ALTIUS - Unit Test # 2 (OLD NCERT)

Botany - Section A

1.

In a dicot stem, the pericycle is present on the inner side of the endodermis and:

1.	above the phloem, in form of semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma
2.	above the xylem, in form of semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma
3.	above the phloem, in form of semi-lunar patches of collenchyma
4.	above the xylem, in form of semi-lunar patches of collenchyma

2.

Consider the following statements:

I:	G₀ phase is viewed as either an extended G₁ phase where the cell is neither dividing nor preparing to divide or as a distinct quiescent stage which occurs outside of the cell cycle.
II:	In gamete production interphase is succeeded by meiosis.
III:	In programmed cell death interphase is followed or preempted by apoptosis.

The correct statements include:

1.	II and III	2.	I and III
3.	I, II, and III	4.	I only

3.

Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed due to
1. Cell division
2. Cell differentitation
3. Cell dedifferentiation
4. Redifferentiation

4.

What is incorrect regarding the prothallus of pteridophytes?
1. Inconspicuous, small but multicellular
2. Free-living
3. Mostly photosynthetic
4. Thalloid sporophyte

5.

Which of the following will not be true for members of Rhodophyceae?

1.	Major pigments	Chlorophyll a, d, phycoerythrin
2.	Stored food	Floridean starch
3.	Cell wall	Cellulose and algin
4.	Flagellar number and insertions	Absent

6.

Which protists are all heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites?

1.	Desmids	2.	Slime moulds
3.	Protozoans	4.	Euglenoids

7.

The red algae reproduce:

1.	asexually by non motile spores and sexually by non motile gametes
2.	asexually by non motile spores and sexually by motile gametes
3.	asexually by motile spores and sexually by non motile gametes
4.	asexually by motile spores and sexually by motile gametes

8.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Lichens: mutualistic symbiosis between an alga and a fungus
2.	Prions: abnormally folded infectious proteins
3.	Viroids: infectious, free low molecular weight RNA
4.	Viruses: infectious nucleoprotein with both DNA and RNA

9.

All the following are examples of secondary or lateral meristems except:
1. Fascicular vascular cambium
2. Interfascicular cambium
3. Cork cambium
4. Intercalary meristem

10.

Phellogen and Phellem respectively denote
1. Cork and cork cambium
2. Cork cambium and cork
3. Secondary cortex and cork
4. Cork and secondary cortex

11.

The phrase ‘contagium vivium fluidum’, first used to describe a virus, is attributed to:
1. Louis Pasteur
2. D.J. Ivanowsky
3. M.W. Beijerinck
4. W.M. Stanley

12.

What is not true for mosses?

1.	Sporophyte is less elaborate than liverworts
2.	Protonema stage develops directly from a spore
3.	Leafy stage develops from a secondary protonema as a lateral bud
4.	They are attached to soil through multicellular and branched rhizoids

13.

The stems of maize and sugarcane have:

1.	stilt roots that are hanging and supporting structures
2.	prop roots that are hanging and supporting structures
3.	prop roots coming out from the nodes in upper stem
4.	supporting stilt roots coming out of the lower nodes of the stem

14.

In Coconut, the drupe develops from:
1. monocarpellary, inferior ovary and is one seeded
2. multicarpellary, superior ovary and is multi seeded
3. monocarpellary, superior ovary and is one seeded
4. multicarpellary, inferior ovary and is multi seeded

15.

When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium, it is termed as:

1.	Monoecious	2.	Bisexual
3.	Dioecious	4.	Unisexual

16.

The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is characteristic of the anatomy of:

1.	dicot stem	2.	dicot root
3.	monocot stem	4.	monocot root

17.

Mesosomes, extensions of plasma membrane in bacterial cells, help in all the following except:
1. Cell wall formation
2. DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells
3. Respiration
4. Photosynthesis

18.

What is true regarding the structure of ribosomes?

1.	They are made of rRNA and proteins and are enclosed by a single membrane
2.	They are made of rRNA and carbohydrates and are enclosed by a single membrane
3.	They are made of rRNA and carbohydrates and are not enclosed by any membrane
4.	They are made of rRNA and proteins and are not enclosed by any membrane

19.

It is said that elemental composition of living organisms and that of inanimate objects (like earth’s crust) are similar in the sense that all the major elements are present in both. Then, what would be the difference between these two groups? Choose a correct answer from among the following:

1.	Living organisms have more gold in them than inanimate objects.
2.	Living organisms have more water in their body than inanimate objects.
3.	Living organisms have more carbon, oxygen and hydrogen per unit mass than inanimate objects.
4.	Living organisms have more calcium in them than inanimate objects.

20.

Algal cell walls are composed of all the following except:
1. Cellulose
2. Galactans and mannans
3. Minerals like calcium carbonate
4. Chitin

21.

A cryptogam is a plant that reproduces by spores, without flowers or seeds. Therefore, the term ‘Vascular Cryptogams’ is best applied to:

1.	Bryophytes	2.	Pteridophytes
3.	Cycads	4.	Gnetales

22.

Extra-chromosomal circular double stranded and autonomously replicating DNA found in many bacteria is known as:

1.	Plastid	2.	Genophore
3.	Plasmid	4.	Genome

23.

Stem tendrils are present in all the following except:

1. Citrus	2. Watermelon
3. Cucumber	4. Grapevines

24.

The given compound:

1.	is a storage product in archaea
2.	is the source of energy in fungi
3.	is present in the cell walls of gram negative bacteria
4.	is a structural component of plasma membrane

25.

Phyllotaxy is not of alternate type in:

1.	China rose	2.	Mustard
3.	Sun flower	4.	Guava

26.

Plastid differs from mitochondria on the basis of one of the following features. Mark the right answer.
1. Presence of two layers of membrane
2. Presence of ribosome
3. Presence of chlorophyll
4. Presence of DNA

27. Agaricus, Ustilago and Puccinia belong to the class:
1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

28.

During sexual reproduction, a dikaryophase is most likely seen in the members of:
1. Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes
2. Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes
4. Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes

29.

A narrow thread of cytoplasm that passes through the cell walls of adjacent plant cells and allows communication between them is called as:

1.	Desmosome	2.	Plasmodesma
3.	Adhering junction	4.	Tight junction

30.

Which of the following suffix is used to denote the taxon ‘family’ in taxonomy of plants?

1.	-ae	2.	-opsida
3.	-aceae	4.	-ales

31.

In woody plants, what functions as a pore providing a pathway for the direct exchange of gases through the bark?
1. Hydathodes
2. Lenticels
3. Bulliform cells
4. Tyloses

32.

Both mature erythrocytes of humans and mature sieve tube cells of vascular plants:
1. are involved in transport of respiratory gases
2. lack a nucleus
3. continue to divide in an adult organism
4. do not exhibit any metabolism

33.

In lichens, fungus has
1. Symbiotic relationship with alga
2. Epiphytic relationship with alga
3. Saprophytic relationship with alga
4. Parasitic relationship with alga

34.

Which of the following is not a feature of members of Kingdom Fungi?
1. Eukaryotic cell type
2. Chitinous cell wall
3. Organ system body organization
4. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition

35.

In the diagram showing the structure of a monocotyledonous seed, the aleurone layer is shown by the letter:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

Botany - Section B

36.

In a plant cell during the S phase of the cell cycle:

I:	DNA replication begins in the nucleus
II:	Centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

37.

Tracheids are
1. Elongated cells with tapering ends and unperforated end walls
2. Elongated cells with tapering ends and perforated end wall
3. Rounded cells with lignified walls
4. Both (1) and (2)

38.

If a plant species has vertically oriented leaves, its mesophyll is expected to be:

1.	divided into well differentiated spongy and palisade layers
2.	divided into well differentiated spongy layer but less differentiated palisade layer
3.	divided into less differentiated spongy layer but well differentiated palisade layer
4.	not divided into spongy and palisade layers

39.

The duration of which of the following is constant in most cell types?
1. G₁ phase, S phase and G₂ phase
2. S phase, M phase and G₁ phase
3. S phase, G₂ phase and M phase
4. G₁ phase, M phase and G₂ phase

40.

Which of the following is not an example of a secondary metabolite produced in living organisms?
1. Lecithin
2. Alkaloids
3. Flavonoids
4. Antibiotics

41.

Identify the incorrect statement amongst the following:
1. A multi cellular organism grows by cell division
2. In plants, growth by cell division occurs continuously throughout their life span
3. Cell division is not seen in animals after a certain age
4. Growth is a characteristic of living organisms

42.

The given diagram shows:

1.	Salvinia with A being antheridial branch and B being archegonial branch
2.	Salvinia with A being archegonial branch and B being antheridial branch
3.	Sphagnum with A being antheridial branch and B being archegonial branch
4.	Sphagnum with A being archegonial branch and B being antheridial branch

43.

The correct ascending order of percent composition of various components of a typical cell would be:
1. Protein – Carbohydrate – Lipids – Nucleic acids
2. Protein – Nucleic acids – Carbohydrate – Lipids
3. Carbohydrates – Protein – Nucleic acids– Lipids
4. Carbohydrates – Protein – Lipids – Nucleic acids

44.

The given diagram shows a schematic representation of:

1.	Cell wall of diatoms
2.	Plates on body of dinoflagellates
3.	Pseudoplasmodium
4.	Pellicle of Euglenoids

45.

Find the correct match of the position of floral parts on thalamus of the given flower:

1.	I: Hypogynous; II: Perigynous; III: Epigynous
2.	I: Epigynous; II: Perigynous; III: Hypogynous
3.	I: Hypogynous; II: Epigynous; III: Perigynous
4.	I: Perigynous; II: Hypogynous; III: Epigynous

46.

Epipetalous androecium is not seen in:

1.	Petunia	2.	Belladonna
3.	Tobacco	4.	Indigofera

47.

The following diagram may represent the life cycle of:

1. Fucus	2. Ectocarpus
3. Polysiphonia	4. Spirogyra

48.

The concentrations of ions is significantly higher in the vacuoles than in the cytoplasm. The reason for this is:
1. Facilitated diffusion of the ions by the tonoplast
2. Active transport of the ions by the tonoplast
3. Presence of porins for diffusion of the ions
4. Bulk transport across the tonoplast

49.

Gametes are flagellated and similar in size in:

1.	Ulothrix	2.	Spirogyra
3.	Udorina	4.	Volvox

50.

Which of the following taxon will have the most number of organisms?

1.	Class	2.	Phylum
3.	Order	4.	Family

Zoology - Section A

51.

Radially symmetrical animals:
1. Are all triploblastic
2. Tend to be sessile and passively floating
3. Have a definite head and a brain
4. Have an anterior and a posterior end

52.

Unlike birds and mammals, crocodiles:

1.	have a four-chambered heart
2.	are mostly aquatic
3.	are poikilotherms
4.	do not have direct development

53.

Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of
1. Hydra and starfish
2. Starfish and sea anemone
3. Ctenoplana and Beroe
4. Aurelia and Paramoecium

54.

What will be common to all animals given in the box?

Ornithirhynchus, Struthio, Neophron, Pteropus, Macropus, Aptenodytes

1. Oviparity
2. Indirect development
3. Homeothermy
4. Skin with large number of glands

55.

Closed circulatory system is not seen in:

1.	Vertebrates	2.	Annelids
3.	Cephalopod Mollusks	4.	Aquatic Arthropods

56.

Which of the following is not a correct difference between members of Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes?

	Feature	Chondrichthyes	Osteichthyes
1.	Operculum	Absent	Present
2.	Scales	Placoid	Cycloid/Ctenoid
3.	Swim bladder	Absent	Present
4.	Mouth	Mostly terminal	Located ventrally

57.

Notochord is derived from embryonic:
1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4. Ectoderm and Mesoderm

58.

All the following are features of non chordates except:
1. A dorsal heart, if present
2. Ventral, solid and double central nervous system
3. Absence of gill slits
4. Post anal tail

59.

The feature lacking in bony fishes would be:

1.	Operculum	2.	Swim bladder
3.	Ammonotelism	4.	Placoid scales

60.

As we go down in the taxonomic hierarchy, the number of characters shared by the members of the taxon:

1.	Increases	2.	Decreases
3.	Remains the same	4.	Can increase or decrease

61.

Which of the following cannot be the defining properties of living organisms?
I. Growth
II. Reproduction
III. Emergent properties
IV. Cellular organization with metabolism
1. I, II and III
2. I, III and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV

62.

The correct adjective for “living state” would be:
1. An equilibrium steady state
2. An equilibrium non steady state
3. A non equilibrium steady state
4. A non equilibrium non steady state

63.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Type of epithelium	Location
1.	Simple squamous	Blood vessels and alveoli
2.	Simple cuboidal non brush bordered epithelium	Proximal convoluted tubule
3.	Columnar epithelium	Stomach and small intestine
4.	Ciliated epithelium	Bronchioles and fallopian tubes

64.

The cells in areolar loose connective tissue that can secrete histamine are:

1.	Fibroblasts	2.	Macrophages
3.	Mast cells	4.	Basophils

65.

What would be true for comparison of Anaphase I and Anaphase II of meiosis?

1.	Centromere does not split in Anaphase I and homologues separate but centromere splits in Anaphase II and sister chromatids separate.
2.	Centromere splits in Anaphase I and homologues separate but centromere does not split in Anaphase II and sister chromatids separate.
3.	Paired homologues get attached to spindle from opposite poles in Anaphase I while sister chromatids of individual chromosomes get attached to spindle from opposite poles in Anaphase II.
4.	Paired homologues get attached to spindle from opposite poles in Anaphase II while sister chromatids of individual chromosomes get attached to spindle from opposite poles in Anaphase I.

66.

Which of the following organelles is not correctly matched with its feature?

	Organelle	Feature
1.	Smooth endoplasmic reticulum	Synthesis of steroidal hormones in animals
2.	Golgi apparatus	Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
3.	Lysosomes	Rich in alkaline hydrolases
4.	Elaioplasts	Store oils and fats

67.

In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in:
1. Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
3. Golgi apparatus
4. Mitochondria

68.

Mammals are not characterized by:
1. Presence of hair
2. Presence of mammary glands
3. Homodont dentition
4. Endothermy

69.

The protein GLUT 4 is a/an:

1.	Receptor protein	2.	Transport protein
3.	Antibody molecule	4.	Enzyme

70.

Which of the following does not contain DNA?

1.	Nucelolus	2.	Mitochondria
3.	Chloroplasts	4.	Ribosomes

71.

A bivalent of meiosis- I consists of
1. Two chromatids and one centromere
2. Two chromatids and two centromeres
3. Four chromatids and two centromeres
4. Four chromatids and four centromeres

72.

What is the best description of an endocrine gland?

1.	They secrete mucus, saliva, ear wax and digestive enzymes
2.	Their products are released through ducts or tubes
3.	Unlike exocrine glands, they are not modified epithelium
4.	Their secretions are secreted directly into the fluid bathing the gland

73.

Identify the given nitrogenous base:

1.	Adenine	2.	Guanine
3.	Thymine	4.	Cytosine

74.

Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?
1. It has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria
2. It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
3. Mitochondria contain circular DNA
4. Membrane bound organelles are present

75.

When you take cells or tissue and grind them with an acid in a mortar and pestle, all the small biomolecules dissolve in the acid. Proteins, polysaccharides and nucleic acids are insoluble in mineral acid and get precipitated. The acid soluble compounds include amino acids, nucleosides, small sugars etc. When one adds a phosphate group to a nucleoside, one gets another acid soluble biomolecule called

1.	Nitrogen base	2.	Adenine
3.	Sugar phosphate	4.	Nucleotide

76.

Match the animals given in Column I with characteristic shown in Column II and select the correct option from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Nereis	P	Cnidoblast
B	Ophiura	Q	Canal system
C	Obelia	R	Water vascular system
D	Euspongia	S	Parapodia

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	S	Q	P
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	R	P	Q

77.

The following diagram depicts the structure of a:

1. Nucleoside
2. Nucleotide
3. Nitrogen containing monosaccharide
4. Glycoprotein

78.

Which one of the following is oviparous?

1.	Platypus	2.	Flying fox (Bat)
3.	Elephant	4.	Whale

79.

The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in cilia and flagella is regarded as:

1.	9 + 0	2.	9 + 1
3.	9 + 2	4.	9 + 9

80.

Which of the following statements is not true for plasma membrane?

1.	It is present in both plant and animal cells
2.	Lipid is present as a bilayer in it
3.	Proteins are present, integrated as well as loosely associated, with the lipid bilayer
4.	Carbohydrate is never found in it

81.

“Radula”, a rasping tongue like organ is seen in many:
1. Mollusks
2. Flatworms
3. Roundworms
4. Arthropods

82.

Place stages of Prophase I in correct order.
1. diakinesis, diplotene, leptotene, pachytene, zygotene.
2. diplotene, leptotene, pachytene, zygotene, diakinesis.
3. leptotene, pachytene, diakinesis, diplotene, zygotene.
4. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis

83.

The exoskeletal plates in the exoskeleton of cockroach are joined to each other by:

1. Proteinaceous pellicle	2. Arthrodial membrane
3. Ligament	4. Cellulose threads

84. Match List-I with List-II regarding the organs of cockroach:

	List I		List II
(a)	Crop	(i)	grinding the food particles
(b)	Proventriculus	(ii)	secretion of digestive juice
(c)	Hepatic caecae	(iii)	removal of nitrogenous waste
(d)	Malpighian tubules	(iv)	storage of food

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
2.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
3.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
4.	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)

85. Choose the correct statements :

(a)	Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs
(b)	Weight bearing function is served by limb bones
(c)	Ligament is the site of production of blood cells
(d)	Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats
(e)	Tendons attach one bone to another

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1. (a), (b) and (d) only	2. (b), (c) and (e) only
3. (a), (c) and (d) only	4. (a), (b) and (e) only

Zoology - Section B

86.

All the following would be characteristics of a general reptile except:
1. Dermal scales or scutes
2. Poikilothermy
3. Direct development
4. Heart is usually three chambered

87.

Consider the following two statements regarding enzyme action:

I:	Co-factors play a crucial role in the catalytic activity of the enzyme.
II:	Catalytic activity is reduced when the co-factor is removed from the enzyme.

Of the above statements:
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct

88.

An animal with the shown schematic body plan can be:

1. Adamsia	2. Euspongia
3. Fasciola	4. Ancylostoma

89.

"Canis sp." means:
1. an unspecified species of the genus Canis
2. two or more species of the genus Canis
3. an unspecified sub-species of the genus Canis
4. two or more sub-species of the genus Canis

90.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding acorn worm, a hemichordate:

1.	The body is divided into an anterior proboscis, an intermediate collar, and a posterior trunk.
2.	The proboscis is a muscular and ciliated organ used in locomotion and in the collection and transport of food particles.
3.	The mouth is located between the collar and the trunk.
4.	The trunk contains the pharynx, which is perforated with gill slits (or pharyngeal slits), the oesophagus, a long intestine, and a terminal anus.

91.

All animals with true coelom have:

I:	Bilateral symmetry
II:	Triploblastic organization
III:	Metamerism

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	I, II and III

92. Which of the following is not a chordate feature?

1.	Ventral, solid, double nerve cord
2.	Notochord
3.	Pharyngeal slits
4.	Post anal tail

93.

Look at the graph given below. The reaction rate, of the reaction, can be increased beyond point C by:

1. increasing the amount of substrate
2. adding more water
3. increasing the temperature
4. decreasing enzyme concentration

94.

A pair of walking legs in cockroach is borne by:
1. The first two thoracic segments only
2. Each thoracic segment
3. The 2nd and 3rd thoracic and first abdominal segments
4. The abdominal segments

95.

Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in a cell?
1. Intercellular transport
2. Maintenance of cell shape and structure
3. Support of the organelle
4. Cell motility

96.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	Meiosis conserves a specific number of chromosomes across generations in sexually reproducing organisms
II:	Meiosis results in a reduction of chromosome number by half

1. Both I and II are true and II explains I
2. Both I and II are true but II does not explain I
3. I is true but II is false
4. I is false but II is true

97.

Bipolar neurons are found in humans in :

1. Brain	2. Spinal cord
3. Embryonic stages	4. Olfactory epithelium

98.

A prolonged resting phase in oogenesis as seen in many vertebrate oocytes is called as:
1. Interkinesis
2. Diakinesis
3. Diplotene
4. Prometaphase II

99.

Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms. This statement can be best justified by the fact that:

1.	The cells contain nucleic acids that contain genetic information
2.	A large number of organelles present in the cell perform various functions
3.	Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
4.	All multi-cellular organisms begin their life as a single celled zygote

100.

Which of the following bio-molecules is strictly not a polymer?

1.	Carbohydrates	2.	Proteins
3.	Fats	4.	Nucleic acids

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