The diploid sporphyte is represented by a dominant, independent, photoshynthetic, vascular plant body. It alternates with multicellular, saprophytic/autotrophic, independent but short-lived haploid gametophyte. This type of pattern is exhibited by
1. Bryophytes (Sphagnum, Polytrichum).
2.Pteridophytes (Selaginella, Lycopodium).
3. Most of the algal genera (Fucus, Chara, Polysiphonia).
4. Seed plants (gymnosperms and antiosperms).
The type of life-cycle in which there is no free-living sporophytes and the dominant, photosynthetic phase in such plants is the free-living gametophyte. We are talking about
1.Haplontic life cycle shown in Volvox and some species of Chlamydomonas.
2.Diplontic life cycle as shown in seed-bearing plants.
3.Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in bryophytes and pteridophytes.
<p">4.Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in Kelps.
Read the following statements :
A. The male or female cones or strobili may be borne on same tree in Pinus.
B. In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees.
C. Stem of Cycas is branched and of Pinus and Cedrus is unbranched.
D. In gymnosperms generally tap roots are found.
Select the correct statements.
1. A, B
2. A, B, D
3. A, B, C
4. C, D
Prothallus is
1. A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops.
2. A sporophytic inconspicuous free living structure formed in pteridophytes.
3. A gametophytic inconspicuous free living structure formed in pteridophytes.
4. A gametophytic conspicuous structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes.
Leafy stage develops from the secondary protonema as a
1. Apical bud
2. Axillary bud
3.Lateral bud
4. Meristem
Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flower and live plants to distant places because
1. It is easily available.
2. It reduces transpiration.
3. It is hygroscopic.
4. All of the above.
In Phaeophyceae, the spores (zoospores) are
1. Pyriform and bear 2 flagella (one longitudinal and other transverse).
2. Pear-shaped and bear 2 flagella that are laterally attached.
3. Pyriform and bear 2-8, equal and apial flagella.
4. Pear-shaped and bear 2-8, equal and apical flagella.
In chlorophyceae and phaeophyceae, the type of sexual reproduction is
1.Isogamous
2.Anisogamous
3.Oogamous
4. All of the above
Find out the incorrect statement about the Rhodophyceae.
1. Majority are marine with greater concentrations found in the warmer areas.
2. They are also found at great depths of oceans where relatively little light penetrates.
3. Usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation.
4. They reproduce asexually by biflagellate zoospores.
Read the following statement and find out the incorrect statement.
1. Algae usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types of spores and sexually by formation of gametes.
2. Algae are classified into three classes, pteridophytes into four classes and antiosperms into two classes.
3. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms.
4. The plant body of algae is more differentiated than that of bryophytes.
Read the following statements (a-e) and answer question that follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living.
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous.
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous.
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts in more elaborate than that in mosses.
(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four
Read the following statements.
(a) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(b) Bryophytes have well developed vessels and sieve tubes.
(c) Strobilus is found in the main plant body of Equisetum.
(d) Antheridia are absent but archegonia are present in female storobil of gymnosperms.
Choose the correct option.
1. All of these 2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. Only (a) 4. (b) and (c)
Which one is correct about male and female gametophyte?
1. | In bryophytes and pteridophytes, they have no independent free-living existence. |
2. | In bryophytes and angiosperms, they have free-living existence. |
3. | In gymnosperms and angiosperms, they have no independent free-living existence. |
4. | In bryophytes, pteridophytes and angiosperms, they have free-living existence. |
Which of the following is/are correct for gymnosperms?
(i) They are heterosporous.
(ii) They are the first vascular plants.
(iii) They possess fruits.
(iv) They require water for fertilisation.
1. Only (i)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
1. A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination.
2. An opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
3. The microsporangium in which pollen grains develop.
4. A cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed.
The spreading of living pteridophyte is limited and is restricted to narrow geographical region because of
1. Growth requirements of gametophyte (cool, damp and shady places).
2. Requirement of water for fertilisation.
3. Absence of stomata in leaf and absence of vascular tissue.
4. Both 1. and 2..
Artificial systems gave equal weightage to
1. Morphological and anatomical characters.
2. Vegetative and sexual characters.
3. Vegetative and anatomical characters.
4. Morphological and sexual characters.
According to phylogenetic classification organisms belonging to same taxa
1. Are same in anatomy.
2. Have same genetic constituent.
3. Have a common ancestor.
4. Have all characteristics same.
Choose the correct statement.
1. Many species of Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum and among 70 species of marine algae used as food.
2. Agar is used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice creams and jellies.
3. Algae are useful to man in a variety of ways.
4. All of these.
Cell wall of green algae is made up of
1. Inner layer of chitin and outer layer of pectose.
2. Inner layer of cutin and outer layer of pectin.
3. Inner layer of pectose and outer layer of cellulose.
4. Inner layers of cellulose and outer layer of pectose.
Carlous Linnaeus system is an artificial system because it is
1. Phylogenetic.
2. Based on evolutionary trends.
3. Based on number of characters.
4. Based on a few characters of superficial similarities and dissimilarities on morphology.
Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms (with respect to six kingdom system)?
1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. Four
Select the incorrect statement.
1.Nostocand Anabaena have heterocysts for nigrogen fixation.
2. Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
3. Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in nature.
4. The cell walls of mycoplasma are made up of chitin.
Statement I : Bacterial structure and behaviour is very complex
Statement 2 : They show the most extensive metabolic diversity as a group
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
The smallest living cells have all known characteristics except
1. Survive in presence of oxygen.
2. Infect animals and plant.
3. Complete lack of cell membrane.
4. Contain dsDNA as genetic material.
Which of the following is a difference between eubacteria and archaebacteria?
1. They look very different from each other under microscope.
2. Eubacteria are autotrophic and archaebacteria are heterotrophic.
3. Archaebacteria are unicellular and eubacteria are colonial.
4. They have different chemicals in their cell membranes and cell walls.
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option
|
Column-I |
|
Column-II |
(a) |
Ex-situ conservation |
(i) |
Central National Herbarium |
(b) |
Quick referral system |
(ii) |
Museum |
(c) |
Preserved plants and animals |
(iii) |
Flora |
(d) |
Actual account of habitat and distribution of plants in a given area |
(iv) |
Royal Botanical Garden, Kew |
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Slime moulds in vegetative phase are surrounded by cell wall.
(ii) Slime moulds are obligate autotrophs.
(iii) Euglena behaves like heterotroph in absence of light predating smaller organism.
(iv) The fishes are killed by toxins released by slime moulds.
(v) Protists reproduce sexually by zygote formation.
(vi) Euglena has resemblance with plant and animal both.
1. (i), (ii) and (iii) 2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (iii) and (vi) 4. (i), (ii) and (iv)
Following features belong to
(i) Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red depending on pigment in cell.
(ii) Stiff cellulosic plates forms the cell wall.
(iii) One longitudinal and one transverse flagella present.
(iv) Photosynthetic
1. Diatoms 2. Desmids
3. Dinoflagellates 4.Euglenoids
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding fungi?
1. Wheat rust-causing agent is Puccinia.
2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotics.
3. The cell walls of fungi are composed of peptidoglycans.
4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
Dikaryotic stage is a characteristic of
1.Phycomycetes and ascomycetes.
2. Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
3.Phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
4. Basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes.
Which of the following eukaryote is extensively used in experimental genetics?
1.E. coli
2.Alternaria
3.Ustilago
4.Neurospora
Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the following sequential event. Arrange them properly.
(i) | Fusion of two nuclei |
(ii) | Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or non-motile gametes. |
(iii) | Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores. |
1. (i) – (ii) – (iii)
2. (ii) – (i) – (iii)
3. (iii) – (ii) – (i)
4. (iii) – (i) – (ii)
Select the correct statement
1.Viroids have double stranded RNA.
2. RNA of viroids has higher molecular weight than that of viruses.
3. Mumps and herpes are viral diseases.
4. The name virus was given by D.J. Ivanowsky.
Which of the following statement are incorrect with respect to lichens ?
(i) Algae protects fungus and fungus is parasite on algae.
(ii) Algae and fungi are in symbiotic association.
(iii) Lichens are pollution indicator.
(iv) Lichen represents the climax of plant succession.
1. (i) and (ii) 2. (i) and (iv)
3. (ii) and (iii) 4. (iii) and (iv)
In lichen, algal component is called______and fungal component is called ______
1.Mycobiont ;phycobiont
2.Phycobiont ;mycobiont
3.Phycobiont ; mycorrhiza
4.Mycorrhiza ;mycobiont
Consider the following statements :
(i) Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characteristics of growth.
(ii) A multicellular organism grows by cell division.
(iii) In plants, the growth is seen up to a certain age.
(iv) In majority of higher animals and plants growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive events.
(v) The growth exhibited by non-living objects is by accumulation of materials on the surface.
Choose the correct option :
1. (i) and (iii) 2. (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii) 4. (i) and (ii)
From the following statements, select those that are true for reproduction.
(i) It is not an all-exclsuive defining characteristic of living organisms.
(ii) It is not an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms.
(iii) It is not an all-exclusive defining characteristic of plants and fungi only.
(iv) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal plant breeders only.
(v) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal plants and animals breeders.
(vi) Photoperiod has no role in reproduction.
1. (ii) and (v) 2. (iii) and (iv)
3. (iv) and (vi) 4. All of these
Select the incorrect statement for consiciousness as one of the characteristic of living organisms.
1. It is the most technically complicated process.
2. It is present in all organisms whether unicellular or multicellular.
3. It is an obvious feature not found in prokaryotes.
4. It is regarded as a defining feature of living organisms.
Mayer’s biological concept of species is mainly based on
1. Morphological traits.
2. Reproductive isolation.
3. Modes of reproduction.
4. Morphology and reproduction.
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to binomial nomenclature?
1. Biological names are generally in Latin.
2. The first word in a biological name represents the genus.
3. Biological names are printed in italics.
4. The first word of the genus starts with a small letter.
Which of the following statements about classification is not true?
(i) Members of a family are less similar than members of an included genus.
(ii) An order has more members than the number of members in an included genus.
(iii) Families have more members than phyla.
(iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor in the more distant past than members of an included genus.
(v) The number of species in a taxon depends on their relative degree of similarity.
1. Only (iii)
2. Only (iv)
3. Only (v)
4. None of these
An important function of botanical garden is
1. Providing beautiful area for recreation.
2. One can observe tropical plants over there.
3. They allow exsitu conservation of germplasm.
4. To allow reproduction freely with each other and form seeds.
Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
1. Keys are analytical in nature.
2. Zoological parks have collection of living animals for reference.
3. A monograph gives a detailed account of all the plant species found in a particular geographical area.
4. Carolous Linnaeus is regarded as father of nomenclature.
Which of the following is not a feature of birds?
1. Forelimbs modified into wings
2. Single occipital condyle
3. Ten pairs of cranial nerves
4. Four-chambered heart
In some Bilateria, the body is of many segments that show serial repetition of parts. Such segments are called as:
1. Myotomes
2. Metameres
3. Proglottides
4. Comb plates
The phylum with exclusively marine animals is:
1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Ctenophora
4. Platyhelminthes
Chordates are not characterized by:
(1) Ventral nerve cord
(2) Post anal tail
(3) Gill slits
(4) A notochord
Notochord is derived from embryonic:
1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4.Ectoderm and Mesoderm
Identify the phylum where the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm?
1. Cnidaria
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Molluska
4. Aschelminthes
What is present between ectoderm and endoderm in diploblastic animals?
1. Mesenteron
2. Mesenchyme
3. Mesorchium
4. Mesoglea
“Amniotes” do not include:
1. Amphibians
2. Reptiles
3. Birds
4. Mammals
The presence of mutable collagenous tissue is an important feature of:
(1) Annelida
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Porifera
(4) Molluska
Closed circulatory system is not seen in:
(1) Vertebrates
(2) Annelids
(3) Cephalopod Mollusks
(4) Aquatic Arthropods
Which of the following statements is not true about Nematodes?
1. They are bilaterally symmetrical, un-segmented worms.
2. They are covered with a flexible, thick cuticle that is molted four times as they grow.
3. They possess cilia or flagella on their reproductive cells.
4. They possess a hydrostatic skeleton.
What is not true regarding Cnidarians?
1. | Body is made up of distinct tissues but true organs have not evolved |
2. | They are carnivores |
3. | They may have two body forms – polyps and medusa |
4. | The digestion is completely intra-cellular |
Radially symmetrical animals:
1. Are all triploblastic
2. Tend to be sessile and passively floating
3. Have a definite head and a brain
4. Have an anterior and a posterior end
Ascaris is characterized by:
1. Presence of true coelom but an absence of metamerism
2. Presence of true coelom and of metamerism
3. Absence of true coelom but the presence of metamerism
4. Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
Identify the chordates in which the notochord persists in the adult?
(1) Tunicates
(2) Lancelets
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Bony fishes
An important evolutionary transition that appeared for the first time in Echinoderms is:
1. | Bilateral symmetry | 2. | Radial symmetry |
3. | Tube within a tube plan | 4. | Endoskeleton |
How many of the given animals do not possess a true coelom?
Pila, Asterias, Balanoglossus, Ascidia, Aplysia, Ophiura, Wuchereria, Limulus, Antedon, Dentallium, Nereis
(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7
Which of the following is not a feature of Ctenophora?
1. Diploblastic organisms with tissue level of organization
2. Absence of Cnidocytes
3. Presence of internal ciliated comb plates
4. Bio-luminescence well marked in some members
Which of the following sets contains all animals belonging to the same Class?
(1) Columba, Struthio, Aptenodytes, Pteropus
(2) Bangarus, Chelone, Neophron, Testudo
(3) Petromyzon, Myxine, Doliolum, Salpa
(4) Exocoetus, Hippocampus, Betta, Pterophyllum
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Osteichthyes?
(1) Gills with operculum
(2) Skin covered by placoid scales
(3) Presence of swim bladder
(4) Mostly oviparous
In Amphibia:
I. Skin is moist without scales
II. A tympanum represents the ear
III. Fertilization is external
1. Only I and II are correct.
2. Only I and III are correct.
3. Only II and III are correct.
4. I, II, and III are correct.
In which of the following animals, the body is cylindrical and is composed of an anterior proboscis, a collar, and a long trunk?
1. Hemichordates
2. Urochordates
3. Cephalochordates
4. Vertebrate chordates
Perhaps the biggest reason for the enormous success of Arthropods is?
1. Chitinous exoskeleton
2. Diverse appendages
3. Respiration by tracheoles
4. Internal fertilization
Development takes place through a trochophore or veliger larva in:
(1) Annelida
(2) Molluska
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Echinodermata
The most important reason for the fact that reptiles were the first animals to be successful on land is:
1. Internal fertilization
2. Skin covered with scales
3. Partially divided ventricles
4. Presence of amnion
A sort of alternation and generation seen in Cnidarians is termed as:
1. Metamorphosis
2. Epiboly
3. Metagenesis
4. Anagenesis
Pinworm, Hookworm and Filaria worm belong to:
1. Annelida
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Aschelminthes
4. Arthropoda
Bilharzia is caused by a/an:
1. Flatworm
2. Roundworm
3. Annelid
4. Arthropod
Which of the following is not a character of deuterostomes?
1. | Radial cleavage |
2. | Schizocoelous coelom |
3. | Indeterminate cleavage |
4. | Blastopore forms anus |
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Class Cyclostomata:
1. All are ectoparasites on some fishes.
2. They have sucking and circular mouths without jaws.
3. Their body is devoid of scaled and paired fins.
4. The circulatory system is of open type.
Which of the following does not belong to Protostomia?
(1) Annelids
(2) Mollusks
(3) Echinoderms
(4) Arthropods
Approximately what percentage of existing animal species are invertebrates?
1. | 20 | 2. | 50 |
3. | 70 | 4. | 95 |
1. | It covers the external surface of the body and the internal surface of many organs. |
2. | The neighbouring cells are held together by cell junctions and there is very little extracellular material. |
3. | The epithelial cells rest on a cellular basement membrane that separates it from underlying connective tissue. |
4. | There is no blood vessel supplying the nutrients to the epithelial cells. |
Identify the incorrectly matched pair :
Type of epithelium Location
1. Simple cuboidal PCT, Thyroid follicles
2. Psuedostratified Trachea, Large bronchi
3. Transtional Urinary bladder, Ureter
4. Stratified cuboidal Inner surface of intestine, stomach and gall bladder
When secretory granules leave cell by exocytosis with no loss of other cellular material, the glands are called
1. Holocrine
2. Merocrine
3. Apocrine
4. Autocrine
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Type of cartilage Location
1. Hyaline Sternum,Trachea, Larynx
2. Fibrous Ribs, hyoid, intervertebral discs
3. Elastic Pinna, Epiglottis, tip of nose
4. Calcified Suprascapula of frog
Embryologically, the body of cockroach is formed of 20 segments. What is the number in each region?
1. Head - 6; Thoracic - 3; Abdominal - 11
2. Head - 1; Thoracic - 3; Abdominal - 10
3. Head - 3; Thoracic - 3; Abdominal - 11
4. Head - 0; Thoracic - 3; Abdominal – 10
Juvenile hormone in cockroach is secreted by :
1. Corpora cardiaca
2. Prothoracic gland
3. Corpora allata
4. Corpora bigemina
Cockroaches are uricotelic. The function of which of the following is analogous to the liver of vertebrates?
1. Malphighian tubule
2. Mushroom glands
3. Cuticle of skin
4. Fat body
The presence of anal styles distinguishes male cockroaches from females. It is present on :
1. Ninth tergite
2. Ninth sternite
3. Tenth tergite
4. Tenth sternite
Bipolar neurons are found in humans in :
1. Brain | 2. Spinal cord |
3. Embryonic stages | 4. Olfactory epithelium |
Seminal vesicles :
1. are a part of reproductive system of male cockroach and are associated with utricular gland
2. are a part of reproductive system of female cockroach and are associated with utricular gland
3. are a part of reproductive system of male cockroach and are associated with conglobate gland
4. are a part of reproductive system of female cockroach and are associated with collaterial gland
Cartilaginous fishes differ from bony fishes by :
1. presence of gill slits
2. absence of operculum
3. presence of pectoral fins
4. presence of scales
Mammals are the descendents of the reptilian group :
1. Therapsids
2. Thecodonts
3. Pelycosaurs
4. Dinosaurs
Identify the incorrectly matched class of vertebrates with the features given :
1. Fishes - Jaws and paired appendages (except Agnathans); Single loop circulation; Gills
2. Amphibians - Legs ( except in Caecilian); three chambered heart; no pulmonary veins
3. Reptiles - Amniotic egg; dry skin, thoracic breathing
4. Birds - Feathers; flight skeleton; endothermy
100 mL of 0.3 N HCL solution were mixed with 200 mL of 0.6 N H2SO4 solution. The final acidic normality is:
1. 0.9 N
2. 0.6 N
3. 0.5 N
4. 0.4 N
Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is:
1. 7.78 M
2. 2.00 M
3. 2.05 M
4. 2.22 M
0.84 g of metal carbonate reacts with 40 mL of N/2 H2SO4. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is:
1. 84 g
2. 64 g
3. 42 g
4. 38 g
Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is
1. 1.7700
2. 0.1770
3. 0.0177
4. 0.0344
The maximum amount of BaSO4 precipitated on mixing 20mL of 0.5 M BaCl2 with 20 mL of 1 M H2SO4 is:
1. 0.25 mole
2. 0.5 mole
3. 1 mole
4. 0.01 mole
The minimum quantity of H2S needed to precipitate 63.5 g of Cu2+ will be nearly:
1. 63.5 g
2. 31.75 g
3. 34 g
4. 20 g
If one mole of H2SO4 reacts with an excess of NaOH, how many moles of water are formed?
1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4
Molar mass of oxalic acid is 126. The mass of oxalic acid required to neutralise 1000mL of normal solution of NaOH is:
1. 126 g
2. 63 g
3. 6.3 g
4. 12.6 g
Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur: The minimum molar mass of insulin is:
1. 941 g
2. 1000 g
3. 841 g
4. 1041 g
1.60 g of a metal were dessolved in HNO3 to prepare its nitrate. The nitrate on strong heating gives 2 g oxide. The equvalent mass of metal is:
1. 16
2. 32
3. 48
4. 12
100 ml each of 0.5 N NaOH, N/5 HCl and N/10 H2SO4 are mixed together. The resulting solution will be
1. Acidic
2. Alkaline
3. Neutral
4. Can't be determine
An element A (at. wt. = 75) and B (at. wt. = 25) combine to form a compound that contains 75% A by weight. The formula of the compound will be:
1. A2B
2. A3B
3. AB3
4. AB
The ratio of number of atoms in 4.4 gm CO2 and 1.7 gm NH3 is
1. 1:1
2. 3:4
3. 4:3
4. 1:2
, 6.4 gm SO2 and 3.2 gm O2 to form SO3. How much maximum mass of SO3 is formed?
1. 32 gm
2. 16 gm
3. 8 gm
4. 4 gm
A metallic nitride(M3N2) contains 20% nitrogen. Equivalent weight of metal is
1. 37.33
2. 18.67
3. 112
4. 56
The weight of iron which will be converted into oxide (Fe3O4) by the action of 18 gm of steam of it will be (at. wt. of Fe = 56)
1. 168 gm
2. 84 gm
3. 42 gm
4. 21 gm
Calculate the molality of 20% CaCO3 solution is (by mass). The density of solution is 1.2 gm/ml
1. 1.25 m
2. 2.5 m
3. 2.08 m
4. 1.5 m
The equivalent weight of H3PO2 is (M = mol.wt. of H3PO2 )
1.
2.
3.
4.
, the equivalent weight of H3PO4 will be (M = mol.wt. of H3PO4)
1.
2.
3.
4.
1 gm of HNO3 is mixed with 1 gm of NaOH in 1 litre water. The nature of solution becomes
1. Acidic
2. Alkaline
3. Neutral
4. Can't be predicted
2.45 gm H2SO4 is dissolved in 250 ml of H2O then normality of solution is
1. 0.1
2. 0.2
3. 0.3
4. 0.4
300 ml of N/2 HCl is mixed with 200 ml N/5 H2SO4 then the normality of mixed solution is
1. 0.19 N
2. 0.27 N
3. 0.38 N
4. 0.5 N
The equivalent weight of Aluminium Sulphate is (M = Mol. wt. of Aluminium Sulphate)
1.
2.
3.
4.
200 ml of HCl is mixed with 150 ml Ba(OH)2 and volume is made upto 1 litre then nature and normality of solution is
1. Acidic, 0.005 N
2. Basic, 0.005 N
3. Acidic, 0.01 N
4. Basic, 0.01 N
1.5 gm of a mixture of Na2Co3 and NaCl is completely reacted with 150 ml then percentage of NaCl in the mixture is
1. 53
2. 47
3. 26.5
4. 23.5
1.5 gm limestone (CaCO3 + impurities) is reacted with 100 ml . The excess acid requires 35 ml 1 N NaOH for complete neutralisation. The % purity of limestone is
1. 10%
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 75%
Equivalent weight of H3BO3 is (M = mol. wt. of H3BO3)
1.
2.
3.
4.
, the equivalent weight of Mg(OH)2 will be (M = Mol.wt. of Mg(OH)2)
1. Zero
2. M
3.
4
The n-factor of aluminium nitrate is
1. Zero
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
4.9 gm of H2SO4 is mixed with 4gm NaOH in 1 litre H2O. The nature of resulting solution will be
1. Acidic
2. Alkaline
3. Neutral
4. Can't be predicted
A metallic oxide contains 20% oxygen. The equivalent weight of metal is
1. 12
2. 16
3. 32
4. 64
A 2 gm mixture of K2CO3 and KCl is completely reacted with 100 ml N/10 HCl. The % of K2CO3 in the mixture is
(k =39, Cl = 35.5, C = 12, O = 16)
1. 69%
2. 34.5%
3. 50%
4. 100%
400ml M/10 H2SO4 is mixed with 600 ml N/10 NaOH then normality and nature of solution respectively will be
1. 0.02 N, basic
2. 0.02 N, acidic
3. 0.04 N, acidic
4. 0.14 N, acidic
2 gm limestone (CaCO3 + Impurities) is reacted with 100 ml N/2 HCl. The excess acid requires 60 ml N/2 NaOH. The % purity of limestone is
1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%
Boron has two isotopes B10 and B11. The average atomic weight of Boron is 10.8. The % of heavier isotope is
1. 20
2. 40
3. 60
4. 80
In the hydrogen spectrum, the series of line appearing in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum are called-
1. Balmer lines
2. Lyman lines
3. Pfund lines
4. Brackett lines
The ratio of the radii of the three Bohr orbits is :
1. 1 : 1/2: 1/3
2. 1: 2 : 3
3. 1: 4: 9
4. 1: 8: 27
According to Bohr's theory the angular momentum of an electron in the fourth orbit is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
The transition of electrons in H atom that will emit maximum energy is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
For the electronic transition from n = 2n = 1 which of the following will produce shortest wavelength ?
1. H atom
2. D atom
3. He+ ion
4. Li2+ ion
If the speed of the electron in Bohr first orbit of a hydrogen atom is X, then speed of the electron in 3rd orbit is :
1. X/9
2. X/3
3. 3X
4. 9X
In Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio between the period of revolution of an electron in the orbit n = 1 to the period of revolution of the electron in the orbit n = 2 is
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 1 : 4
4. 1 : 8
The limiting line in the Balmer series will have a frequency of :
1. 32.29 X 1015s-1
2. 3.65 X 1014s-1
3. 8.22 X 1015s-1
4. 8.22 X 1014s-1
If the energy of an electron in H atom is given by the expression, -1312/n2 kJ mol-1 then the energy required to excite the electron from ground state to the second orbit is :
1. 328 kJ
2. 656 kJ
3. 984 kJ
4. 1312 kJ
The wavenumber of the first line of the Balmer series of hydrogen is 15200 cm-1. The wavenumber of the first Balmer line of Li2+ ion is :
1. 15200 cm-1
2. 60800 cm-1
3. 76000 cm-1
4. 136800 cm-1
The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x as where A and B are constants. The dimensional formula for AxB is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Given
Find the value of
1. -64
2. 60
3. -60
4. 64
If the magnitude of the sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of the difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
The projection of a vector on the XY-plane has a magnitude of:
1. \(3\)
2. \(4\)
3.
4.
Two forces, each equal to F, act as shown in the figure. Their resultant is :
1.
2. F
3.
4.
The velocity acquired by a body moving with uniform acceleration is 30 ms-1 in 2 s and 60 ms-1 in 4s. The initial velocity :
1. zero
2. 2 ms-1
3. 3 ms-1
4. 10ms-1
A particle is moving along the x-axis whose instantaneous speed is given by v2=108-9x2. The acceleration of the particle is :
1. -9x ms-2
2. -18x ms-2
3.
4. none of these
A stone thrown upwards with speed u attains a maximum height h. Another stone thrown upwards from the same point with speed 2u attains maximum height H. What is the relation between h and H?
1. 2h = H
2. 3h = H
3. 4h = H
4. 5h = H
A rifle shoots a bullet with a muzzle velocity of 400 ms-1 at a small target 400 m away. The height above the target at which the bullet must be aimed to hit the target is (g = 10 ms-2)
1. 1 m
2. 5 m
3. 10 m
4. 0.5 m
An object is vertically thrown upwards. Then the displacement-time graph for the motion is
as shown in :
The acceleration will be positive in :
1. (I) and (III)
2. (I) and (IV)
3. (II) and (IV)
4. None of these
A projectile is fired from level ground at an angle \(\theta\) above the horizontal. The elevation angle \(\phi\) of the highest point as seen from the launch point is related to \(\theta\) by the relation:
1. | \(\tan\phi = 2\tan\theta \) |
2. | \(\tan\phi = \tan\theta \) |
3. | \(\tan\phi = \frac{1}{2}\tan\theta \) |
4. | \(\tan\phi = \frac{1}{4}\tan\theta \) |
A number of bullets are fired in all possible directions with the same initial velocity u. The maximum area of ground covered by bullets is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 150 ms-1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45° is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
At a height 0.4 m from the ground, the velocity of a projectile in vector form is . The angle of projection is
1. 45°
2. 60°
3. 30°
4. tan-1 (3/4)
A ball rolls off the top of a staircase with a horizontal velocity u ms-1. If the steps are h metre high and b metre wide, the ball hits the eddge of the nth step, if
1.
2.
3.
4.
A projectile is given an initial velocity of . The cartesian equation of its path is (g=10 ms-2)
1. y = 2x-5x2
2. y = x-5x2
3. 4y = 2x-5x2
4. y = 2x-25x2
A particle is projected from the ground with an initial speed of v at an angle θ with horizontal. The avarage velocity of the particle between its point of projection and highest point of trajectory is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two balls A and B are thrown with speeds u and u/2 respectively. Both the balls cover the same horizontal distance before returning to the plane of projection. If the angle of projection of ball B is 15° with the horizontal, then the angle of projection of A is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The height y and the distance x along the horizontal plane of a projectile on a certain planet (with no surrounding atmosphere) are given by y = (8t - 5t2)m and x=6t m, where t is in seconds. The velocity with which the projectile is projected at t = 0 is
1. 8 ms-1
2. 6 ms-1
3. 10 ms-1
4. Not obtainable from the data
A particle is projected with a certain velocity at an angle above the horizontal from the foot of an inclined plane of inclination 30°. If the particle strikes the plane normally, then is equal to
1.
2. 45
3. 60
4.
The angle which the vector makes with the y-axis, where and are unit vectors along x- and y-axis, respectively, is
1. cos-1 (3/5)
2. cos-1 (2/3)
3. tan-1 (2/3)
4. sin-1 (2/3)
In going from one city to another, a car travels 75 km north, 60 km north-west and 20 km east. The magnitude of displacement between the two cities is (take = 0.7)
1. 170 km
2. 137 km
3. 119 km
4 140 km
A vector perpendicular to is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Given and . Which of the following is correct?
1.
2.
3.
4. are antiparallel
The minimum number of vectors having different planes which can be added to give zero resultant is
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Two vectors are such that .What is the angle between ?
1. 0
2. 90
3. 60
4. 180
Mark the correct statement:
1.
2.
3.
4. All of the above
If , the vector having the same magnitude as that of and parallel to is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A unit vector along the incident ray of light is . The unit vector for the corresponding refracted ray of light is , a unit vector normal to the boundary of the medium and directed towards the incident medium. If μ is the refractive index of the medium, then Snell's law (second law) of refraction is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The components of a vector along the x and y directions are (n + 1) and 1, respectively. If the coordinate system is rotated by an angle θ, then the components change to n and 3. The value of n will be:
1. 2
2. cos 60°
3. sin 60°
4. 3.5
The resultant of three vectors 1, 2 and 3 units whose directions are those of the sides of an equilateral triangle is at an angle of
1. 30° with the first vector
2. 15° with the first vector
3. 100° with the first vector
4. 150° with the first vector
Two point masses 1 and 2 move with uniform velocities and respectively. Their initial position vectors are and respectively. Which of the following should be satisfied for the collision of the point masses?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A body thrown vertically so as to reach its maximum height in t second. The total time from the time of projection to reach a point at half of its maximum height while returning (in second) is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A body dropped from the top of a tower covers a distance 7x in the last second of its journey where x is the distance covered in the first second. How much time does it take to reach
the ground?
1. 3 s
2. 4 s
3. 5 s
4. 6 s
A stone is dropped from a certain height which can reach the ground in 5s. It is stopped after 3s of its fall and then it is again released. The total time taken by the stone to reach the ground will be
1. 6 s
2. 6.5 s
3. 7 s
4. 7.5 s
A body starts from rest and travels a distance S with uniform acceleration, then moves uniformly a distance of 2S and finally comes to rest after moving further 5S under uniform retardation. The ratio of the average velocity to maximum velocity is
1. 2/5
2. 3/5
3. 4/7
4. 5/7
The displacement-time graph of a body is shown in figure. The velocity-time graph of the motion of the body will be
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is shown in figure. The acceleration of the particle at t = 9s is
1. Zero
2. 5 ms-2
3. -5 ms-2
4. -2.5 ms-2
A body is projected upwards with a velocity u. It passes through a certain point above the ground after t1. The time after which the body passes through the same point during the return journey is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A train a moving at a constant speed V when its driver observes another train in front of him on the same track and moving in the same direction with constant speed v. If the distance between the trains is x, then what should be the minimum retardation of the train so as to avoid collisions ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A police party is chasing a dacoit in a jeep which is moving at a constant speed v. The dacoit is on a motorcycle. When he is at a distance x from the jeep, he accelerates from rest at a constant rate. Which of the following relations is true if the police are able to catch the dacoit?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A moving car possesses average velocities of 5 ms-1, 10 ms-1, and 15 ms-1 in the first, second, and third seconds, respectively. What is the total distance covered by the car in these 3 s?
1. 15 m
2. 30 m
3. 55 m
4. None of these
A particle is projected vertically upward with velocity u from a point A, when it returns to the point of projection-
1. its average speed is u/2
2. its average velocity is u/2
3. its distance is zero
4. its average speed is u
A particle moves along a straight line and its velocity depends on time as v = 4t - t2. Then for first 5 s:
1. Average velocity is 25/3 ms-1
2. Average speed is 10 ms-1
3. Average velocity is 5/3 ms-1
4. Acceleration is 2 ms-2 at t=0