a control points, where quantity and types of solute is adjusted that reach the xylem.
Options :
1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
The root endodermis has ability to actively transport ions in one direction only because :
1. Layer of suberin
2. Layer of lignin
3. layer of chitin
4. Layer of tylin
Match the following :
(1) |
Sink of nutrient |
1. |
Fine vein endings |
(2) |
Unloading of mineral |
2. |
Lateral meristeny |
(3) |
Mineral remobilisation |
3. |
Storage organs |
(4) |
Unloading of sugar |
4. |
Older parts |
Options :
1 2 3 4
How many of the following statements are correct?
(a) Xylem exudates contain some organic phosphorus and sulphur.
(b) The source sink relationship in food transport is reversible and depends on season.
(c) Phloem sap contains, H2O,sucrost, hormones amino acids.
(d) During tranlocation there is exchange of materials between xylem and phloem
Option :
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
Which of the following is not correct for phloem loading?
1. It is an active process
2. As a result of this hypertonic condition develops inside the phloem.
3. Responsible for pressure gradient in phloem.
4. During this glucose is loaded against the concentration gradient.
Sieve tube forms continuous filament this is due to?
1. Cytoplasmic strands
2. Plasmodesmata
3. Protoplasmic strand
4. Lenticels
Which of the following experiment is performed to show that transport of food takes place via phloem
1. Cobalt chloride test
2. Girdling experiment
3. Potometer
4. Split light experiment
Which of the following is correct with regard to monocot stem.
1. Monocot stems have a well-developed collenchymatous hypodermis.
2. The vascular bundles are surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
3. The cortex is differentiated into endodermis and pericycle.
4. The vascular bundles are conjoint and open.
In monocot roots the vascular bundles are
1. Collateral, endarch and closed. 2. Collateral, exarch and closed.
3. Radial, exarch and open. 4. Radial, exarch and closed.
The bulliform cells in grasses
1. Are present on the upper epidermis of leaves.
2. Become turgid and cause the leaves to curl inwards under stress.
3. Are small resin filled cells.
4. Help in transpiration.
Semilunar patches of sclerenchyma in the dicot stem can be seen
1. Above the phloem.
2. In between the vascular bundles.
3. In the pith.
4. In between phloem and xylem.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
1. Companion cell – Albuminous cells in gymnosperm
2. Companion cell – Associated with sieve cells
3. Companion cell – Nucleated structure and its nucleus controls sieve tube
4. Companion cell – Helps in maintaining the pressure gradient in sieve tube
The monocot leaves have parallel venation. This is reflected in
1. Presence of stomata in the lower epidermis.
2. Conjoint vascular bundles.
3. Nearly similar sizes of vascular bundles.
4. Leaves being isobilateral.
The cells of endodermis in roots
1. Have intercellular spaces filled with waxy material called suberin.
2. Have thickenings of suberin in tangential as well as radial walls.
3. Lie inner to the pericycle.
4. Give rise to lateral roots.
Most of the monocots are devoid of
1. Phloem fibres.
2. Phloem parenchyma.
3. Mesophyll in leaves.
4. Sieve tubes.
Which of the following is correct statement for intercalary meristems?
1. They lie at tip of root apex
2. They lie at base of stem always
3. They are short lived and consumed during primary growth
4. They are long lived and cause increase in length
Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant such as young stem and petiole of leaf is provided by a living tissue called
1. Collenchyma 2. Aerenchyma
3. Chlorenchyma 4. Sclerenchyma
Tissues internal to endodermis comprise the
1. Bark
2. Stele
3. Conjunctive tissue
4. Vascular bundle
Find out the incorrect statement for the given diagram.
1. Has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
2. A large, conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue.
3. Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than the centrally located ones.
4. Vascular bundles surrounded by a parenchymatous bundle sheath.
Which of the following is a model for Transpiration?
1. Cohesion-AdhesionTranspiration Pull Model
2. Cohesion Tension Transpiration Pull Model
3. Tension Transpiration Pull Model
Select the incorrect statement from the following:
1. End walls of sieve tube have sieve plates
2. Sieve tube and companion cell are connected by pit present between common longitudinal wall
3. Companion cells are specialized parenchymatous cells having nucleus which control function of sieve tubes
4. Phloem parenchyma is present in most of monocots
Select the correct matching:
Column-I |
Column-II |
A. Tracheids - |
1. Elongated and tube like cells with thick and lignified wall and tapering ends. |
B. Vessels - |
2. Tube like structure made up of many cells, each cell with lignified wall and large central cavity. |
C. Xylem fibre - |
3. Highly thickened walls and obliterated central humans. |
D. Xylem parenchyma - |
4. Living cell with thin cell wall made up of cellulose. |
The depression on the coxa where the head of the femur articulates is the
1. acetabulum.
2. auricular surface.
3. iliac fossa.
4. ischial tuberosity.
The ability of a muscle fiber action potential to cause an increase in cytosolic calcium concentration is dependent upon
1. The conduction of action potentials down T-tubules which are in intimate contact with the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
2. The presence of the voltage sensitive protein called the ryanodine receptor in the T-tubule membrane
3. The calcium channel protein called the dihydropyridine receptor which is located in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane
4. Ca++-ATPase pumps in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
The scala tympani terminates at the round window which opens to the:
1. Cochlear duct
2. Helicotrema
3. Middle ear
4. Scala vestibule
Which of the following target tissues is innervated by only neurons from the sympathetic nervous system?
1. adrenal medulla
2. lacrimal glands
3. bronchioles
4. iris of the eye
Which brain disease involves degeneration of cholinergic neurons in certain brain regions, causing deterioration of cognitive and intellectual functions in the elderly?
1. Schizophrenia
2. Depression
3. Alzheimer disease
4. Cerebral Palsy
What would happen if you had an unusually short basilar membrane in the cochlea?
1. Your sense of balance would be affected.
2. You would not be able to detect very high frequency sounds.
3. You would not be able to detect very low frequency sounds.
4. All sounds would be muffled
Which statement is not correct concerning rods and cones?
1. Rods are responsible for black and white vision.
2. Cones are responsible for color vision.
3. Most of the rods and cones are concentrated in the fovea.
4. Cones are responsible for high visual acuity or sharpness.
The actual receptors for hearing and balance are the _____.
1. mechanoreceptors
2. otoliths
3. cochlear cells
4. hair cells
The _____ acts to keep one aroused and awake.
1. vasomotor center
2. corpora quadrigemina
3. diencephalon
4. reticular formation
The membrane closest to the brain is the _____.
1. dura mater
2. pia mater
3. arachnoid meninx
4. denticulate ligament
When a skeletal muscle shortens during contraction which of these statements is false?
1. The l-band shortens
2. The A-band shortens
3. The H-zone becomes narrow
4. The sarcomeres shorten
Which of the following is not a feature of red muscle fibres?
1. They have plenty of mitochondria.
2. They have a high content of Myoglobin.
3. They have a high amount of Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. They are called aerobic muscles.
During resting stage the binding site of actin for myosin remains masked by
1. Troponin 2. Gactin
3. Tropomyosin 4. Meromyosin
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it:
1. Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
2. Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
3. Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
4. Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse -
A. | Opening of specific ion channels allows the entry of ions, a new action potential is generated in the post-synaptic neuron |
B. | Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post-synaptic membrane. |
C. | Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic membrane, neurotransmitter releases into synaptic cleft |
D. | Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane |
E. | Arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal |
In which sequence do these events occur?
1. E D C B A
2. A B C D E
3. A B D C E
4. E D C A B
Which of the following features is not related with pons?
1. It forms floor of brain stem
2. It serves as neural link between different parts of brain
3. It can moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre
4. It has a chemosensitive area for respiratory regulation
Three layers of cells in the retina from inside to outside are-
1. Layers of ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptor cells
2. Layers of ganglion cells, photoreceptor cells, bipolar cells
3. Layers of photoreceptor cells, ganglion cells, bipolar cells
4. Layers of bipolar cells, photoreceptor cells, ganglion cells
Mark the correct statement:
1. | Electrical synapses are more common in our neural system than chemical synapses. |
2. | The new potential in the post-synaptic neurons may be either excitatory or inhibitory. |
3. | Hypothalamus is the major coordination centre for sensory and motor signaling. |
4. | The tracts of nerve fibres that connect two cerebral hemispheres are called corpora bigemina. |
Go through the following characterization of Sympathetic and. Parasympathetic Nervous System.
I. Dilates pupil,
II. Heart rate, BP (Vasoconstriction) Glycogenolysis, dilates bronchi.
III. Constricts pupil.
IV. Induces ejaculation.
V. Gastric secretion, salivary secretion, peristalsis.
VI. Erection and urination.
1. Sympathetic - III, V, VI; Parasympathetic - I, II, IV
2. Sympathetic - I, II, IV; Parasympathetic - III, V, VI
3. Sympathetic M II, IV, VI; Parasympathetic - I, III, V
4. Sympathetic - I, III, V; Parasympathetic - II, IV, VI
How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?
1. Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
2. Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
3. Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
4. Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of
1. Commissural impulses
2. Integrating impulses
3. Sensory impulses
4. Voluntary motor impulses
The basilar membrane of the cochlea
1. Is unaffected by movement of fluid in the scala of vestibule
2. Covers the oval window and round window
3. Vibrates in pattern determined by the form of the travelling wave in the fluids of the cochlea
4. Vibrates when body is subjected to linear acceleration
Human body temperature is regulated by the centre located in:
1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla
4. Hypothalamus
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
1. | Hypothalumus: production of releasing of hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst |
2. | Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different region of brain; control movement |
3. | Medulaoblogata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes |
4. | Corpus callosum: band of fibre connecting left and right cerebral hemisphere. |
A motor unit consists of:
1. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers innervated by it
2. All the motor neurons innervating one muscle fiber
3. All the muscle fibers in a fasciculus
4. All the muscle fibers in a skeletal muscle
The muscle can directly use which of the following as a source of energy?
1. Creatine phosphate
2. Glucose
3. ATP
4. Fatty acids
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies are formed against:
1. Myelin sheath
2. Articular cartilage
3. Neuro-muscular junctions
4. Thyroid follicle
A glenoid cavity is seen in:
1. Scapula 2. Coxa
3. Humerus 4. Clavicle
The first carpo-metacarpal joint is a/an:
1. Saddle joint 2. Ellipsoidal joint
3. Pivot joint 4. Fibrous joint
Osteoporosis in a post-menopausal woman is most directly due to the deficiency of:
1. Progesterone 2. Estrogen
3. LH 4. FSH
In the resting stage, the axonal membrane:
1. is more permeable to sodium than to potassium ions
2. is more permeable to potassium than to sodium ions
3. equally permeable to both sodium and potassium ions
4. impermeable to both sodium and potassium ions
In a chemical synapse what activates the synaptic vesicles to release its neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?
1. Sodium 2. Potassium
3. Chloride 4. Calcium
Damage to which of the following will result in ataxia and dysarthria?
1. Medulla oblongata
2. Cerebellum
3. Mid brain
4. Hypothalamus
Sympathetic stimulation would lead to all of the following except:
1. Dilation of pupil
2. Bronchoconstriction
3. Increased heart rate
4. Decreased gland secretions
Which cells of the human retina require Vitamin A?
1. Cells of Iris
2. Rods and Cones
3. Bipolar cells
4. Ganglionic cells
In the human eye, there are three types of cones – red, blue, and green. When these cones are stimulated equally, a sensation for which of the following colors would be produced?
1. White
2. Black
3. Orange
4. Yellow
The vomiting center in the humans is located in the:
1. Medulla oblongata
2. Pons varolii
3. Hypothalamus
4. Thalamus
The central part of the thick myofilaments, not overlapped by thin filaments, is called the:
1. Z line
2. M line
3. I band
4. H zone
Most of the neurons in the cerebral cortex are:
1. Unipolar
2. Bipolar
3. Multipolar
4. Pseudo unipolar
Which of the following parts of the human brain functions as a gateway to the cerebrum and is a major coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling?
1. Thalamus
2. Hypothalamus
3. Corpora quadrigemina
4. Pons
Vertebrochondral ribs attach to the seventh rib with the help of:
1. Elastic cartilage
2. Hyaline cartilage
3. Fibrous cartilage
4. White fibrous tissue
The human ribs are termed as bicephalic because they have:
1. Two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end
2. Two articulation surfaces on its ventral end
3. One articulation surface on its dorsal and one on its ventral side
4. No articulation surfaces
A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the:
1. Cerebral hemispheres
2. Diencephalon
3. Mid brain
4. Hind brain
Myosin head cleaves ATP for:
1. Formation of cross bridges
2. Breaking of cross bridges
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Vitamin D deficiency in an adult causes the condition known as _____.
1.rickets
2. osteoporosis
3. osteomalacia
4. giantism
The unit cell dimensions of an orthorhombic lattice (with edges : a, b, c and the angles between them being )
1.
2.
3.
4.
A metallic element exists as cubic lattice. Each edge of the unit cell is . The density of the metal is How many unit cell will be present in of the metal-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The anions (A) form hexagonal closest packing and atoms (C) occupy only 2/3 of octahedral voids in it, then the general formula of the compound is -
1.
2.
3.
4.
Choose the correct matching sequence from the possibilities given
(a) Crystal defect (1) AB AB AB...... type crystal
(b) hcp (2) Covalent crystal
(c) CsCl (3) Frenkel
(d) Diamond (4) Face centered in cude
(e) NaCl (5) Body centred in cube
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
1. 3 1 2 5 4
2. 3 1 5 2 4
3. 3 5 1 2 4
4. 5 3 4 2 1
Select the correct statement (s) -
(a) The C.N. of cation occupying a tetrahedral hole is 4.
(b) The C.N. of cation occupying a octahedral hole is 6.
(c) In schottky defects, density of the lattice decreases,
Options are as follows:
1. a, b
2. b, c
3. a, b, c
4. a, c
A rhombohedral unit cell is shown. What is its volume ? Side length
1. 2.
3. 4.
Among the cation and the one with highest ionic mobility and another with lowest ionic mobility respectively are :
1.
2.
3.
4.
What is the value of if for of a at
1.
2.
3.
4.
How much current is necessary to produce gas at the rate of per second under STP.
1. 2.
3. 4.
During discharge of a lead storage cell the density of sulphuric acid in the cell -
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains unchanged
4. Initially increases but decreases subsequently
Specific conductance of solution is When conductivity cell is filled with the conductance observed is When the same cell is filled with the observed conductance was Hence specific conductance of is :
1. xz 2. z/xy
3. xz/y 4. xy/z
Calculate the quantity of electricity (i.e. charge) delivered by a Daniel cell initially containing each of ion and which is operated until its potential drops to 1V.
1. 2.
3. 4.
Calculate the maximum work that can be obtained from the Daniel cell given below -
Given that
1. -212300 J 2. -202100 J
3. -513100 J 4. -232120 J
Which one of the following pairs of solution can we expect to be isotonic at the same temperature -
1. urea and
2. urea and
3. and
4. and
pH of a 0.1 (M) mono basic acid is found to be 2. Hence osmotic pressure at given temperature T is-
1. 0.1 RT
2. 0.11 RT
3. 1.1 RT
4. 0.01 RT
The molal depression constant for water= 1.85 deg/molal and for benzene is 5.12 deg/molal. If the ratio of the latent heat of fusion of benzene to water 3 : 8, Calculate the freezing point of benzene.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Glucose is added to 1 litre water to such an extent that becomes equal to 1/1000, the wt. of glucose added is-
1. 2.18 gm
2. 3.12 gm
3. 4.12 gm
4. 0.18 gm
A 0.01 molal solution of sodium chloride freezes at 0.03. The van't Hoff's factor (i) for the solution is ()
1. 1.3
2. 1.0
3. 0.5
4. 1.6
can exist as a hydrated complex 1 molal aqueous solution has depression in freezing point of . Assume 100% ionisation and then complex is-
1.
2.
3.
4.
solution on reaction with in aqueous solution gives blue colour. These are separated by a semipermeable membrane. Due to osmosis there is:
1. Blue colour formation in side X
2. Blue colour formation in side Y
3. Blue colour formation in both of the side X and Y
4. No blue colouration
In a reaction, the reactant A will disappear at
1. Half the rate at which B will decrease
2. The same rate at which B will decrease
3. The same rate at which will form
4. Twice the rate at which B will decrease
For the reaction, , the rate law for the disappearance of will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
The rate constant of a first order reaction depends on
1. Concentration of the reactants
2. Concentration of the products
3. Time
4. Temperature
For a reaction, the rate constant at a particular temperature has a value of . The order of the reaction is :
1. -1
2. 0
3. 1
4. 2
When concentration of reactant was made 4 times, the rate of reaction becomes 8 times. The order of reaction with respect to the reactant will be
1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 1.5
What is the half life of a radioactive substance if 87.5% of given amount disintegrates in 40 minutes ?
1. 160 minutes
2. 10 minutes
3. 20 minutes
4. 13.33 minutes
In a first order reaction, 75% of the reactant disappeared in 1.386 hours. The rate constant of the reaction is
1.
2.
3.
4.
For an endothermic reaction, where represents the enthalpy of the reaction in KJ mol, the value for the energy of activation will be
1. Less than
2. Zero
3. More than ∆
4. Equal to ∆
If the temperature coefficient of a reaction is 3, to what factor the rate of reaction increases when temperature is increased fron ?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 27
A gas phase reaction, is of the first order. The initial pressure was and pressure after 10 minutes was . The correct expression for rate constant (K) will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Colloids can be prepared by-
1. Tyndall Effect 2. Electrophoresis
3. Dialysis 4. Peptization
Dispersed phase and dispersion medium of gel are respectively
1. Solid, liquid
2. Liquid, solid
3. Liquid, gas
4. Gas, liquid
is a negative sol. which electrolyte is most effective for the congulation of sol?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Gold number of starch is 25. How much of it is required to prevent coagulation of 100 ml of gold sol by adding 1 ml of 10% NaCl solution?
1. 25 mg
2. 250 mg
3. 2.5 mg
4. 0.25 mg
Water vapours can be both adsorbed and absorbed by respectively ?
1. Silica gel and
2. Chalk and
3. and Silica gel
4. and Chalk
For the process mechanism is . The rate law is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The rate constant, the activation energy and the Arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at respectively. The value of rate constant as is
1.
2.
3. infinity
4.
The rate constant of a reaction depends on-
1. Temperature
2. Initial concentration of reactants
3. Time of reaction
4. Extent of reaction
Which of the following is not correct for physical adsorption?
1. Adsorption is spontaneous
2. Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative
3. Adsorption on solid is reversible
4. Adsorption increases with increase in temperature
The rate constant is numerically the same for three reactions of first, second and third order respectively. Which reaction should be fastest if
1. III order
2. II order
3. I order
4. IV order
Find the order of reaction for the rate expression rate=
1. 1.67
2. 2.67
3. 3.67
4. 4
Catalytic poisoning is due to-
1. Increasing activation energy
2. Adsorption of poisoner on the surface of the reactants
3. Adsorption of poisoner on the surface of the catalyst
4. Increase in heat of reaction
The critical angle of light going from medium A to medium B is . The speed of light in medium A is v. The speed of light in medium B is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm. below the surface, the radius of this circle in cm. is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 45° on an equilateral prism and emerge at an angle 45° then the refractive index of the medium of the prism is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the figure shown, A particle ‘P’ moves with velocity 10 m/s towards the intersection point ‘O’ of the plane mirror kept at right angle to each other. and are the images formed due to direction reflection from and respectively.
In the position shown, the relative speed of with respect to will be –
1.
2.
3.
4.
A bird is flying 3m above the surface of water. To a fish underwater, the height of the bird from the water surface appears to be [Take = 4/3]
1. 2m
2. 3.33 m
3. 4m
4. (4/3) m
In the figure shown a point object O is placed in air. A spherical boundary separates two media. AB is principal axis. The refractive index above AB is 1.6 and below AB is 2.0. The separation between the images formed due to refraction at spherical surface is (given R = 1m) -
1. 12m
2. 20m
3. 14m
4. 10m
The given lens is broken into four parts and rearranged as shown. If the initial focal length is f then after rearrangement the equivalent focal length is –
1. f
2. f/2
3. f/4
4. 4f
For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 60°, the angle of refraction A, angle of deviation and angle of emergence ‘e’ become equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is –
1. 1.73
2. 1.15
3. 1.5
4. 1.33
Light of wavelength 4000 Å is incident at small angle on a prism of apex angle 4°. The prism has and .The angle of dispersion produced by the prism in this light is -
1. 0.2°
2. 0.08°
3. 0.192°
4. None of these
Liquid is filled in a vessel of height 2H/3 . At the bottom of the vessel there is a spot P and a hole from which liquid is coming out.
Let d be the distance of image of P from an eye at height H from bottom at an instant when level of liquid in the vessel is x. If we plot a graph between d and x it will be like :
1. 2.
3. 4.
A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere as shown in the figure. If the final ray emerges from the sphere parallel to the horizontal diameter, then the refractive index of the sphere is:
(Consider that the sphere is kept in the air.)
1. \(\sqrt{2}\)
2. \(\sqrt{3}\)
3. \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\)
4. \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}\)
As the position of an object (u) reflected from a concave mirror is varied, the position of the image (v) also varies . By letting the u changes from 0 to the graph between v versus u will be
1. 2.
3. 4.
An object and a plane mirror are shown in the figure. The mirror is moving with velocity \(V\) as shown. The velocity of the image is:
1. \(2Vsin\theta\)
2. \(2V\)
3. \(2Vcos\theta\)
4. none of these
A small rod ABC is put in water making an angle 6º with vertical. If it is viewed paraxially from above, it will look like bent shaped ABC', The angle of bending will be in degree
1. 2º
2. 3º
3. 4º
4. 4.5º
A bird is flying up at an angle (3/5) with the horizontal. A fish in a pond looks at that bird. When it is vertically above the fish. The angle at which the bird appears to fly to the fish is
1. (3/5)
2. (4/5)
3. 45°
4. (9/16)
A plane mirror is moving with velocity . A point object in front of the mirror moves with a velocity . Here is along the normal to the plane mirror and facing towards the object. The velocity of the image is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
An observer can see through a pin-hole the top end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown in the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h.
When the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a height 2h, he can see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive index of the liquid is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
The figure shows the path of a ray of light as it passes through three different materials with refractive indices and .
The figure is drawn to scale. What can we conclude concerning the indices of these three materials -
1.
2.
3.
4.
An air bubble is inside water. The refractive index of water is 4/3. At what distance from the air bubble should a point be placed so as form a real image at the same distance from the bubble –
1. 2R
2. 3R
3. 4R
4. the air bubble cannot form a real image of real object
Focal lengths of two lens are f and f' and dispersive powers are and . To form achromatic combination from these –
1. f' = 2f
2. f' = - 2f
3. f' = f/2
4. f' = - f/2
A student holds a hand plane mirror to observe the back of her head while standing in front of and looking into a wall plane mirror. If she is standing 4 ft. away from wall mirror in front of the wall mirror and she holds the hand mirror vertically 1ft. behind her head, she will see the back of her head approximately how far behind the wall mirror –
1. 6 ft
2. 5 ft
3. 4 ft
4. 3 ft
A triangular prism of glass is inside water. A ray, incident normally, on one of the faces, is totally reflected from face BC. Then the minimum refractive index of glass is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
One face of a rectangular glass slab is silvered. The thickness of slab is 9 cm and refractive index for material of glass is 1.5.
An object is held 8 cm from front face of the slab. The distance of image from silvered surface is –
1. 14 cm
2. 20 cm
3. 11 cm
4. 17 cm
A pendulum of length l is free to oscillate in vertical plane above point O. An observer is viewing the bob of the pendulum directly from above. The pendulum is performing small oscillations in water (refractive index is µ) about its equilibrium position. The equation of trajectory of bob as seen by observer is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two mirrors are inclined at an angle as shown in the figure.
Light ray is incident parallel to one of the mirrors. The ray will start retracing its path after third reflection if –
1.
2.
3.
4. all three
From the figure shown establish a relation between
1.
2.
3.
4.
A concave mirror has a focal length 20 cm. The distance between the two positions of the object for which the image size is double of the object size is
1. 20 cm
2. 40 cm
3. 30 cm
4. 60 cm
Prism angle of a prism is . Their refractive index for red & violet colour is 1.51 & 1.52 respectively. Then dispersive power will be
1. 0.5
2. 0.15
3. 0.019
4. 0.032
Diameter of the moon is and its distance from earth is . It is seen by a telescope whose objective and eyepiece have focal lengths 4m and 10cm respectively. The angular diameter of the image of the moon will be nearly –
1. 5°
2. 10°
3. 20°
4. 25°
Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and having a refractive index µ. If c is the velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
The two coherent sources of intensity that ratio 2 : 8 produce an interference pattern. The values of maximum and minimum intensities will be respectively.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Where is the intensity of first source
In a YDSE experiment if a slab whose refraction index can be varied is placed in front of one of the slits then the variation of resultant intensity at mid-point of screen with will be best represented by . [Assume slits of equal width and there is no absorption by slab; mid point of screen is the point where waves interfere with zero phase difference in absence of slab]
1. 2.
3. 4.
In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white light is incident on the plane of the slits then the distance of the nearest white spot on the screen from O is:
1. 0
2. d/2
3. d/3
4. d/6
Interference fringes were produced using white light in a double slit arrangement. When a mica sheet of uniform thickness of refractive index 1.6 (relative to air) is placed in the path of light from one of the slits, the central fringe moves through some distance. This distance is equal to the width of 30 interference bands if light of wavelength 4800 Å is used. The thickness (in 1 µm) of mica is –
1. 90
2. 12
3. 14
4. 24
In a Young's experiment, the separation between the slits is 0.10mm, the wavelength of light used is 600nm and the interference pattern is observed on a screen 1.0 m away. Find the separation between the successive bright fringes.
1. 6.6 mm
2. 6.0 mm
3. 6 m
4. 6 cm
Two waves originating from source and having zero phase difference and common wavelength will show completely destructive interference at a point P if is
1. 5
2. 3/4
3. 2
4. 11/2
In Young's experiment the wavelength of red light is cm and that of blue light cm. The value of n for which blue bright band coincides with red band is -
1. 8
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
Figure shows two coherent sources vibrating in same phase. AB is an irregular wire lying at a far distance from the sources and . Let . How many bright spots will be seen on the wire, including points A and B.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. more than 4
In Young's slit experiment, carried out with lights of wavelength = 5000 , the distance between the slit is 0.2 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at x = 0. The third maximum will be at x equal to.
1. 1.67 cm
2. 1.5 cm
3. 0.5 cm
4. 5.0 cm
Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm are illuminated with red light of wavelength m. The interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance between third dark fringe & the fifth bright fringe is equal to –
1. 0.65 mm
2. 1.63 mm
3. 3.25 mm
4. 4.87 mm
In the figure shown in a YDSE, a parallel beam of light is incident on the slits from a medium of refractive index n1. The wavelength of light in this medium is . A transparent slab of thickness t and refractive index n3 is put in front of one slit. The medium between the screen and the plane of the slits is . The phase difference between the light waves reaching point O (symmetrical, relative to the slit) is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources is 4, then the visibility of the fringes is –
1. 4
2. 4/5
3. 3/5
4. 9
Wavefront means –
1. All particles in it have same phase
2. All particles have opposite phase of vibrations
3. Few particles are in same phase, rest are in opposite phase
4. None of these
and are the separations between the two images of slit obtained on a fixed screen, in a biprism set-up, using a convex lens, the separation in the two interfering virtual sources is –
1.
2.
3.
4.
The first diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at = 30° for a light of wavelength 5000 Å. The width of the slit is –
1. .
2. .
3. .
4. .