Match each item in COLUMN I with one in COLUMN II and select your answer from the codes given:
|
COLUMN I |
|
COLUMN II |
|
SCIENTIST |
|
CONTRIBUTION |
A. |
Francis Crick |
a. |
Breaking the genetic code |
B. |
Nirenberg |
b. |
Established Caenorhabditis elegans as a model genetics study organism |
C. |
Benzer |
c. |
Central dogma of molecular biology |
D. |
Brenner |
d. |
Bacteriophage genetics |
Codes:
A. B. C. D.
1. c a d b
2. c a b d
3. a b c d
4. a c d b
Identify the incorrect statement regarding experiments on Pisum sativum by Gregor Mendel?
1. | He conducted hybridization experiments on garden peas for seven years (1856-1863) and proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms. |
2. | It was for the first time that statistical analysis and mathematical logic were applied to problems in biology. |
3. | Unfortunately his experiments had a small sampling size, which gave less credibility to the data that he collected. |
4. | He investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits. |
A plant, on repeated self pollination, preserves the trait expressed for many generations. Such a plant is said to be:
(1) Panmictic
(2) Homologous
(3) Apomictic
(4) Pure line
Which of the following is a recessive trait for a character chosen by Mendel in garden pea?
1. Violet flower colour
2. Yellow pod colour
3. Axial flower position
4. Tall stem height
The F1 progeny in monohybrid crosses by Mendel resembled:
1. The parent exhibiting dominant trait completely
2. The parent exhibiting recessive trait completely
3. The parent exhibiting dominant trait partly
4. The parent exhibiting recessive trait partly
Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits or slightly different forms of the same gene are known as:
1.Alleles
2. Loci
3. Cistrons
4. Introns
In a true breeding the allelic pair of genes are
1. Homologous
2. Linked
3. Stable
4. Homozygous
Identify the incorrect statement:
(1) Tall plant produces gametes by meiosis and the dwarf plant by mitosis
(2) Only one allele is transmitted to a gamete.
(3) This segregation of alleles is a random process.
(4) Gametes will always be pure for the trait.
A test cross is done to find out:
(1) Fitness of an organism
(2) Genotype of a plant expressing dominant phenotype
(3) The suitable parents for a Mendelian Cross
(4) The hidden genotypic ratio of F2 phenotypes
What is the ratio of a typical monohybrid test cross?
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1: 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1
The law of Segregation is based on the fact that
1. The alleles do not show any blending
2. There is random fertilization
3. Gametes are pure for the trait
4. The zygotes are diploid
The inheritance of flower colour in dog flower and 4’O clock plant exhibits:
1. Complete dominance
2. Incomplete dominance
3. Co-dominance
4. Lethality
The ultimate source of allelic variation is:
(1) Recombination
(2) Natural selection
(3) Mutation
(4) Drift
In complete dominance, the recessive allele with respect to the dominant allele:
1. Produces no product
2. Produces a different product
3. Produces half the product
4. Produces no product or a non-functional product
In the case of co-dominance, the F1 generation resembles:
(1) Dominant parent
(2) Recessive parent
(3) Both the parents
(4) None of the parents
The number of alleles, the genotypic combinations and phenotypes in ABO system is respectively:
(1) 3, 6 and 4
(2) 3, 4 and 6
(3) 2, 3 and 4
(4) 2, 3, and 6
What can the possible blood groups of progeny whose father and mother are of A and B blood group respectively?
(1) A and B only
(2) AB only
(3) All except O
(4) A, B, AB and O
Suppose a gene has seven alleles. What would be the number of alleles in an individual at any instant?
(1) 1
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) 3
In case of starch synthesis in pea seeds [controlled by B gene], BB homozygotes produce large and round starch grains; bb homozygotes produce smaller and wrinkled starch grains and Heterozygotes produce round seeds of intermediate size. What can be inferred from this observation?
(1) The gene B mutates at a faster rate.
(2) The gene B is easily influenced by the environment
(3) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for
(4) Some genes do not follow the law of segregation
When Mendel self hybridized F1 progeny of a dihybrid cross between pure Yellow Round seeded plants and Green Wrinkled plants, he observed that yellow and green colour segregated in a ratio of:
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1
In 1900 Mendel’s work was rediscovered by:
1. Korana, Nirenberg and Mathei
2. De Vries, Correns and von Tschermak
3. Avery, McCleod and McCarty
4. Watson, Crick and Wilkins
When Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and intercrossed their F1 progeny, the F2 ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio. This can be attributed to the fact that:
(1) The genes are located on X and Y chromosomes.
(2) Fruit fly has abnormal chromosomes
(3) The genes are located on the X chromosome
(4) The genes exhibit incomplete dominance
Genes tightly linked on the same chromosome show:
(1) Very high recombination
(2) Independent assortment
(3) Very low recombination
(4) 50 % recombination
In humans, the mechanism of sex determination is:
(1) XX – XY; male heterogamety
(2) XX – XY; female heterogamety
(3) XX – XO; male heterogamety
(4) XX – XO; female heterogamety
A couple has a daughter. What is the probability that their next child will be a daughter?
(1) 0 %
(2) 25 %
(3) 50 %
(4) 100 %
Identify the incorrect statement:
(1) In addition to recombination, mutation is another phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA.
(2) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.
(3) A classical example of a point mutation is sickle cell anemia.
(4) Non ionising radiations cannot be mutagens.
Pedigree analysis is resorted to for genetic analysis in humans rather than conventional genetic methods because:
I. Choice matings are not possible
II. Number of progeny is limited
Of the two statements:
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Which of the following is not an X – linked recessive disorder in humans?
(1) Red green colour blindness
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(4) Vitamin D resistant rickets
Thalesemia is inherited as a/an ____________ condition.
(1) Autosomal recessive
(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Sex linked recessive
(4) Sexlinked dominant
What is incorrect for Hemophilia?
(1) In this disease, a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood is affected.
(2) In an affected individual a simple cut will result in non-stop bleeding.
(3) The heterozygous female (carrier) for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
(4) The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female has to be hemophilic and the father should be carrier.
The point mutation in sickle cell anaemia leads to a change in codon. Identify the correct change:
(1) UGA to UAA
(2) GUG to GAG
(3) GAG to GUG
(4) UAA to UGA
In sickle cell anaemia, the mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes
(1) Polymerisation under low oxygen tension causing that changes the shape of the RBC to sickle like structure
(2) Depolymerisation under low oxygen tension causing that changes the shape of the RBC to sickle like structure
(3) Denaturation under high oxygen tension causing that changes the shape of the RBC to sickle like structure
(4) Denaturation
In Phenylketonuria,
I: | Phenylpyruvic acid and other derivatives are accumulated in brain resulting in mental retardation. |
II: | These are also excreted through urine because of its poor absorption by kidney. |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both are correct
4. Both are incorrect
When there is a change in chromosome number such that the changes number is not an exact multiple of base number [haploid number], the condition is called as:
(1) Euploidy
(2) Aneuploidy
(3) Aberration
(4) Non-disjunction
Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an organism and,this phenomenon is known as:
1. Aneuploidy
2. Translocation
3. Polyploidy
4. Inversion
The number of autosomes in a human egg would be:
(1) 22
(2) 23
(3) 1
(4) 2
Which of the following is not a feature of Down’s Syndrome?
(1) It is caused by a non-disjunction in an autosome
(2) The affected individual has trisomy of chromosome 21
(3) The affected individual has a characteristic simian palmar crease
(4) The mental development of affected individual is normal.
An individual affected by Klinefelter’syndrome:
(1) Has 47 autosomes
(2) Has overall feminine development
(3) Has gynecomastia
(4) Has an additional copy of Y chromosome.
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
Organism | Length of DNA |
1. Bacteriophage ϕ 174 | 5386 base pairs |
2. Bacteriophage Lambda | 48502 base pairs |
3. Escherichia coli | 4.6 X 10^6 base pairs |
4. Human beings | 3.3 X 10^9 base pairs |
To form a nucleoside, a nitrogenous base is linked to a pentose sugar:
(1) Through a P-Glycosidic linkage at carbon atom number 1
(2) Through a P-Glycosidic linkage at carbon atom number 5
(3) Through a N-Glycosidic linkage at carbon atom number 1
(4) Through a N-Glycosidic linkage at carbon atom number 5
Which of the following would be nucleoside found only in RNA?
(1) Thymidine
(2) Cytidine
(3) Uridine
(4) Adenosine
In a strand of a nucleic acid. Two nucleotides are linked together by:
(1) 3’ – 5’ phosphodiester bond
(2) 5’ – 3’ phosphodiester bond
(3) 2’ – 5’ phosphodiester bond
(4) 3’ – 1’ phosphodiester bond
What is another name for thymine?
1. 5 – bromouracil
2. 3 – bromouracil
3. 3 – methyl uracil
4. 5 – methyl uracil
Watson and Crick based their model of DNA on X-ray diffraction data produced by:
1. Hershey and Chase
2. Marie Curie and Pierre Curie
3. Franklin and Wilkins
4. Meselson and Stahl
According to Erwin Chargaff, for a double stranded DNA
1. The ratios between Adenine and Thymine, and , Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals one.
2. The ratios between Adenine and Thymine, and , Guanine and Cytosine are constant but is not equal to one.
3. The ratios between Adenine and Guanine, and , Thymine and Cytosine are constant and equals one.
4. The ratios between Adenine and Guanine, and , Thymine and Cytosine are constant but is not equal to one.
The base pairing in a double stranded DNA is correctly described as:
(1) Similar
(2) Identical
(3) Complementary
(4) Synergistic
If each strand of a ds DNA acts as a template for new strand, the two daughter DNA will be:
(1) Complementary to each other
(2) Identical to the parental DNA
(3) Similar to each other
(4) Complementary to the parental DNA
Which of the following is not a feature of the double helix model of DNA?
1. The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
2. A purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine
3. The pitch of the DNA is 3.4 nm
4. The two chains are coiled in a left handed fashion
In some viruses, the flow of genetic information is from RNA to DNA. These viruses are:
(1) Reverse transcriptase
(2) Teminism
(3) Ribozymes
(4) Retroviruses
In prokaryotes:
(1) A typical nucleus is not seen and DNA is scattered throughout the cell
(2) A typical nucleus may sometimes be present and DNA is scattered throughout a cell
(3) A typical nucleus is not seen but DNA is not scattered throughout the cell
(4) A typical nucleus may sometimes be present but DNA is not scattered throughout the cell
Histones are rich in amino acids:
(1) Arginine and Lysine
(2) Argine and Leucine
(3) Arginine and Isoleucine
(4) Aspartate and Glutamate
A typical nucleosome unit consists of about:
1. 60 base pairs
2. 140 base pairs
3. 200 base pairs
4. 400 base pairs
During DNA packaging in eukaryotic cells, Non Histone Chromosomal proteins:
1. Are not required
2. Are required from the beginning to the end of packaging
3. Are required only for earlier stages of packaging
4. Are required for higher level of packaging
Frederick Griffith discovered:
(1) DNA is the genetic material
(2) RNA can be the genetic material
(3) Sterptococcus has two strains
(4) Bacterial transformation
In Avery, Macleod and McCarty experiment, the transformation of bacteria was inhibited by:
(1) Proteases
(2) RNase
(3) DNAs
(4) None of these
Viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contain:
(1) Radioactive proteins but not DNA
(2) Radioactive DNA but not proteins
(3) Radioactive proteins and DNA
(4) Nonradioactive DNA and protein
Hershey and Chase proved DNA as the genetic material as in their experiment:
(1) Bacteria that were infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive
(2) Bacteria that were infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive
(3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(4) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
RNA is not the genetic material in:
1. Tobacco mosaic virus
2. QB bacteriophage
3. HIV
4. Archaebacteria
A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill all the following criteria except:
(1) It should be able to generate its replica
(2) It should chemically and structurally be stable
(3) It should provide scope for rapid mutations
(4) It should be able to express itself in the form of “Mendelian Characters”
DNA is structurally and chemically more stable than RNA because of all the following except:
(1) It has thymine instead of uracil
(2) 2’ –OH is absent in DNA
(3) It replicates itself based on complementary base pairing
(4) It does not have any catalytic role
The protein synthesizing machinery of a cell has evolved around:
(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Protein itself
(4) Viroids
Who proposed semi-conservative mode of replication for DNA?
(1) Watson and Crick
(2) Meselson and Stahl
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Beadle and Tatum
What radioactive isotope was use by Meselson and Stahl to label DNA in their experiment?
1. 35 S
2. 15 N
3. 32 P
4. None
If E.coli was allowed to grow for 80 minutes after transfer from 15N to 14N medium the number of hybrid density DNA molecules would be:
(1) 2
(2) 16
(3) 14
(4) 8
Any mistakes during DNA replication by the enzyme would result into:
(1) Cancer
(2) Apoptosis
(3) Cell fragmentation
(4) Mutation
Which of the following acts as the substrate and provide energy for DNA replication?
(1) Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(2) Ribonucleoside triphosphates
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(4) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates
The discontinuously synthesized DNA fragments are later joined by:
(1) DNA helicase
(2) Topoisomerase
(3) DNA ligase
(4) DNA polymerase
Which of the following is true for both transcription and DNA replication?
(1) Principle of complementarity governs the processes
(2) Only of the two strands act as template
(3) Only a segment of both strands is involved
(4) Adenine base pairs with thymine
A transcription unit does not contain:
(1) Promoter
(2) Operator
(3) Structural gene
(4) Terminator
DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization in:
(1) Only in 3’ – 5’ direction
(2) Only in 5’ – 3’ direction
(3) In both directions
(4) In neither directions
What defines a coding and a template strand in the transcription unit?
(1) Structural gene
(2) Ori
(3) Terminator
(4) Promoter
A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide is most accurately defined as:
(1) Operon
(2) Gene
(3) Recon
(4) Cistron
In eukaryotes the sequences that appear in mature or processed mRNA are called:
(1) Introns
(2) Cistrons
(3) Exons
(4) Mutons
Which of the following RNAs plays both structural and catalytic roles?
(1) mRNA
(2) tRNA
(3) rRNA
(4) miRNA
What facilitates the opening of the helix during elongation step of transcription?
(1) RNA polymerase
(2) Helicase
(3) Topoisomerase
(4) Gyrase
Which of the following helps in termination of transcription?
(1) Sigma factor
(2) Translocase
(3) Ubiquitin
(4) Rho factor
Transcription and translation can be coupled in:
(1) Bacteria
(2) Yeast
(3) Plants
(4) Animals
In eukaryotes RNA polymerase II transcribes:
(1) mRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) hnRNA
What is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in Eukryotes?
1. Poly A tail
2. Methyl cytosine triphosphate
3. Methyl guanosine triphosphate
4. Poly U tail
Which enzyme polymerizes RNA with defined sequences in a template independent manner?
(1) Peptidyl transferase
(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. Hence genetic code is:
(1) Unambiguous
(2) Non specific
(3) Degenerate
(4) Universal
The amino acid acceptor arm of the tRNA is at its:
(1) DHU loop
(2) TψC loop
(3) 5’ end
(4) 3’ end
In actual structure, tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like a/an:
(1) Clover leaf
(2) Rail road
(3) Inverted L
(4) Alpha helix
Which of the following anticodons will hybridize with the mRNA codon 5’ – AUG – 3’?
1. 5’ – UAC – 3’
2. 5’ – TAC – 3’
3. 3’ – UAC – 5’
4. 3’ – TAC – 5’
Which of the following acts as a ribozyme for peptide bond formation in bacteria?
(1) 5s rRNA
(2) 23s rRNA
(3) 16s rRNA
(4) 5.1s rRNA
The UTR [untranslated regions] in an mRNA:
(1) Are present only at 5’ end and are not required for efficient translation
(2) Are present only at 3’ end and are not required for efficient translation
(3) Are present at both 5’ and 3’ ends and are not required for efficient translation
(4) Are present at both 5’ and 3’ ends and are required for efficient translation process
Gene regulation in prokaryotes is carried out exclusively at the level of:
(1) Initiation of transcription
(2) Post transcriptional modifications
(3) Translation
(4) Post translational modifications
The repressor of lac operon is:
(1) Lactose itself
(2) A steroid
(3) Synthesized constitutively
(4) A product of structural gene
A very low level of expression of the lac operon has to be present in the cell:
(1) When lactose is present
(2) When lactose is absent
(3) When glucose is absent
(4) All the time
The lac operon is regarded as:
(1) Negative, Inducible
(2) Negative, Repressible
(3) Positive, Inducible
(4) Positive, Repressible
What is the molarity of solution that has a density 1.84 g/cc at and contains 98% by weight?
1. 4.18 M 2. 8.14 M
3. 18.4 M 4. 18 M
In the reaction
When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of are made to react to completion, then
1. 1.0 mol of is produced
2. 1.0 mol of NO will be produced
3. all the oxygen will be consumed
4. all the ammonia will be consumed
molecules are removed from 200 mg of . The moles of left are
1. 2.
3. 4.
The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by one gram of the gas at STP is
1. 1.0 L
2. 11.2 L
3. 22.4 L
4. None of these
How many moles of magnesium phosphate, will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atom?
1. 0.02
2.
3.
4.
The number of radial nodes for 3p-orbital is
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
The ratio of the energy of the electron in ground state of hydrogen to the electron in first excited state of is
1. 1 : 4
2. 1 : 8
3. 1 : 16
4. 16 : 1
The most intense line in the Brackett series of the spectrum of atomic hydrogen is the transition.
1.
2.
3.
4.
If Aufbau rule is not used, 19th electron in Sc (Z = 21) will have
1. n = 3, l = 0
2. n = 3, l = 1
3. n = 3, l = 2
4. n = 4, l = 0
Which is a possible set of quantum numbers for a valence electron in ground state atom of phosphorus (Z = 15)?
1. n = 2, l = 1, = 0, = +1/2
2. n = 3, l = 0, = 0, = 0
3. n = 3, l = 1, = -1, = +1/2
4. n = 3, l = 2, = 0, = -1/2
The ionisation energy of gaseous Na-atom is 495.80 kJ . The lowest possible frequency of light that can ionise a Na-atom
The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling with 10% of velocity of light is equal to
1. 242.4 pm
2. 24.2 pm
3. 2.42 pm
4. 2.424 pm
Ionisation energy of H is 19.6 J ato. The energy of first stationary state (n = 1) of Li2+ is
The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is The uncertainty in its position will be
()
What should be the number of electrons present in on the basis of electronic configuration, if has 14 protons?
1. 12 2. 13
3. 14 4. 15
A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionisation energies of element would be associated with the following electronic configuration.
Which of the correct order of size and F?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The correct decreasing order of ionic radius is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Consider the isoelectronic ions and . The radii of these ionic species follow the order
1.
2.
3.
4.
The ions and are isoelectronic. Their iionic radii show
1. an increase from to and then decrease from to
2. a decrease from to and then increase from to
3. a significant increase from to
4. a significant decrease from to
EN of the element (A) is and IE is . Hence EA will be
1. 2 - 2. -
3. - 2 4. (+)/2
Among the following most metallic element is
1. Mg 2. Li
3. K 4. Ca
The heat of hydration of and in the decreasing order is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The reactivity of metal with water is in the order of
1. Na > Mg > Zn > Fe > Cu
2. Cu > Fe > Zn > Mg > Na
3. Mg > Zn > Na > Fe > Cu
4. Zn > Na > Mg >Fe > Cu
Which of the following order is wrong?
1. Acidic
2. Li < Be < B < C
3. Basic
4. Ionic radius
The incrasing order for the solubility of NaCl, and in water.
1.
2.
3.
4.
In terms of polar character, which one of the following order is correct?
1.
2.
3.
4.
What is the geometry of nitrogen atom in , and 3 molecules?
I. Trigonal planar
II. Trigonal pyramidal
III. Square planar
Choose the correct option.
1. I, I and I 2. II, II and III
3. II, II and I 4. II, I and II
The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of N in , and respectively are
1. sp, ,
2. sp,
3.
4.
Decreasing order of stability of , , and is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl. What explains the higher boiling point of the hydrogen fluoride
1. The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for the other elements in the group
2. There is a strong hydrogen bonding between HF
3. The bond energy HF is greater than other hydrogen halides
4. The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF molecule
In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural?
1.
2. Diamond, silicon carbide
3.
4.
Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape?
1. 2.
3. 4.
The structure of is experimentally determined to be distorted octahedron. Its structure according to VSEPR theory is
1. octahedron
2. trigonal bipyramidal
3. pentagonal bipyramidal
4. tetragonal bipyramidal
The type of attractive forces that operate between gaseous HCl and chlorine molecule
1. dipole-dipole forces
2. London forces
3. Electrostatics forces
4. dipole-induced dipole forces
Dipole - induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs?
1. and alcohol
2. and
3. HCl and He-atoms
4. and He-atoms
The hydrogen bond is shortest in
1. S - H - - - S
2. S - H - - - O
3. F - H - - - O
4. F - H - - - F
Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
1. CO 2.
3. 4.
During the formation of a chemical bond
1. electron - electron repulsion becomes more than the nucleus - electron attraction
2. energy of the system does not change
3. energy increases
4. energy decreases
The bond and bond in ethane are formed by which of the following types of overlap?
1. -sp and -
2. sp-s and sp - sp
3. p-s and p-p
4. -s to -
Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain unpaired electron?
1. 2.
3. 4.
The paramagnetic behaviour of is due to the presence of
1. 2 unpaired electrons in
2. 2 unpaired electrons in MO
3. 2 unpaired electrons in MO
4. 2 unpaired electrons in MO
Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridisation of orbitals, , , , ,
1. and
2. and
3. and
4. and
Among the following, the paramagnetic compound is
1. 2.
3. 4.
The structure of is
1. linear 2. planar
3. pyramidal 4. T-shaped
Six charges are placed at the corner of a regular hexagon as shown. If an electron is placed at its centre O, the force on it will be:
1. Zero
2. Along OF
3. Along OC
4. None of these
A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an electric field produced by a point charge placed at P as shown in the figure. Let ,, be the potential at points A, B and C respectively. Then:
(1) >
(2) >
(3) >
(4) =
The concentric spheres are of radii and . The outer sphere is given a charge q. The charge q' on the inner sphere will be (the inner sphere is grounded)
1. q
2. -q
3. -q
4. Zero
In a uniform electric field, the potential is 10V at the origin, and 8V at each of the points (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0) and (0, 0, 1). The potential at the point (1, 1, 1) will be
1. 0
2. 4V
3. 8V
4. 10V
In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the centre. Identical charges are placed at (n-1) corners. At the centre, the intensity is E and the potential is V. The ratio V/E has a magnitude
(1) rn
(2) r(n-1)
(3) (n-1)/r
(4) r(n-1)/n
The dipole moment of a system of charge +q distributed uniformly on an arc of radius R subtending an angle /2 at its centre where another charge -q is placed is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Electric flux through a surface of area 100 lying in the XY plane is (in V-m). If
(1) 100
(2) 141.4
(3) 173.2
(4) 200
There are four concentric shells A, B, C and D of radii a, 2a, 3a, and 4a respectively. Shells B and D are given charges +q and -q respectively. Shell C is now earthed. The potential difference is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1000 small water drops each of radius r and charge q coalesce together to form one spherical drop. The potential of the bigger drop is larger than that of the smaller one by a factor:
1. 1000
2. 100
3. 10
4. 1
A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected alternately. If the capacitance between any two plates is C, then the resulting capacitance is:
1. C
2. nC
3. (n-1)C
4. (n+1)C
A metal ball of radius R is placed concentrically inside a hollow metal sphere of inner radius 2R and outer radius 3R. The ball is given a charge +2Q and the hollow sphere a total charge -Q. The electrostatic potential energy of this system is :
1.
2.
3.
4. None
If K is the dielectric constant of a medium and permittivity of free space, then the energy stored per unit volume of the medium is given by:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
When an uncharged metal sphere is brought closer to a positively charged sphere, the uncharged sphere will:
1. Move away from charged one
2. Move towards the charged one
3. Does not move at all
4. Move towards or away depending upon the magnitude of charge
A point charge is kept at the centre of a metallic insulated spherical shell. Then:
(1) The electric field outside the sphere is zero
(2) The electric field inside the sphere is zero
(3) Net induced charge on the sphere is zero
(4) Electric potential inside the sphere is zero
Let be the charge density distribution for a solid sphere of radius and total charge . For a point inside the sphere at distance from the centre of the sphere, the magnitude of the electric field is:
1. Zero
2.
3.
4.
An electron at rest has a charge of . It starts moving with a velocity , where c is the speed of light, then the new charge on it is-
(1) Coulomb
(2) Coulomb
(3) Coulomb
(4) Coulomb
A spherical portion has been removed from a solid sphere having a charge distributed uniformly in its volume as shown in the figure. The electric field inside the emptied space is:
1. Zero everywhere
2. Non-zero and uniform
3. Non-uniform
4. Zero only at its centre
Two similar charge +Q, as shown in the figure, are placed at A and B. -q charge is placed at point C midway between A and B. Charge -q will oscillate if
1. It is moved towards A
2. It is moved towards B
3. It is moved perpendicular to AB
4. Distance between A and B is reduced.
A certain charge Q is divided at first into two parts, (q) and (Q-q). Later on the charges are placed at a certain distance. If the force of interaction between the two charges is maximum then -
(1) (Q/q) = (4/1)
(2) (Q/q) = (2/1)
(3) (Q/q) = (3/1)
(4) (Q/q) = (5/1)
A unit charge is one when placed in vacuum one cm from an equal charge of the same kind will repel it with a force of-
(1) 1 Newton
(2) 1 dyne
(3) 2 dyne
(4) 4 dyne
Equal charges of each are placed at a point x = 0, 2, 4, and 8 cm on the x-axis. The force experienced by the charge at x=2 cm is equal to-
1. 5 Newton
2. 10 Newton
3. 0 Newton
4. 15 Newton
Three equal charges (q) are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. The force on any charge is-
1. Zero
2.
3.
4.
A proton is first placed at A and then at B between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor charged to a P.D. of V volt as shown. Then force on proton at A is-
(1) More than that at B
(2) Less than that at B
(3) Equal to that at B
(4) Nothing can be said
When a charge of 3 coulombs is placed in a uniform electric field, it experiences a force of 3000 newtons, within this field, the potential difference between two points separated by a distance of 1 cm is-
(1) 10 Volt
(2) 90 Volt
(3) 1000 Volt
(4) 3000 Volt
A uniform electric field having a magnitude and direction along positive x-axis exists. If the electric potential (V) is zero at x=0 then its value at x= +x will be-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Two conducting spheres of radii and have the same electric field near their surfaces. The ratio of their electric potential is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The net charge on the sphere is then:
(1) Negative and distributed uniformly over the surface of the sphere
(2) Negative and appears only at the point on the sphere closest to the point charge.
(3) Negative and distributed non-uniformly over the entire surface of the sphere
(4) Zero
A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting cylinder of a larger radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral.
(1) A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the inner cylinder.
(2) A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the outer cylinder.
(3) No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a uniform line charge is kept along the axis of the cylinders
(4) No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when the same charge density is given to both the cylinders.
A solid metallic sphere has a charge . Concentric with this sphere is a conducting spherical shell having charge -Q. The radius of the sphere is a and that of the spherical shell is b(b>a). What is the electric field at a distance R(a<R<b) from the centre?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The electrostatic field due to a charged conductor just outside the conductor is:
(1) Zero and parallel to the surface at every point inside the conductor
(2) Zero and is normal to the surface at every point inside the conductor
(3) Parallel to the surface at every point and zero inside the conductor
(4) Normal to the surface at every point and zero inside the conductor
An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges each of magnitude separated by a distance 2 cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of . The maximum torque on the dipole is-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A small conducting sphere of radius r is lying concentrically inside a bigger hollow conducting sphere of radius R. The bigger and smaller spheres are charged with Q and q(Q>q) and are insulated from each other. The potential difference between the spheres will be:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is:
(1) E along KO
(2) 3E along OK
(3) 3E along KO
(4) E along OK
lines of electrix flux are entering in a closed surface and liner come out of the surface the charge enclosed by the surface is-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero
A hemisphere (radius R) is placed in electric field as shown in fig. Total outgoing flux is-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The number of electrons, falling on a spherical conductor (radius = 0.1m) to produce .036 N/C electric field at the surface of the conductor, is-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The potential difference between the centre and the surface of a sphere of radius R with uniform surface charge density within it will be-
(1)
(2)
(3) Zero
(4)
As per this diagram, a point charge +q is placed at the origin O. Work done in taking another point charge -Q from the point A [Co-ordinates (0, a)] to another point B [co-ordinates (a, 0)] along the straight path AB is
(1) Zero
(2)
(3)
(4)
The ratio of electric force between two electrons to the gravitational force between them is of the order of
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1
An electric dipole is placed along the x-axis at the origin O. A point P is at a distance of 20cm from this origin such that OP makes an angle with the x-axis. If the electric field at P makes an angle with the x-axis, the value of would be :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Two charges and repel each other with a force of 0.1N. What will be the force exerted by on , when a third charge is placed near them?
(1) Less than 0.1N
(2) More than 0.1N
(3) 0.1N
(4) Less than 0.1N if and are similar and more than 0.1N if and are dissimilar
A disk of radius having a uniformly distributed charge 6C is placed in the X-Y plane with its centre at (-a/2, 0, 0). A rod of length 'a' carrying a uniformly distributed charge 8C is placed on the x-axis from to . Two-point charges -7C and 3C are placed at and respectively. Consider a cubical surface formed by six surfaces at , , . The electric flux through this cubical surface is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Three small spheres each carrying a charge q are placed on the circumference of a circle of radius R, forming an equilateral triangle. If we place another charge Q at the centre of the circle, the force on Q will be:
(1) Zero
(2)
(3)
(4)