Identify the correct statement regarding typhoid fever in human beings:
1. It is caused by a pathogenic protozoan Salmonella typhi
2. The pathogen remains confined to the small intestine
3. Widal test can confirm the infection very early in the disease
4. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases
A common cause of pneumonia in humans is:
(1) Streptococcus pyogenes
(2) Haemophilus influenzae
(3) Staphylococcus aureus
(4) Rotavirus
Aedesaegypti is not a vector for:
(1) Dengue
(2) Chickengunya
(3) Japanese encephalitis
(4) Yellow fever
The cannabinoids receptors are principally located in the central nervous system. The other location where they are present is:
(1) Heart
(2) Spleen
(3) Kidney
(4) Thyroid
Which of the following is not a documented effect of alcoholism?
1. | intrauterine growth retardation in the fetus if the pregnant female consumes alcohol. |
2. | cirrhosis of the liver secondary to fatty deposition in the liver. |
3. | an increase in the secretion of ADH by the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus. |
4. | gastritis and pancreatitis. |
Philadelphia chromosome is associated with:
1. Retinoblastoma
2. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
3. Xerodermapigmentosum
4. Kaposi’s sarcoma
Plants do not have cancers as:
1. | they do not have circulation |
2. | they have highly developed immunity against them |
3. | the plant cells have cell walls |
4. | they already have meristems at their tips |
HIV selectively infects and destroys:
(1) CD4 T Lymphocytes
(2) CD8 T Lymphocytes
(3) T-Suppressor cells
(4) B-Lymphocytes
The most common opportunistic infection associated with AIDS is:
(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
(3) Cryptococcal meningitis
(4) Toxoplasma encephalitis
The granulocytes that are actively phagocytic and the most numerous of the leukocytes circulating in the blood are the:
(1) neutrophils
(2) basophils
(3) eosinophils
(4) monocytes
All of the following are true regarding inflammation except:
1. | The same sequence of events occurs in response to any injury, whether it be a burn, an infection, or trauma. |
2. | The signs of inflammation are pain, redness, swelling, heat, and possibly loss of function. |
3. | Cytokines, histamine, complement, and other chemical mediators are released. |
4. | Monocytes are the first cells to arrive from the bloodstream at the site of inflammation. |
IgM:
1. | has five antigen-binding sites. |
2. | has the ability to cross the placenta. |
3. | attaches to mast cells and basophils. |
4. | has five constant regions. |
Many physicians prefer mother's milk over cow's milk for infants. This is because mother's milk has the following property not found in cow's milk.
(1) Antibodies against human disease
(2) Proteins for growing human muscle
(3) More essential amino acids
(4) MHCs for maturing the infant's immune system
A plasma cell is a _____ cell that produces ______.
(1) T, cytokines.
(2) cytotoxic T, cell-killing.
(3) macrophage, antigens.
(4) B, antibodies.
Opsonization :
1. | is the killing of target cells by cytotoxic T cells. |
2. | is the secretory component of IgA. |
3. | helps increase phagocytosis. |
4. | is the interaction that allows IgG to cross the placenta. |
The epitope is the part of the :
1. | antibody that binds to the antigen. |
2. | antibody that binds to the T helper cell. |
3. | antigen that is bound by the antibody. |
4. | hypervariable region of the antibody. |
What type of immunity is induced by the hepatitis B vaccine?
1. naturally acquired active immunity.
2. naturally acquired passive immunity.
3. artificially acquired active immunity.
4. artificially acquired passive immunity.
The enzyme present in lysosomes belong to the class ______ & acidic condition inside is maintained by ______
(1) Oxidoreductases, pumping protons
(2) Hydrolases, secretion of acids
(3) Hydrolases, pumping of protons
(4) Lyases, removal of protons
Which of the following statement is not concerned with fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane?
1. Phospholipid forming a water resistant barrier
2. Glycocalyx at inner surface
3. Mosaic pattern of proteins
4. More extrinsic protein at inner surface
Which of the following is not a microtubular organelle?
(1) Centriole
(2) Cilia
(3) Basal body
(4) Dalton complex
Select the incorrect statement with respect to prokaryotic cells
(1) Cytoplasm lacks membrane bound organelles
(2) Sap vacuoles are absent
(3) Chromosome possesses acidic protein i.e., polyamine
(4) Lack streaming movement of cytoplasm
In human beings, the membrane of erythrocyte has
(1) Approximately 40% proteins and 52% lipids
(2) Cephalin on the outer side and lecithin on the inner side
(3) Approximately 52% proteins and 40% lipids
(4) Lecithin on the outer side and cephalin on the inner side
A number of proteins synthesized by ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the ______ of the Golgi apparatus before they are released from its trans face
1. Tubules
2. Vesicles
3. Cisternae
4. More than one option is correct
How many microtubules are associated with the structure of centriole?
(1) 9
(2) 18
(3) 27
(4) 11
Granular endoplasmic reticulum is associated with which of the following functions?
(1) Synthesis of secretory as well as non-secretory proteins
(2) Synthesis of non-secretory proteins
(3) Synthesis of steroidal hormones
(4) Synthesis of secretory proteins
Which of the following plastids store fats?
(1) Elaioplast
(2) Aleuroplast
(3) Proteinoplast
(4) Amyloplast
In plants, which of the following microbody is involved in photorespiration?
(1) Peroxisome
(2) Sphaerosome
(3) Glyoxysome
(4) Ribosome
Which of the following cellular organelles is/are bound by a single membrane?
Peroxisomes, lysosomes, mitochondria
(1) Only peroxisomes but not lysosomes and mitochondria
(2) Both peroxisomes and lysosomes but not mitochondria
(3) All of the three organelles
(4) None of the three organelles
Ribosomes attach to ER by its
(1) 50 S subunit
(2) 60 S subunit
(3) 40 S subunit
(4) 30 S subunit
All are membrane bounded cell organelles in a typical plant cell, except
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Lysosome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Chloroplast
Plasmodesmata connections help in
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming
(2) Mitotic division
(3) Movement of substances between the cells
(4) Osmosis only
A nuclear pore allows
(1) Unidirectional movement of DNA
(2) RNA movement only
(3) RNA and protein movement
(4) Protein movement only
Disc shaped proteinaceous structure attached to centromere of a chromosome is called
(1) Chromocentre
(2) NOR
(3) Chromomere
(4) Kinetochore
Correct statement in relation to vacuoles is
1. | It is a triple membrane bound space found in cytoplasm containing sap |
2. | It can occupy 90% of cell volume in plants |
3. | Its membrane allows transport of materials along the concentration gradient only |
4. | Concentration of ions is significantly lesser in vacuole than cytoplasm |
Find out the incorrect statement
1. | Middle lamella is mainly made up of Ca-pectate |
2. | Cell wall is formed from inner side therefore secondary wall formed before primary wall |
3. | Middle lamella glues the different neighbouring cells together |
4. | Pits are present in secondary wall |
Vesicles from ER fuse with
(1) Maturing face of golgi body
(2) Forming face of golgi body
(3) Primary lysosome for intercellular digestion
(4) Plasma membrane to remove them out from cell
Fluidity of the cell membrane is measured
(1) On the amount of cholesterol and protein in membrane
(2) On the amount of carbohydrate in membrane
(3) On the lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer
(4) On the flip-flop movement of protein
Which of the following cell organelle is a major site for the synthesis of steroidal hormones?
(1) SER
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Peroxisome
The content of nucleolus is continuous with nucleoplasm
(1) Through microtubules
(2) Through nuclear pores
(3) Due to lack of membrane
(4) Due to presence of channels in membrane
The central part of proximal region of centriole is called hub which is made of
(1) Protein
(2) Lipoprotein
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Oligosaccharide
Glycosylation, general secretion and recycling of broken plasma membrane are functions specifically performed by
(1) Glyoxysome
(2) SER
(3) RER
(4) Golgi complex
Many of the organelle show coordination in their functions and are considered together as an endomembrane system. Find odd one out with respect. this statement
(1) ER
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Vacuole
(4) Plastid
A. Most dramatic period of cell cycle involving a major reorganization of virtually all components of the cell
B. It represents the phase when the actual cell division occurs
These statements (A & B) are concerned with
1. S-phase
2. G1 phase
3. M-phase
4. G2 phase
Select the correct statement
1. | Chromosomes decondense and lose their individuality during anaphase |
2. | Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during early prophase |
3. | Centriole begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell during metaphase |
4. | DNA is replicated during S-phase of cell cycle |
Interkinesis stage of cell cycle
(1) Is generally short lived
(2) Shows DNA duplication
(3) Is generally long lived
(4) Is followed by prophase-I
Select the incorrect statement
(1) Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in about 90 minutes
(2) DNA synthesis is a continuous process in cell cycle
(3) Duration of I-phase in the cell cycle is more than 95%
(4) Events of cell cycle are under genetic control
Cells that do not divide further exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called
(1) G2 phase
(2) G0 stage
(3) S-phase
(4) M-phase
Select the odd one out with respect to mitosis
(1) It helps the organisms in both sexual and asexual reproduction
(2) It is called equational division
(3) It takes place only in diploid cells of plants
(4) It helps in cell repair
Select the mis-matched pair
(1) Leptotene – Compaction of chromosomes continued
(2) Zygotene – Appearance of recombination nodules
(3) Diplotene – beginning of dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Diakinesis – Completgeterminalisation of chiasmata
Microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pairs of homologous chromosomes during
(1) Pachytene
(2) Metaphase – I
(3) Metaphase – II
(4) Early prophase
Exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes occurs in
(1) Leptotene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene
How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 50 wheat grains?
(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 25
(4) 63
A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is illustrated by human cells in culture. These cells divide once in approximately every
(1) 24 hours
(2) 90 minutes
(3) 20 minutes
(4) 9 hours
Choose incorrect statement with respect to cell cycle
(1) Duration of cell cycle can vary from organism to organism
(2) Duration of cell cycle is uniform in different cell types of an organism
(3) Events of cell cycle are under genetic control
(4) It is divided into two basic phases
Choose the correct sequence with respect to different phases of cell cycle
(1) G1 S, G2, M
(2) G1, G2, S, M
(3) M, G2, G1, S
(4) S, M, G2, G1
Human nerve cells do not divide after birth and they remain throughout their life in which phase of cell cycle?
(1) M-phase
(2) G1 phase
(3) G0 phase
(4) Invisible phase
Various phases of cell cycle are controlled by
(1) Cyclin proteins
(2) Cyclin dependent protein kinases
(3) Phosphorylation of cyclin dependent protein kinases
(4) More than one option is correct
Read the following four statements 1, 2, 3 & 4 and select the right option having both correct statements.
1. First two stages of prophase I are relatively short lived compared to pachytene
2. Meiosis II is initiated immediately after karyokinesis of meiosis I
3. Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to the next
4. In plants, miotic cell division is only seen in diploid cells
1. 2 & 3 2. 3 & 4
3. 1 & 3 4. 2 & 4
Nuclear envelope, nucleolus, endoplasmic reticulum and golgi complex disappear from a dividing cell at the
(1) End of prophase
(2) Start of anaphase
(3) End of telophase
(4) Start of early prophase
Amount of DNA and Number of chromosomes in G2 phase of cell cycle would be
(1) Double and equal to that of in G1 phase respectively
(2) Half and equal to that of in G1 phase respectively
(3) Equal and half to that of in G1 phase respectively
(4) Double and double to that of in G1 phase respectively
Exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes in pachytene stage is facilitated by
(1) Dynein
(2) Recombinase
(3) chiasmata
(4) Calmodulin
Plant cells do not divided their cytoplasm by forming a furrow in cell membrane like animal cells rather they divide by cell plate because
(1) Plant cell do not have centrioles
(2) Cell wall formation beings with formation of cell plate
(3) Cell plate represents middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells
(4) Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively inextensible wall
What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
1. 2-Formyl Methyl ethane
2. Methoxy propanal
3. 2-Methoxy propanal
4. 3-Methoxy propanal
Hybridisation of N in pyrrole is
1. 2.
3. 4.
The number of sigma and pi bonds in but-1-en-3-yne are
1. 2.
3. 4.
The IUPAC name of is
1. 2, 3-diethyl butane
2. 3, 4-dimethyl hexane
3. 3-methyl pentane
4. 2-ethyl 3-methyl pentane
How many chain isomers are possible for and respectively?
1. 3, 3 2. 3, 5
3. 4, 4 4. 3, 4
Total isomers for are
1. 4 2. 5
3. 7 4. 8
Which compound has highest enolic content?
1. 2.
3. 4.
Compounds with molecular formula cannot show
1. Tautomerism
2. Position isomerism
3. Metamerism
4. Functional isomerism
Which hydrocarbon is most acidic?
1. 2.
3. 4.
The most stable carbocation is
1. 2.
3. 4.
The aromatic compound is
1. 2.
3. 4.
Which alkene is most stable?
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the above compound, the correct order of hydrogen as is
1. 1 > 2 > 3 2. 2 > 3 > 1
3. 2 > 1 > 3 4. 3 > 2 > 1
Consider the following resonating structures of HCOOH
I. II.
III. IV.
The order of stability is
1. I > II > III > IV 2. IV > I > II > III
3. I > III > II > IV 4. II > I > III > IV
Which compound is most reactive towards electrophilic reaction?
1. Phenol 2. Aniline
3. Methoxy benzene 4. Toluene
may have
1. One triple bond 2. Two double bonds
3. Two cycles 4. All of these
Which of the following compounds will give negative Lassaigne's test for nitrogen?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Consider the following carbocations.
I. II.
III. IV.
The correct order of stability is
1. II > III > I > IV
2. III > I > II > IV
3. III > I > IV > II
4. II > IV > I > III
The most stable free radical is
1. 2.
3. 4.
in the above compound, at which bond proton attacks fastest?
1. A 2. B
3. C 4. D
The correct order of abstraction of hydrogen towards homolytic fission is
1. 2 > 4 > 3 > 5 > 1
2. 4 > 2 > 5 > 3 > 1
3. 4 > 2 > 3 > 5 > 1
4. 4 > 3 > 2 > 5 > 1
Lassaigne's extract is boiled with dilute before testing for halogens because
1. Silver halides are soluble in
2. and NaCN are decomposed by
3. and NaCN are oxidised by
4. AgCN is soluble in
Resonance in a molecule results in
1. Destabilisation
2. Stabilisation
3. Change in bond length
4. Both (2) and (3)
The strongest acid is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following is the strongest base in water?
1. 2.
3. 4.
How many halogen derivatives are possible for ?
1. 2 2. 4
3. 6 3. 9
The order of melting point for isomeric pentanes is
1. n-pentane > Isopentane > Neopentane
2. Neopentane > Isopentane > n-pentane
3. Neopentane > n-pentane > Isopentane
4. Isopentane > n-pentane > Neopentane
The compound 'A' is
1.
2.
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Neither (1) nor (2)
To which of the following compounds adds most readily?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which haloarene gives fastest electrophilic substitution reaction?
1. 2.
3. 4.
the compound 'A' is
1. 2.
3. 4.
the compond 'A' is
1.
2.
3.
4. No Reaction
A (Major),
the compound 'A' is
1.
2.
3.
4. No Reaction
Which compound is most reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction?
1. 2.
3. 4.
has the configuration
1. R,R 2. S,S
3. R,S 4. May be (1) or (2)
Which compound cannot show conformational isomerism?
1. 2.
3. 4.
Total number of optical isomers obtained after monohalogenation of 3-Methyl pentane are:
1. 2 2. 4
3. 6 4. 8
, the decreasing order of bond length will be
1. I>II>III 2. II>III>I
3. III>II>I 4. II>I>III
The IUPAC name of is
1. Bicyclo [0,1,2] pentane
2. Bicyclo [2,1,0] hexane
3. Bicyclo [2,1,0] pentane
4. Bicyclo [2,2,1] pentane
The IUPAC name of is
1. 3-Carboxy Pentan-1,5- dioic acid
2. Propane- 1,2,3- tricarboxylic acid
3. 1,2,3- tricarboxylic propane
4. All of these
Which conformational form of 2-Fluro ethanol is most stable?
1. Anti 2. Partially eclipsed
3. Full esclipsed 4. Gauche
Which alkene has smallest heat of hydrogenation?
1. 2.
3. 4.
(Nitro Compound)
The compound is
1. 2.
3. 4.
0.5 gm nitrogenous compound is boiled with NaOH then gas is evolved. The evolved is passed into 100 ml N/2 . the excess acid requires 40 ml 1N NaOH. The % of nitrogen in the compound is
1. 28 2. 56
3. 14 4. 72
The hybridised state of C in is
1. sp 2.
3. 4.
Starting from rest a body slides down a 45 inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is:
1. 0.75
2. 0.33
3. 0.25
4. 0.80
A wooden block of mass m resting on a rough horizontal table (coefficient of friction = ) is pulled by a force F as shown in the figure.
The acceleration of the block moving horizontally is :
1.
2.
3.
4. none
A block of mass M = 5 Kg is resting on a rough horizontal surface for which the coefficient of friction is 0.2. When a Force F = 40 N is applied as shown in the figure the acceleration of the block will be (g = 10 m/s2) :
1. 5.73 m/sec2
2. 8.0 m/sec2
3. 3.17 m/sec2
4. 10.0 m/sec2
If the normal force is doubled, the coefficient of friction is :
1. halved
2. doubled
3. tripled
4. not changed
A box 'A' is lying on the horizontal floor of the compartment of a train running along horizontal rails from left to right. At time 't' the train decelerates. Then the resultant contact force R by the floor on the box is given best by :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A cart of mass M has a block of mass m attached to it as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the block and cart is . What is the minimum acceleration of the cart so that the block m does not fall?
1.
2.
3.
4. none
A block of mass 5 Kg and surface area 2 m2 just begins to slide down an inclined plane when the angle of inclination is . Keeping mass the same, the surface area of the block is doubled. The angle at which this starts sliding down is :
1.
2.
3.
4. none
A 60 kg body is pushed horizontally with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and the same force continues to act afterward. The coefficient of static friction and sliding friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The acceleration of the body is :
1. 6 m/s2
2. 4.9 m/s2
3. 3.92 m/s2
4. 1 m/s2
A rigid body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a constant speed v. The force on the body is and is directed towards the centre. What is the work done by this force in moving the body over half the circumference of the circle?
1.
2. Zero
3.
4.
If the unit of force and length each be increased by four times, then the unit of work is increased by
1. 16 times
2. 8 times
3. 2 times
4. 4 times
A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does:
1. | negative work |
2. | positive but not maximum work |
3. | no work at all |
4. | maximum work |
A rigid body moves a distance of \(10\) m along a straight line under the action of a force of \(5\) N. If the work done by this force on the body is \(25~\text{J}\), the angle which the force makes with the direction of motion of the body is:
1. \(0^{\circ}\)
2. \(30^{\circ}\)
3. \(60^{\circ}\)
4. \(90^{\circ}\)
A rigid body of mass m Kg is lifted uniformly by a man to a height of one metre in 30 sec. Another man lifts the same mass uniformly to the same height in 60 sec. The work done on the body against gravitation by them are in the ratio :
1. 1:2
2. 1:1
3. 2:1
4. 4:1
The work done in slowly pulling up a block of wood weighing 2 kN for a length of 10m on a smooth plane inclined at an angle of 15 with the horizontal by a force parallel to the incline is
1. 4.36 kJ
2. 5.17 kJ
3. 8.91 kJ
4. 9.82 kJ
A 50 kg man with 20 kg load on his head climbs up 20 steps of 0.25 m height each. The work done by the man on the block during climbing is :
1. 5 J
2. 350 J
3. 1000 J
4. 3540 J
A particle moves from position to position under the action of force N. The work done by this force will be
1. 100 J
2. 46 J
3. 200 J
4. 75 J
A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio of work done by the force of gravity in the first, second and third second of the motion of the ball is
1. 1:2:3
2. 1:4:9
3. 1:3:5
4. 1:5:3
A block of mass m is suspended by a light thread from an elevator. The elevator is accelerating upward with uniform acceleration a. The work done by tension on the block during t seconds is (u = 0):
1.
2.
3.
4. 0
The kinetic energy of a body of mass \(2\) kg and momentum of \(2\) N-s is:
1. \(1\) J
2. \(2\) J
3. \(3\) J
4. \(4\) J
A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force F for a time t. Its kinetic energy after an interval t is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
The graph between the magnitude of resistive force \(F\) acting on a body and the position of the body traveling in a straight line is shown in the figure. The mass of the body is \(25~\text{kg}\) and the initial velocity is \(2~\text{m/s}\). When the distance covered by the body is \(4~\text{m}\), its Kinetic energy would be (not other force acts on it):
1. \(50~\text{J}\)
2. \(40~\text{J}\)
3. \(20~\text{J}\)
4. \(90~\text{J}\)
Find the moment of inertia of a plate cut in the shape of a right-angled triangle of mass M, side AC = BC = a about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the plate and passing through the midpoint of side AB
1.
2.
3.
4.
Three identical thin rods each of mass m & length l are placed along x, y & z-axis respectively. They are placed such that, one end of each rod is at origin 'O'. The moment of inertia of this system about the z-axis is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two rods of equal mass m and length l lie along the x-axis and y-axis with their centres at the origin. What is the moment of inertia of both about the line x=y :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Moment of inertia of a rectangular plate about an axis passing through P and perpendicular to the plate is I. Then the moment of inertia of PQR about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the plate:
1. about P = I/2
2. about R = I/2
3. about P > I/2
4. about R > I/2
In the triangular sheet given PQ = QR = l. If M is the mass of the sheet. What is the moment of inertial about PR :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Moment of inertia of a thin semicircular disc (mass = M & radius = R) about an axis through point O and perpendicular to plane of the disc, is given by :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Moment of inertia of a semicircular ring of radius R and mass M; about an axis passing through A and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A uniform cylinder of mass m can rotate freely about its own axis which is horizontal. A particle of mass hangs from the end of a light string wound round the cylinder which does not slip over it. When the system is allowed to move, the acceleration of the descending mass will be -
1.
2.
3.
4.
A uniform rod of length l, hinged at the lower end is free to rotate in the vertical plane. If the rod is held vertically in the beginning and then released, the angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an angle of 45 with the horizontal (I = ml2/3)
1.
2.
3.
4.
A block of mass m is attached to a pulley disc of equal mass m, radius r by means of a slack string as shown. The pulley is hinged about its centre on a horizontal table and the block is projected with an initial velocity of 5 m/s. Its velocity when the string becomes taut will be-
1. 3 m/s
2. 2.5 m/s
3. 5/3 m/s
4. 10/3 m/s
A small bead of mass m moving with velocity v gets threaded on a stationary semicircular ring of mass m and radius R kept on a horizontal table. The ring can freely rotate about its centre. The bead comes to rest relative to the ring. What will be the final angular velocity of the system?
1. V/R
2. 2V/R
3. V/2R
4. 3V/R
A small object is attached to a light string that passes through a hollow tube. The tube is held by one hand and the string by the other. The object is set into rotation in a circle of radius r1. The string is then pulled down, shortening the radius of the circle to r2. The ratio of the new kinetic energy to original kinetic energy is :
1.
2. 1
3.
4.
A man, sitting firmly over a rotating stool has his arms stretched. If he folds his arms, the work done by the man is
1. Zero
2. positive
3. negative
4. may be positive or negative.
A particle of mass 2 kg located at the position m has a velocity of 2 m/s. Its angular momentum about z-axis in kg-m2/s is :
1. Zero
2. +8
3. 12
4. -8
A ladder of length L is slipping with its ends against a vertical wall and a horizontal floor. At a certain moment, the speed of the end in contact with the horizontal floor is v and the ladder makes an angle = 30 with the horizontal. Then the speed of the ladder's center must be -
1.
2. V/2
3. V
4. None
Two spheres are rolling with the same velocity (for their C.M.). Their ratio of kinetic energy is 2:1 & radius ratio is 2:1, their mass ratio will be :
1. 2 : 1
2. 4 : 1
3. 8 : 1
4.
A ring of mass m and radius R has three particles attached to the ring as shown in the figure. The centre of the ring has a speed . The Kinetic energy of the system is: (Slipping in absent)
1.
2.
3.
4.
The linear speed of a uniform spherical shell after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height \(h\) from rest is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ball is thrown upward and it returns to ground describing a parabolic path. Which of the following remains constant?
1. The kinetic energy of the ball
2. speed of the ball
3. horizontal component of velocity
4. none of the above
A gun of mass 1 kg fires a bullet of mass 1g with a velocity of 1ms-1. The recoil velocity of the gun is
1. 1 ms-1
2. 0.1 ms-1
3. 0.01 ms-1
4. 0.001 ms-1
A bullet of mass m moving with a velocity v is fired into a large wooden block of mass M. If the bullet remains embedded in the wooden block, the velocity of the system will be -
1.
2.
3.
4.
A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block lying on a frictionless surface. In this process
1. Only momentum is conserved
2. Only Kinetic energy is conserved
3. Both momentum and Kinetic energy are conserved
4. Neither momentum nor Kinetic energy is conserved.
A spring is compressed between two toy cars of masses M1 and M2. When the cars are released, they move apart with velocities v1 and v2 respectively. Which of the following relation is correct?
1. M1 v1 = M2v2
2. M1 v2 = M2v1
3.
4.
A spring is compressed between two toy cars of masses and . When the cars are released, they move apart with velocities and respectively let x1 and x2 be the displacements of the cars when in contact with the spring, then
1.
2.
3.
4.
Besides helper T cells, what are two other types of cells that HIV infects?
1. macrophages and brain cells
2. B cells and liver cells
3. plasma cells and neutrophils
4. cytotoxic T cells and brain cells
When searching for a donor for an organ transplant, doctors try to match the __________ of the donor and recipient as closely as possible.
(1) antibodies
(2) blood type
(3) MHC proteins
(4) Leukocytes
In a series of immune system experiments, the thymus glands were removed from baby mice. Which of the following would you predict as a likely result?
(1) The mice suffered from numerous allergies.
(2) The mice never developed cancerous tumors.
(3) The mice suffered from autoimmune diseases.
(4) The mice readily accepted tissue transplants.
The antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule are formed from the molecule's variable regions. Why are these regions described as variable?
1. | They can change their shapes to fit different antigens. |
2. | They change their shapes when they bind to an antigen. |
3. | Their specific shapes are unimportant. |
4. | The amino acid sequences of these regions vary widely among antibodies from different B cells. |
Chemicals produced by virus-infected cells that alert neighboring cells to prepare a defense are called:
(1) antibodies
(2) interferons
(3) cytokines
(4) antigens
For the stability of the organic compounds, Oparin opined that, probably:
1. | UV radiation never reached the surface of the primeval Earth |
2. | the primeval Earth was in a molten state |
3. | the primeval Earth atmosphere was reducing rather than oxidizing |
4. | plenty of energy sources were available for chemical reactions to occur |
For the origin of life, which of the following is not a precondition needed to be fulfilled by the protobionts under consideration?
1. | They should have been able to totally isolate themselves from the general environment. |
2. | They should have been able to replicate. |
3. | They should have acquired a perpetual source of energy. |
4. | Their replication should have been subject to error via mutation. |
The first genetic code of life was based on:
1. | DNA | 2. | RNA |
3. | Proteins | 4. | Lipids |
Which of the following is not a precondition for Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
1. The population should be large
2. The mating should be assortative
3. There is no gene flow into or out of the population
4. All offspring should be equally fertile.
What is genetic equilibrium?
1. When all the alleles of a gene are present in a population in equal frequencies
2. When the number of heterozygotes in a population is equal to the number of either of the homozygote.
3. When the number of heterozygotes in a population is equal to the number of either of the homozygote.
4. When the frequency of particular genes or alleles remains constant in a population through generations
Which of the following is the most important precondition for speciation to occur?
1. | Reproductive isolation | 2. | A crash of the population size |
3. | Adaptive radiation | 4. | Random mating |
Some of the marsupials of Australia resemble equivalent placental mammals that live in similar habitats on other continents. This is an example of:
1. | Convergent evolution | 2. | Divergent evolution |
3. | Saltatory evolution | 4. | Adaptive radiation |
The only evolutionary agent that produces adaptive evolutionary changes is :
(1) Nonrandom mating
(2) Mutation
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Natural selection
A population of an animal is hunted down to only 20 organisms. Later the number is restored to 10,000 organisms, but the variations in this population are highly reduced. This is called:
1. Founder Effect
2. Bottleneck effect
3. Edge effect
4. Heterosis
What is the half life of U238, the radioactive isotope of uranium?
(1) 4500 years
(2) 4.5 million years
(3) 45 million years
(4) 4.6 billion years
The earliest known members of the horse family belong to the genus:
1. Hyracotherium
2. Equus
3. Mesohippus
4. Merychippus
In a population of red (dominant) and white flowers, the frequency of red flowers is 91 %. What is the frequency of the red allele?
(1) 9 %
(2) 30 %
(3) 91 %
(4) 70 %
............... operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes.
(1) Directional selection
(2) Disruptive selection
(3) Stabilizing selection
(4) Random chance
The best test of relatedness of two species is in the similarity of their :
(1) Anatomy
(2) DNA and Proteins
(3) Development
(4) Courtship behavior
The selecting agent in industrial melanism was :
(1) humans
(2) toxins from smoke
(3) birds
(4) tree bark
Many bacteria are now resistant to penicillin, because:
(1) penicillin causes gene mutations, some of which are beneficial
(2) previously resistant forms survived and reproduced better than non-resistant forms
(3) the hospital environment inhibits competition among bacteria
(4) penicillin triggers the synthesis of resistant proteins
The unit of evolution is now known to be the:
(1) individual
(2) family
(3) population
(4) species
A change in allele frequency within a population, over a succession of generations, is called:
(1) microevolution, or adaptive evolution
(2) macroevolution, or speciation
(3) coevolution
(4) phylogenetic evolution
A plant population that reproduces by self - pollination is an extreme example of :
(1) the bottleneck effect
(2) the founder effect
(3) rapid gene flow
(4) assortative mating
Natural selection is best defined as occurring when the environment causes :
(1) differential success in reproduction
(2) differential mortality
(3) assortative mating
(4) a reduced gene pool
People who carry an allele for normal hemoglobin and an allele for sickle cell are resistant to malaria. They are examples of:
1. heteozygote advantage
2. extreme diploidy
3. outbreeding
4. recessive superiority
A deleterious allele decreases more rapidly in frequency if it is:
(1) recently mutated
(2) rare
(3) dominant
(4) Recessive
Natural selection acts on an organism’s:
(1) dominant alleles
(2) recessive, homozygous alleles
(3) phenotype
(4) combined genotype