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The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. This is necessary as:

Leydig cells:

Which of the following is not a male accessory sex gland?

Ovaries are the primary sex organs in human females because they:
I. Produce the female gamete
II. Produce the hormone that regulates the development of secondary sexual characters
1. Both I and II
2. Only I
3. Only II
4. None

Each ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and the uterus by:

Which of the following is not a factor that has led to a population explosion in India?
1. Decline in death rate
2. Decline in maternal mortality rate
3. Decline in Infant mortality rate
4. Decline in the number of people in reproducible age

Lactational amenorrhea method of contraception is based on the fact that:

The main mechanism of action of Cu released from Cu releasing IUD is:
1. Increased phagocytosis of sperms in uterus
2. Suppression of sperm motility
3. Early degeneration of the released ovum
4. Making uterus unsuitable for implantation
 

The combination pill is taken by a female:

Which of the following is not true about “saheli”?

The main drawback of the surgical methods for birth control is:

Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called:

Consider the given sexually transmitted infections:
Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes, Chlamydiasis, Genital warts, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis – B, HIV
How many of these diseases are caused by bacteria?

In ‘test – tube baby’ procedure:

What is transferred into the fallopian tube in ZIFT?

Consider the following two statements:
I. The hymen is often torn during the first coitus.
II. The presence or absence of hymen is reliable indicator of virginity.
Of the two statements:
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect

The correct sequence of mammalian mammary gland ducts beginning from alveoli would be:

What causes the onset of puberty in males?
1. Increase in secretion of testosterone by testis
2. Decrease in secretion of testosterone by testis
3. Increase in secretion of GnRH by hypothalamus
4. Decrease in secretion of GnRH by hypothalamus

FSH:
1. Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
2. Acts on Sertoli cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
3. Acts on Leydig cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
4. Acts on Leydig cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis

For normal fertility, what percent of the sperm in ejaculate must exhibit normal morphology?

The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by:
1. Hypothalamic releasing hormone
2. Pitutary gonadotropins
3. Adrenal cortex steroids
4. Testicular androgens
 

At the birth of the female child, the follicles in her ovaries contain:

What happens to the majority of the follicles during the phase from birth to puberty?

The division of primary oocyte results in:

What is released at ovulation?

The correct sequence of the various phases of a typical menstrual cycle is:

During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle which of the following occur?
I. The primary follicle grows and becomes fully mature Graafian follicle
II. The endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. I and II
4. None

Which hormone is mainly secreted by the developing follicles during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

LH surge:
1. is a dramatic sudden increase in the levels of LH during the early part of menstrual cycle and is responsible for ovulation.
2. Is a dramatic sudden decrease in the levels of LH during the early part of menstrual cycle and is responsible for ovulation.
3 is a dramatic sudden decrease in the levels of LH during the mid-menstrual cycle and is responsible for ovulation.
4. is a dramatic sudden increase in the levels of LH during the mid-menstrual cycle and is responsible for ovulation.
 

Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of:

During pregnancy:

In the absence of fertilization, corpus luteum:

Consider the following two statements:
I. Not all copulations lead to fertilization and pregnancy
II. Fertilization can occur if the ovum and the sperms are simultaneously transported to the fallopian tubes.
1. Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct

What ensures that only one sperm can fertilize the ovum?

What happens when a sperm enters the cytoplasm of the secondary oocyte?

In humans, the sex of the baby is determined:
1. At the time of fertilization and by the father
2. At the time of fertilization and by the mother
3. At the time of implantation and by the father
4. At the time of implantation and by the mother

Cleavage is:

Morula is a solid ball of cells during early embryonic development and consists of:

Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the human placenta?

During pregnancy the levels of thyroxin:

The first movements of the fetus and the appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during:

The fetal body is covered with fine hair, eyelashes separate, and eyelashes are formed by the end of:

The signals of fetal ejection reflex originate from:
1. Maternal pituitary
2. Maternal hypothalamus
3. Fully developed fetus and placenta
4. Fetal pituitary
 

To induce uterine contractions for parturition which of the following hormones can be injected to the female?
(1) hCG
(2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone
(4) Oxytocin

The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation, called colostrum, is essential for the new born as colostrums contains:

Read the statements and select option representing correct statements with respect to stamen.
A. The distal end of filament is attached to thalamus.
B. A typical anther is dithecous and bisporangiate.
C. Connective is sterile vasculated tissue.
D. Microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs.
1. A & B
2. A & C
3. B & C
4. C & D

Clear-cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phase are not found in
(1) Annual plants
(2) Biennial plants
(3) Perennial plants
(4) More than one option is correct

Most vital event for sexual reproduction is
1. Gametogenesis         
2. Fertilisation
3. Embryogenesis         
4. Gamete transfer
 

Water hyacinth is an aquatic plant, also known as “Terror of Bengal” because of

Which of the following is not a post-fertilisation event in flowering plants?

Offsprings are extremely vulnerable to predators theratening their survival upto adulthood in organisms having

Water is the medium for gamete transfer in

Inter-flowering period is
A. Juvenile phase
B. Associated with monocarpic plants
C. Recovery phase
D. Phase between two flowering in carrot
1. A & B                      2. B & C
3. C & D                     4. ONLY C

Consider the given statements
A. Asexual reproduction can occur through unspecialised or specialised parts of parents
B. Sexual structures and events in sexual reproduction are fundamentally similar in organisms
1. A is correct, B is incorrect
2. A is incorrect, B is correct
3. Both are correct
4. Both are incorrect

Outer three layers of anther wall perform the function of

Entry of pollen tube through integument is_____and found in______

The genetic mechanism that prevents self pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from fertilising the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil, called as

What will be the total number of meiosis and mitosis division generations for 5 typical embryo sac formation respectively from megaspore mother cells?

1. 5, 5                                   2.    5, 15
2. 5, 10                                 4.    2, 15

Plants pollinated by wind do not show

Genetically and functionally self-pollination is cent percent ensured with seed formation even in the absence of pollinators by
(1) Bisexuality
(2) Dicliny
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Cleistogamy

Polygonum type embryo sac is

Ovule generally differentiate a single _____ in the ______ region of the nucellus.

How many statement(s) is/are correct for pollen grains?
a. Parthenium is a cause of bronhial afflictions
b. Intine exhibits fascinating array of patterns and designs
c. Cytoplasm of pollen grain is s urrounded by spermoderm
d. Generative cell is present when pollens are shed in 40 percent plants.
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Fossilization of pollen grains is helped by
(1) Compatible protein  
(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Pectin

The largest cell of embryo sac is
(1) Antipodal
(2) Synergid
(3) Central cell
(4) Egg

Read the statements carefully and select correct option.
A. Pollen grains of carrot grass cause bronchial afflictions
B. Pollen viability is maximum in wheat
C. Pollen grains are well preserved as, fossils due to pecto-cellulose
D. Pollen grain aperture is devoid of sporopollenin.
1. A and D                   2. A and B
3. B and C                   4. A, B and D

Which of the following statements for generative cell is incorrect?

Pollen grains are released from anther in 60% of angiosperms
A. With male gametes
B. After first mitosis
C. At two-celled stage
D. After second mitosis
Mark the correct option
1. B and C                           2. A and D
3. A and B                           4. A and C

How many of the given options are correct?
Column I                                       Column II
a. Pollen kitt                                  Sticky pollen
b. Callase enzyme                          Secreted by endothecium
c. Polyploid layer of anther wall       Tapetum 
d. Pollen allergy                              Parthenium
1. Two                             2. Three
3. Four                             4. One

Gynoecium of Michelia and Papaver is similar in being

Flowers of which of the following plants should be pollinated within half an hour for successful seed formation after anther dehiscence?         

Find incorrect statement:

Find the correct statement with respect to given diagram:

Asexual reproduction is the:

Select the correct statement:

Which statement is incorrect with respect to cell division during gamete formation?
A. A haploid parent produces gametes by meitotic division and meiosis does not occur in organism that are haploid.
B. Organism belong to bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms & angiosperms have diploid plant body and the reduction division occur at the time of gametogenesis.
C. Gametes in all heterogametic species are of two types, male and female and are either haploid or diploid depending upon the parent plant body.
D. In diploid organisms, specialized cells called meiocytes undergo meiosis and from gametemother cells.
1. A & B                                2. B & D
3. A, C & D                           4. A, B, C & D
 

Which are the common features of all three plant parts shown in the figure?

          a.    Presence of adventitious buds       
          b.    Presence of nodes & internodes
          c.     Presence of adventitious shoot              
          d.    Presence of buds in form of eyes
          1.    Only A                             2.    Only B
          3.    A & C Both                    4.    A, B, C & D

In biological world each organism has evolved its own mechanism of reproduction, which depends upon?

Further development of zygote depends upon?

1 gm butane (C₄H₁₀) is burnt with excess of O₂ to form CO₂. The approximate mass of CO₂ produced is
1. 1 gm
2. 2 gm
3. 3 gm
4. 4 gm

9.8 gm KCIO₃ is decomposed then weight loss was 0.384 gm. The percentage of KCIO₃ decomposed is
1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 40%
4. 100%

10 gm carbon reacts with 100 gm Cl₂ to form CCl₄. The maximum weight of CCl₄ formed is
1. 128 gm
2. 94.22 gm
3. 108.45 gm
4. 54.22 gm

The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H₂PO₂)₂ is
1. +3
2. +2
3. +1
4. -1

If the value of m for an electron is +3, it may be found in
1. 4s orbital
2. 4p orbital
3. In any f orbital
4. In any d orbital

Given that bond energies of H-H and Cl-Cl are 430 kJ mol^-1 and 240 kJ mol^-1 respectively and ΔH_f for HCI is -90 kJ mol^-1. Bond enthalpy of HCl is:
(a) 290 kJ mol^-1
(b) 380 kJ mol^-1
(c) 425 kJ mol^-1
(d) 245 kJ mol^-1

Read the following statement and explanation and answer as per the options given below.
Statement (S) : In the titration of Na₂CO₃ with HCl using methyl orange indicator, the volume required at the equivalence point is twice that of the acid required using phenolphthalein indicator.
Explanation (E) : Two moles of HCl are required for the complete neutralization of one mole of Na₂CO₃.
1. Both S and E are true and E is the correct explanation of S
2. Both S and E are true and E is not the correct explanation of S
3. S is true but E is false
4. S is false but E is true

How many electrons in copper atom (${}_{29}{}^{}\mathrm{Cu}$) have (n+1)= 4 ?
1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 4

The temperature of an ideal gas expansion increases in an:-
(1) Adiabatic expansion
(2) Isothermal expansion
(3) Adiabatic compression
(4) Isothermal compression

If radius of 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom is 'X' then deBroglie wavelength in 4th orbit is given by
1. 8 $\mathrm{\pi x}$
2. 2 $\mathrm{\pi x}$
3. 4 $\mathrm{\pi x}$
4. 6 $\mathrm{\pi x}$

The number of quanta of radiation of frequency 4.98 × 10¹⁴ s^-1 required to melt 100 g of ice are (latent heat of melting of ice is 33 Joule per gm)
1. 10²⁰
2. 10²²
3. 10²⁴
4. 6.023 x 10²¹

IF E₁, E₂ and E₃ represent respectively the kinetic energies of an electron, α-particle and a proton, each having same de-Broglie's wavelength then
1. E₁ > E₃> E₂
2. E₂ > E₃ > E₁
3. E₁ > E₂> E₃
4. E₁ =E₂ = E₃

Which conversion is an endothermic process ?
$$\begin{gathered} 1. \mathrm{F}\to {\mathrm{F}}^{-} \\ 2. \mathrm{O}\to {\mathrm{O}}^{-} \\ 3. {\mathrm{O}}^{-}\to {\mathrm{O}}^{2-} \\ 4. \mathrm{Cl}\to {\mathrm{Cl}}^{-} \end{gathered}$$

Which of the following has the highest negative electron gain enthalpy?
1. F
2. Cl
3. Br
4. I

Which of the following order is correct as indicated?
1. F > Cl > Br > I (Electron affinity)
2. I^-> I > I⁺ (Ionisation Energy)
3. I^-> I > I⁺ (Radii)
4. I⁺⁷ > I⁺ > I⁺⁵ (Ionisation Energy)

In which of the following molecule the bond angle is maximum?
1. NH₃
2. NF₃
3. PH₃
4. AsH₃

Which has highest dipole moment?
1. CO₂
2. BF₃
3. NF₃
4. NH₃

The most paramagnetic species is
1. ${\mathrm{O}}_2^{+}$
2. C₂
3. B₂
4. N₂

Molecular shapes of ClF₃, ${\mathrm{I}}_3^{-}$ and XeO₃ are, respectively 
1. T-shape, Linear, Pyramidal
2. Planar, Linear, Tetrahedral
3. T-shape, Planar, Pyramidal
4. Trigonal bipyramidal, Linear, Tetrahedral

When NH₃ is treated with HCl, H-N-H bond angle
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains same
4. Can't be predicted

What will be the total volume of the mixture when 32 gm of oxygen and 3 gm of hydrogen are mixed and kept at 1 atm at 0°C ?
1. 23.26 L
2. 44.8 L
3. 56 L
4. 50 L

Which order is correct regarding 'a' and 'b' van der waal's constants ?
$1. {\mathrm{a}}_{{\mathrm{NH}}_3} > {\mathrm{a}}_{{\mathrm{N}}_2}, {\mathrm{b}}_{{\mathrm{NH}}_3} > {\mathrm{b}}_{{\mathrm{N}}_2}$
$2. {\mathrm{a}}_{{\mathrm{NH}}_3} < {\mathrm{a}}_{{\mathrm{N}}_2} , {\mathrm{b}}_{{\mathrm{NH}}_3} < {\mathrm{b}}_{{\mathrm{N}}_2}$
$3. {\mathrm{a}}_{{\mathrm{NH}}_3} < {\mathrm{a}}_{{\mathrm{N}}_2} , {\mathrm{b}}_{{\mathrm{NH}}_3} > {\mathrm{b}}_{{\mathrm{N}}_2}$
$4. {\mathrm{a}}_{{\mathrm{NH}}_3} > {\mathrm{a}}_{{\mathrm{N}}_2} , {\mathrm{b}}_{{\mathrm{NH}}_3} < {\mathrm{b}}_{{\mathrm{N}}_2}$

200 ml of He at 0.66 atm pressure and 400 ml of O₂ at 0.52 atm pressure are mixed in a 400 ml vessel at 25°C. The partial pressure of He and O₂ respectively will be
1. 0.33. 0.52
2. 0.52, 0.33
3. 0.22, 0.45
4. 0.33, 0.26

Select the correct order of the following temperatures for a gas
A. Boyle's Temperature
B. Critical Temperature
C. Inversion Temperature
1. A > B > C
2.C > B > A
3. A > C > B
4. C > A > B
 

A 3p orbital has
1. two non spherical nodes
2. two spherical nodes
3. one spherical and one non spherical node
4. one spherical and two non spherical nodes

Entropy change of vaporisation at constant pressure is given by:
$$\begin{gathered} \left(\mathrm{a}\right) ∆{\mathrm{S}}_{\mathit{\left(}\mathit{v}\mathit{\right)}}= \frac{∆{\mathrm{H}}_v}{\mathrm{T}} \left(\mathrm{b}\right) ∆{\mathrm{S}}_{\mathit{\left(}v\mathit{\right)}}=\frac{∆{\mathrm{U}}_{\mathit{v}}}{\mathrm{T}} \\ \left(\mathrm{c}\right) ∆{\mathrm{S}}_{\mathit{\left(}v\mathit{\right)}}= \frac{∆{\mathrm{H}}_v}{∆\mathrm{T}} \left(\mathrm{d}\right) \mathrm{none} \mathrm{of} \mathrm{these} \end{gathered}$$

The molecule having one unpaired electron is
1. NO
2. СО
3. CN^-
4. O₂

The compound in which $\stackrel{*}{\mathrm{C}}$ uses its sp³ hybrid orbitals for bond formation is 
1. H$\stackrel{*}{\mathrm{C}}$OOH
2. (H₂N)₂$\stackrel{*}{\mathrm{C}}$O
3. (CH₃)₃$\stackrel{*}{\mathrm{C}}$OH
4. CH₃$\stackrel{*}{\mathrm{C}}$HO

x mL of H₂ gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is
1. 10 seconds : Не
2. 20 seconds : O₂
3. 25 seconds : CO
4. 55 seconds CO₂

The precipitate of CaF₂ (K_sp=1.7x10^-10) is obtained when equal volumes of the following are mixed
1. 10^-4 M Ca²⁺+10^-4 MF^-
2. 10^-2 M Ca²⁺ +10^-3MF^-
3. 10^-5 M Ca²⁺+10^-3MF^-
4. 10^-3 M Ca²⁺ +10^-5MF^-

The work done in an open vessel at 300 K, when 112 g iron reacts with dil. HCl is:
(a) 1.2 kcal                                    (b) 0.6 kcal
(c) 0.3 kcal                                     (d) 0.2 kcal

For the reaction.
${\mathrm{NH}}_2{\mathrm{COONH}}_4\left(\mathrm{s}\right) \stackrel{ }{\rightleftharpoons }2{\mathrm{NH}}_3\left(\mathrm{g}\right) + {\mathrm{CO}}_2\left(\mathrm{g}\right)$ , the equilibrium pressure is 15 atmosphere. The value of Kp is
1. 15
2. 50
3. 500
4. 100

In which case heat of neutralization is greater than 13.7 K Cal?
1. HF & NH₄OH              2. HCl & NaOH
3. HI & KOH                   4. HF & NaOH

The following reactions are known to occur in the body
${\mathrm{CO}}_2 + {\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O} \stackrel{ }{\rightleftharpoons }{\mathrm{H}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3 \stackrel{ }{\rightleftharpoons }{\mathrm{H}}^{+} + {\mathrm{HCO}}_3^{-}$
if CO₂ escapes from the system then
1. pH will decrease
2. [H⁺] will diminish
3. [H₂CO₃] will remain unchanged
4. The forward reaction will be favoured

For the reaction $\mathrm{A}\left(\mathrm{g}\right) + 3\mathrm{B}\left(\mathrm{g}\right) \stackrel{ }{\rightleftharpoons }4\mathrm{C}\left(\mathrm{g}\right)$, initial concentration of A is equal to that of B. The equilibrium concentration of A and C are equal. Kc of the reaction will be
1. 0.08
2. 0.8
3. 8
4. 80

A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 1.0×10^-4. The equilibrium constant for its reaction with a strong base is
1. 1.0×10^-4
2. 1.0x10^-10
3. 1.0x10¹⁰
4. 1.0×10¹⁴

To 250 ml of M/50 H₂SO_4, 4 gm of solid NaOH is added and the resulting solution is diluted to one litre. The pH of the resulting solution will be
1. 12
2. 12.95
3. 11.95
4. 11

The equilibrium constant (K_p) for the reaction, $2{\mathrm{SO}}_2\left(\mathrm{g}\right) +\hspace{0.17em}{\mathrm{O}}_2\left(\mathrm{g}\right) \stackrel{ }{\rightleftharpoons }2{\mathrm{SO}}_3\left(\mathrm{g}\right)$ at 1000K is 3.5 atm^-1. What would be the partial pressure of oxygen gas, if the equilibrium is found to have equal moles of SO₂  & SO₃? 
1. 0.35 atm
2. 3.5 atm
3. 2.85 atm
4. 0.285 atm

When a solution of acetic acid was titrated with NaOH, the pH of the solution when half of the acid is neutralised, was 4.2. Dissociation constant of the acid is
1. 6.31 x 10^-5
2. 3.2 x 10^-5
3. 8.7 x 10^-8
4. 6.42 x 10^-4

pH of Ba(OH)₂ solution is 12. Its solubility product will be
1. 10^-6 M³
2. 4 x 10^-6 M³
3. 5 x 10^-7 M³
4. 5 x 10^-6 M³

Which mixture acts as a buffer ?
1. 50 ml 1M CH₃COOH + 100 ml 1M NaOH
2. 50 ml 1M CH₃COOH + 25 ml 1M NaOH
3. 50 ml 1M NH₄OH + 100 ml 1M HCl
4. 50 ml 1M NH₄OH + 25 ml 1M NaOH

In the conversion, H₂SO₄ $\to$ H₂S₂O₈ which process occurs?
1. Oxidation
2. Reduction
3. Oxidation as well as reduction
4. Neither oxidation nor reduction

In the reaction, 2Cu⁺ $\to$ Cu + Cu²⁺, the equivalent weight of Cu⁺ is (M is the mol. wt. of Cu⁺)
1. M
2. $\frac{\mathrm{M}}{2}$
3. $\frac{\mathrm{M}}{4}$
4. 2 M

The standard change is Gibbs energy for the reaction,
H₂O$\rightleftarrows$H⁺ + OH^- at 25$°$C is:
(a) 100 kJ                         (b) -90 kJ
(c) 90 kJ                           (d) -100 kJ

Equal volumes of 1M each of KMnO₄ and K₂Cr₂O₇ are used to oxidise Fe(II) solution in acidic medium. The amount of Fe oxidised will be
1. More with KMnO₄
2. More with K₂Cr₂O₇
3. Equal with both oxidising agent
4. Cannot be determined
 

A balloon has 2g of air. A small hole is pierced into it. The air comes out with a velocity of 4m/s. If the balloon shrinks completely in 2.5 s, the average force acting on the balloon is
(a) 0.008 N
(b) 0.0032 N
(c) 8 N
(d) 3.2 N 

Two blocks of mass M and m are placed in contact with each other on a frictionless surface as in the adjoining diagram. A force P is applied on the heavier mass M, the acceleration of the lighter mass is 

1.  P/m
2.  P/M
3.  P/(M + m)
4.  P/(M - m)

A 4 kg block A is placed on the top of an 8kg block B which rests on a smooth table. A just slips on B when a force of 12 Newtons is applied on A. Then the maximum horizontal force F required to make both A and B move together is:

1.  12 N
2.  24 N
3.  36 N
4.  48 N 

The graph below shows how the force F exerted on a body in collision with another body varies with time t,

The area under the graph represents the body's change of
(a) Acceleration
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Potential energy 
(d) Momentum

N bullets each of mass m are fired with a velocity of v m/s at the rate of n bullets per second upon a wall. If the bullets are completely stopped by the wall, the reaction offered by the wall to the bullets is
(a) $\frac{Nmv}{n}$
(b) nmv
(c) $\frac{nNv}{m}$
(d) $\frac{nvm}{N}$

A body of mass 3 kg is acted upon by a force that varies with time $\mathrm{t}$ as shown below.

What is the change in momentum of the body in 8s?
(a) 0 $\mathrm{Ns}$
(b) 60 $\mathrm{Ns}$
(c) 30 $\mathrm{Ns}$
(d) 50 $\mathrm{Ns}$

A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor. A 10 kg block rests on top of the slab. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the slab is 0.60 while the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.40. The 10 kg block is acted upon by a horizontal force of 100 newtons. If g = 10 $\mathrm{m}/{\sec }^2$, the resulting acceleration of the slab will be-

(a) 1.0 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
(b) 1.47 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
(c) 1.52 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
(d) 6.1 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$

A uniform rope of mass M, length L is fixed at its upper end vertically from a rigid support. Then the tension in the rope at the distance $l$ from the rigid support is :
(a)  $Mg\frac{\mathit{L}}{\mathit{L}\mathit{+}\mathit{l}}$
(b)  $\left(L\mathit{-}l\right)g\frac{M}{L}$
(c)  $Mg$
(d)  $\left(\mathit{l}\mathit{/}\mathit{L}\right)Mg$

A body of mass 2$\mathrm{kg}$ is acted upon by two forces each of magnitude 1 newton, making an angle of $60°$ with each other. The net acceleration of the body (in $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$) is
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.0
(c) $\sqrt{3}$$/2$
(d) $\cong 2/3$

A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of inclination $\mathrm{\theta }$ kept on the floor of a lift. When the lift is descending with a retardation $a$, the acceleration of the block relative to the incline is
(a) $\left(g + a\right) \sin \theta$
(b) $\left(g\mathit{ }\mathit{-}\mathit{ }a\right)$
(c) $g \mathrm{sin\theta }$
(d) $\left(g\mathit{ }\mathit{-}\mathit{ }a\right) \mathrm{sin\theta }$

In the arrangement shown in the figure, the ends P and Q of an unstretchable string move downwards with uniform speed U. Pulleys A and B are fixed. Mass M moves upwards with a speed

(a) $2U \cos \theta$
(b) $U \cos \theta$
(c) $2U / \cos \theta$
(d) $U / \cos \theta$

A cracker rocket is ejecting 0.05 $\mathrm{kg}$ of gases per second at a velocity of 400 m/s. The accelerating force on the rocket is
(a) 20 dynes
(b) 20 N
(c) 200 N
(d) None of these 

A force of 6 N acts on a body of mass 1 $\mathrm{kg}$ for some time during which the body attains a velocity of 30 m/s starting from rest. The time (in seconds) for which the force acts on the body is
(a) 2                                    
(b) 5
(c) 6        
(d) 26

A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the catching process be completed in 0.1 s, the force of blow exerted by the ball on the hands of the player is 
(a) 0.3 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 300 N
(d) 3000 N

Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by massless spring as shown in the figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown the 10 kg mass has acceleration 12 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$. What is the acceleration of 20 kg mass?

1. 12 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
2. 4 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
3. 10 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
4. zero

A body is sliding down a rough inclined plane which makes an angle of $30°$ with the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction is 0.26, then the acceleration (in $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$) is 
(a) 1.95
(b) 2.75
(c) 3.47
(d) 4.6

A heavy box is thrust across a rough floor with an initial speed of 4 m/s. It stops moving after 8 seconds. If the resisting force of friction was on an average 10 N, the mass of the box (in kg) is:
1. 40
2. 20
3. 5
4. 2.5 

When a 4 kg rifle is fired, the 10 g bullet receives an acceleration of $3 \times {10}^{6 }$$\mathrm{cm}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$. The magnitude of the force acting on the rifle (in newtons) is
(a) Zero
(b) 120
(c) 300
(d) 3000

A child weighing 25 kg slides down a rope hanging from a branch of a tall tree. If the force of friction acting against him is 200 N, what is the child's acceleration? (take g = 10 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$)
(a) 22.5 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
(b) 8 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
(c) 5 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$
(d) 2 $\mathrm{m}/{\mathrm{s}}^2$ 

A weight Mg is suspended from the middle of a rope whose ends are at the same level. The rope is no longer horizontal. The minimum tension required to completely straighten the rope is
(a) $\mathrm{Mg}/2$
(b) $\mathrm{Mg} \mathrm{cos\theta }$
(c) $2 \mathrm{Mg} \mathrm{cos\theta }$
(d) Infinitely large

A body is projected with a velocity u at an angle $\alpha$ to the horizontal. The radius of curvature of its path at the point of projection is :

(a) $\frac{u^2}{g}$
(b) $\frac{u^2}{g \cos \alpha }$
(c) $\frac{u^2 {\cos }^2\alpha }{g}$
(d) $\frac{u^2 {\sin }^2\alpha }{2g}$

A metallic chain 1m long lies on a horizontal surface of a table. The chain starts sliding on the table if 25cm (or more of it) hangs over the edge of a table. The correct value of the coefficient of friction between the table and the chain is
(a) $\frac{1}{3}$
(b) $\frac{2}{3}$
(c) $\frac{1}{4}$
(d) $\frac{1}{5}$

A body slides down a frictionless track which ends in a circular loop of diameter D. Then the minimum height h of the body in terms of D so that it may just complete the loop is

(a) h = (5D/2)
(b) h = (5D/4)
(c) h = (3D/4)
(d) h = (D/4)

The slope of a smooth banked horizontal surface road is $p$. If the radius of the curve be $r$, the maximum velocity with which a car can negotiate the curve is given by
(a) $prg$
(b) $\sqrt{prg}$
(c) $p\mathit{/}rg$
(d) $\sqrt{p\mathit{/}rg}$

The roadway of a bridge over a canal is in the form of a circular arc of radius 18 m. What is the greatest speed with which a motorcycle can cross the bridge without leaving the ground ?
(a) $\sqrt{9.8}$ m/sec
(b) $\sqrt{18 \times 9.8}$ m/sec
(c) $18 \times 9.8$ m/sec
(d) $18/9.8$ m/sec

A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity $\omega$. A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is m. The coin will revolve with the record if
(a)  $r\mathit{ }\mathit{>}\mathit{ }mg\mathit{ }\mathit{/}\mathit{ }{\omega }^{\mathit{2}}\mathit{ }$
(b)  $r = \frac{\mu g}{{\omega }^2}$ only
(c) $r < \frac{\mu g}{{\omega }^2}$ only
(d) $r \le \frac{\mu g}{{\omega }^2}$

The angle of banking at the turning of a road does not depend upon the
(a) Mass of vehicle
(b) Acceleration due to gravity
(c) The velocity of the vehicle
(d) Radius of the curved path

A cyclist moves in a circular track of diameter 200m. The value of the maximum speed with which the cyclist can take a turn without leaning inwards is $\left(\mathrm{\mu } = 0.2\right)$
(a) 1.4 m/s
(b) 14 m/s
(c) 140 m/s
(d) 14 cm/s

If the units of force and length, each is increased by four times, then the unit of energy increases by:

A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which one has greater K.E.?
1. The light body
2. Both have equal K.E.
3. The heavy body
4. Data given is incomplete 

A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does
(a) Negative work
(b) Positive but not maximum work
(c) No work at all
(d) Maximum work

A metre stick, of mass 400 g, is pivoted at one end and displaced through an angle $60°$. The increase in its potential energy is 

(a) 1 Joule
(b) 10 Joule
(c) 100 Joule
(d) 1000 Joule

A uniform chain of length L and mass M lying on a smooth table and one-third of its length is hanging vertically down over the edge of the table. If g is the acceleration due to gravity, the work required to pull the hanging part on the table is
(a) $MgL$
(b) $MgL/3$
(c) $MgL/9$
(d) $MgL/18$

A body is dropped from the top of a tower. If $v$ be the instantaneous velocity of the body when it is located at a height $h$ above the ground, then which of the following remains constant?
(a)  $gh\mathit{ }+ v^{\mathit{2}}$
(b)  $gh\mathit{ }\mathit{+}\mathit{ }{v}^{\mathit{2}}\mathit{/}\mathit{2}$
(c)  $gh\mathit{ }\mathit{-}\mathit{ }{v}^{\mathit{2}}\mathit{/}\mathit{2}$
(d)  $gh\mathit{ }\mathit{-}\mathit{ }{v}^{\mathit{2}}$

A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power. The distance moved by the body in time t is proportional to 
(a) $t^{1/2}$
(b) $t^{3/4}$
(c) $t^{3/2}$
(d) $t^2$

A rifle bullet loses (1/20)th of its velocity in passing through a plank. The least number of such planks required just to stop the bullet is
(a) 11
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) Infinite

A force F is applied on a body which moves with a velocity $v$ in the direction of the force, then the power will be
(a) $F{v}^{\mathit{2}}$
(b) $Fv$
(c) $F\mathit{/}{v}^{\mathit{2}}$
(d) $F\mathit{/}v$

Under the action of a force, a 2 kg body moves such that its position x as a function of time t is given by x = $t^2$/3 where x is in m and t in s. The work done by the force in the first two seconds is:
1. 1600 J
2. 160 J
3. 16 J
4. 1.8 J 

A light and a heavy body have equal K.E., which has greater momentum?
(a) The heavy body
(b) The light body
(c) Both have equal momentum
(d) Data given is incomplete

A particle moves under the effect of a force $F\mathit{ }\mathit{=}\mathit{ }cx$ from $x$ = 0 to $x$ = $x_{\mathit{1}}$. The work done in the process is 
(a) $c{x}_1$
(b) $\raisebox{1ex}{$1$}\!\left/ \!\raisebox{-1ex}{$2$}\right. c{x_{\mathit{1}}}^{\mathit{2}}$
(c) $c{x_{\mathit{1}}}^{\mathit{3}}$
(d) Zero

A spacecraft of mass $M$ is moving with velocity $v$ in free space when it explodes and breaks in two. After the explosion, a mass $m$ of the spacecraft is left stationary. What is the velocity of another part?
(a) $Mv\mathit{/}\left(\mathit{M}\mathit{-}\mathit{m}\right)$
(b) $mv\mathit{/}\left(\mathit{M}\mathit{+}\mathit{m}\right)$
(c) $mv\mathit{/}\left(\mathit{m}\mathit{-}\mathit{M}\right)$
(d) $\left(M\mathit{+}m\right)v\mathit{/}M$

Two masses of 1 g and 4 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear momenta is:
1. 4:1
2. $\cong$2:1
3. 1:2
4. 1:16

Work done in time $t$ on a body of mass $m$ which is accelerated from rest to a speed $v$ in time $t_1$ as a function of time $t$ is given by
(a) $\frac{1}{2}m\frac{v}{t_1}{t}^2$
(b) $m\frac{v}{t_1}{t}^2$
(c) $\frac{m{v}^2{t}^2}{t_1}$
(d)$\frac{1}{2}\frac{m{v}^2}{t_1^2}{t}^2$

A bullet of mass $m$moving with velocity $v$ strikes a suspended wooden block of mass $M$. If the block rises to a height $h$, find v.
1. $\sqrt{\left(2gh\right)}$
2. $\frac{\left(M+m\right)}{m}\sqrt{\left(2gh\right)}$
3. $\frac{m}{\left(M+m\right)}\sqrt{2gh}$
4. $\frac{\left(M+m\right)}{M}\sqrt{\left(2gh\right)}$

A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces of equal mass, then the two pieces will
(a) Be at rest
(b) Move with different velocities in different direction
(c) Move with the same speed in the opposite direction
(d) Move with the same velocity in the same direction 

Match the column with respect to pollen grain:

Tapetum is:

Which of the following points is incorrect about sporopollenin?

Which of the following statement is not associated with phenomenon of flowering?
(1) Decision for flowering takes place much before actual flower appears.
(2) During flowering several structural and hormonal changes takes place
(3) During flowering differentiation takes place
(4) Flowering is independent of environmental factors

A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca i.e. dithecous. Theca is separated often by:

Following are four statements how many of them are correct?
a. The anther is a tetragonal structure, with four microsporangia at corners, two in each lobe.
b. Microsporangia develops further and becomes pollen sacs.
c. A typical microsporangia is surrounded by four-layered wall, 3-protective and 1 nutritional.
d. The nutritive layer is densely cytoplasmic and with more than one nucleus
Options :
1. 3                        2. 4
3. 2                        4. 1

When anther is young a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells are present in centre it is known as

Which of the following structure is not associated with protection and dehiscence of anther?

1. Tapetum                     2. Epidermis
2. Endothecium               4. Middle layer

Which of the following statement is not correct for pollen grain?

In which of the following plant there will be no seed set even after pollination?

Third integument which is edible is present in:

1. Castor                             2. Litchi
2. Mango                             4. Apple