ALTIUS - Unit Test # 1 (OLD NCERT)

Botany - Section A

1.

Some infections with gram-negative bacteria can lead to life-threatening septic shock mainly because of the presence of:
1. a thin peptidoglycan layer
2. a layer of lipopolysaccharides
3. presence of teichoic acid
4. porins in the outer membrane

2.

Though lacking in membrane bound organelles, a prokaryotic cell is capable of carrying out many functions of the eukaryotic cell with the help of:

1.	Plasmids	2.	Inclusion bodies
3.	Plasma membrane	4.	Cell wall

3.

Up to three strata or layers may be found in plant cell walls. If all three are present, the outermost layer is:

1.	rich in pectins	2.	expansible
3.	lignified	4.	proteinaceous

4.

Who concluded, based on his studies on plant tissues, that the presence of cell wall is a unique character of plant cells?

1.	Matthias Shcleiden	2.	Theodor Schwann
3.	J. B. S. Haldane	4.	Rudolph Virchow

5.

Maltose is a disaccharide with two glucose molecules taking part in its formation. The molecular formula of maltose will be:

1.	C₆H₁₀O₅	2.	C₃H₆O₃
3.	C₁₂H₂₄O₁₂	4.	C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

6.

Organisms which obtain energy by oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are

1.	Photoautotrophs	2.	Saprotrophs
3.	Photoheterotrophs	4.	Chemoheterotrophs

7.

Which of the following will not be involved in sexual reproduction in fungi?

1.	Oospores	2.	Zoospores
3.	Ascospores	4.	Basidiospores

8.

Wheat belongs to the Order:

1.	Poaceae	2.	Poales
3.	Monocotyledonae	4.	Angiospermae

9.

Which term includes all others given below in the options?
1. Phellogen
2. Phellem
3. Periderm
4. Phelloderm

10.

The stele in a dicot root does not include:

1.	Endodermis	2.	Pericycle
3.	Vascular bundles	4.	Pith

11.

What event is considered as the precursor to ‘seed habit’ in plants?
1. Pollination by insects
2. Evolution of pollen tube
3. Heterospory
4. Dominance of sporophyte

12.

Onion root tip has 16 chromosomes in each cell. How many chromosomes will the cell respectively have at G₁ phase, after S phase and after M phase?

1.	16, 32, 16	2.	16, 32, 8
3.	16, 16, 8	4.	16, 16, 16

13.

Leaf tendrils are seen in:
1. Peas
2. Grapevine
3. Euphorbia
4. Pumpkins

14.

In a dicot root, initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes place in the cells of:

1.	Outer cortex	2.	Inner cortex
3.	Endodermis	4.	Pericycle

15.

Identify the structure of the amino acid that is a Zwitter ion :

1.		2.
3.		4.

16.

Brown algae vary in color from olive green to various shades of brown depending upon:
1. the depth at which they are found in the water body
2. the amount of gelatinous coatings on their cell walls
3. the ratio of the chlorophyll a and chlorophyll c present
4. the amount of xanthophyll pigment present in them

17.

The unusual red color of water that you see in the picture will most likely be due to:

1.	Cyanobacteria	2.	Lichens
3.	Chrysophytes	4.	Dinoflagellates

18.

All the following can be seen in a typical plant cell except:

1.	Lysosomes	2.	Glyoxysomes
3.	Centrosomes	4.	Chromosomes

19.

What is incorrect regarding bryophytes in general?
1. Sex organs are multicellular
2. Main plant body is haploid
3. Sporophyte is free living and photosynthetic
4. Zygotes do not undergo reduction division immediately

20.

The correct statements regarding the type of inflorescence shown in the diagram will include

I:	It is racemose
II:	Flowers show acropetal succession
III:	The main axis does not show limited growth

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

21.

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinaceous layer called as:
1. Aleurone
2. Perisperm
3. Scutellum
4. Replum

22.

What is the arrangement of various regions starting from root tip?

1.	Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement and cell maturation
2.	Root cap, cell division, cell maturation and cell enlargement
3.	Cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement and root cap
4.	Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation and root cap

23.

Resins, gums, and other substances may plug the older inner part in large trees. This part is called:
1. heartwood
2. spring wood
3. bark
4. sapwood

24.

Cuticle:
1. is a covering, both outside and inside of the epidermis
2. is well developed in roots
3. helps in prevention of water loss
4. is a proteinaceous layer

25.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding green algae:
1. Major pigments are chlorophyll a and b
2. Stored food is floridean starch
3. Cellulosic cell wall
4. 2-8, equal and apical flagellar insertions

26.

What is not true for a stem in a flowering plant in general?

1.	Negatively geotropic
2.	Develops from plumule of the germinating embryo
3.	Absence of terminal and axillary buds
4.	Spreads out branches bearing leaves, flowers and fruits

27.

The floral formula shown below belongs to the family:

1. Liliaceae
2. Fabaceae
3. Solanaceae
4. Brassicaceae

28.

The terms ‘bracket fungi’ or ‘pufballs’ is used for some of the members of the class:
1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

29.

A homopolymer has only one building block called monomer repeated ‘n’ number of times. A heteropolymer has more than one type of monomers. Proteins are heteropolymers made of amino acids. While a nucleic acid-like DNA or RNA is made of only 4 types of nucleotide monomers, proteins are made up of
1. 20 types of monomers
2. 40 types of monomers
3. 3 types of monomers
4. Only one type of monomer

30.

Embryonic leaves of oil seeds are expected to contain large amounts of:

1.	Chromoplasts	2.	Amyloplasts
3.	Aleuroplasts	4.	Elaioplasts

31.

Human disease, that is an analogous variant of mad cow disease in cattle, is caused by:
1. Viroid
2. Virus
3. Mycoplasma
4. Prion

32.

The giant redwood tree, Sequoia, belongs to:

1.	Bryophyta	2.	Pteridophyta
3.	Gymnospermae	4.	Angiospermae

33.

Which of the following plants is used to extract the blue dye?
1. Trifolium
2. Indigofera
3. Lupin
4. Cassia

34.

DNA replication takes place during :

1.	G₁ - phase	2.	G₂ - phase
3.	S - phase	4.	Prophase

35.

A store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets is called as a:
1. Herbarium
2. Flora
3. Manual
4. Monograph

Botany - Section B

36.

Classification of organisms based on measurable similarities and differences rather than genetic makeup and evolutionary descent is called phenetics. What type of biological classification system does it belong to?

1.	Artificial	2.	Phylogenetic
3.	Cytotaxonomy	4.	Numerical taxonomy

37.

Which of the following cannot be made by the plant cell and must be inherited by each daughter cell during cell division?

1.	Cell wall	2.	Spindle
3.	Centriole	4.	Chloroplasts

38.

The functions of the central vacuole in a plant cell will include all except:
1. Hydrolysis of biomolecules stored in it
2. Maintenance of turgor pressure
3. Cell elongation
4. Keeping chloroplasts closer to light

39.

The correct sequence of layers [from the outside to the inside] of a mature woody stem will be:
1. Periderm – Vascular cambium – Phloem – Xylem
2. Periderm – Phloem – Vascular cambium – Xylem
3. Phellem – Phellogen – Phelloderm – Xylem – Phloem
4. Phellem – Phelloderm – Phellogen – Phloem – Xylem

40.

The members of Kingdom Monera and Kingdom Protista in Whittaker’s five kingdom classification resemble each other in:

1.	Cell type	2.	Body organization
3.	Nature of cell wall	4.	Nuclear membrane

41.

A nail is driven in the trunk of a young tree, about 4 meters tall, at a height of about 2 meters from the ground. In a few years the tree grows to a height of 20 meters. What would be the height of the nail from the ground now?

1.	2 meters	2.	10 meters
3.	12 meters	4.	18 meters

42.

Which of the following is a primary meristem?
1. Plerome
2. Protoderm
3. Intercalary meristem
4. All

43.

You do not expect to see flagella during the life cycle of:

1.	Spirogyra	2.	Dictyota
3.	Sargassum	4.	Polysiphonia

44.

In a flower, if the gynoecium occupies the highest position, the flower is said to be:

1.	Superior	2.	Inferior
3.	Hypogynous	4.	Epigynous

45.

Most of the polymerization reactions result from:

1.	Redox reactions	2.	Dehydration synthesis
3.	Hydrolysis	4.	Isomerization

46.

The members of deuteromycetes reproduce only by asexual spores called as:

1.	Zoospores	2.	Sporangiospores
3.	Aplanospores	4.	Conidia

47.

A dikaryon is formed when
1. Meiosis is arrested
2. The two haploid cells do not fuse immediately
3. Cytoplasm does not fuse
4. None of the above

48. Which of the following are true about the taxonomical aid 'key' ?
(a) Keys are based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
(b) Key is analytical in nature.
(c) Keys are based on the contrasting characters in pair called couplet.
(d) Same key can be used for all taxonomic categories.
(e) Each statement in the key is called Lead.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. (a), (b) and (c) only
2. (b), (c) and (d) only
3. (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
4. (a), (c), (d) and (e) only

49.

Which of the following is not true regarding comparison between the gymnosperms Pinus and Cycas?

	Character	*Pinus*	*Cycas*
1.	Root symbiotic association	Mycorrhiza	Cyanobacteria
2.	Stem	Branched	Unbranched
3.	Reproductive parts	Dioecious	Monoecious
4.	Scale leaves	Fall off as branches mature	Persistent, protective

50.

Which of the following statements is NOT true of mitosis?

1.	A single nucleus gives rise to two identical daughter nuclei.
2.	The daughter nuclei are genetically identical to the parent nucleus.
3.	The centromeres divide at the onset of anaphase.
4.	Homologous chromosomes synapse in prophase.

Zoology - Section A

51.

In Balanoglossus respiration takes place through:

1.	Gills	2.	Skin
3.	Proboscis gland	4.	Lungs

52.

The mechanisms that contribute to the genetic variation arising from sexual reproduction include:

I:	Independent assortment of chromosomes
II:	Crossing over
III:	Random fertilization

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

53.

If the centromere is located close to an end of a chromosome, the chromosome is said to be:
1. Metacentric
2. Sub-metacentric
3. Acrocentric
4. Telocentric

54.

Which of the following is essentially a modified centriole?

1.	Cilium	2.	Flagellum
3.	Basal body	4.	Centromere

55.

The phylum with exclusively marine animals is:

1.	Porifera	2.	Cnidaria
3.	Ctenophora	4.	Platyhelminthes

56.

A cell secreting large quantities of glycoproteins is expected to be rich in:

I: RER

II: Golgi apparatus

III: SER

1.	Only I	2.	Both I and II
3.	Only III	4.	Both II and III

57.

In which one of the following sets of animals, all the four, give birth to young ones?

1.	Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris
2.	Lion, bat, whale, ostrich
3.	Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
4.	Shrew, bat, cat, kiwi

58.

According to the International Union of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology, the enzymes belonging to EC 1 are:

1.	Oxidoreductases: catalyze oxidation/reduction reactions
2.	Transferases: transfer a functional group (e.g. a methyl or phosphate group)
3.	Hydrolases: catalyze the hydrolysis of various bonds
4.	Lyases: cleave various bonds by means other than hydrolysis and oxidation

59.

Match the feature [Column I] with phylum [Column II] and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Water transport canal system	a.	Echinodermata
B.	Water vascular system	b.	Porifera
C.	Metagenesis	c.	Annelida
D.	Metamerism	d.	Cnidaria

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	b	a	d	c
3.	a	b	d	c
4.	b	a	c	d

60.

An important evolutionary transition that appeared for the first time in Echinoderms is:
1. Bilateral symmetry
2. Radial symmetry
3. Tube within a tube plan
4. Endoskeleton

61.

Chordates are not characterized by:

1.	Ventral nerve cord	2.	Post anal tail
3.	Gill slits	4.	A notochord

62.

Consider the given three statements:

I:	Cyclostomes do not have jaws, scales and paired fins.
II:	Chondrichthyes have placoid scales, internal fertilization and in many cases viviparity.
III:	Osteichthyes have operculum, swim bladder and are cold-blooded.

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

63.

Identify the correctly matched pair/s:

I:	Peroxidase	Haem is the prosthetic group
II:	Coenzymes NAD and NADP	Contain niacin
III:	Carboxypeptidase	Zinc is the cofactor

1.	I, II and III	2.	Only II and III
3.	Only I	4.	Only III

64.

Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are:
1. living things but not living reactions
2. not living things but are living reactions
3. living things and living reactions
4. neither living things nor living reactions

65.

The key features of meiosis include all the following except:

1.	Pairing of heterologous chromosomes
2.	Crossing over between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
3.	Four haploid cells produced at the end of the second division
4.	Initiated after DNA replication in S phase

66.

What type of epithelial cell junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other?
1. Gap junctions
2. Adhering junctions
3. Tight junctions
4. Plasmodesmata

67. Identify the correct statements:

I:	Robert Hooke first used the word cell to name the microscopic honeycomb cavities in cork.
II:	Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a living cell.
III:	Robert Brown discovered the nucleus.
IV:	George Palade first observed centrosomes in animal cells.

1. I and II only
2. Only I, II and III
3. Only III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV

68.

In competitive inhibition, if the concentration of the substrate is increased :
1. the rate of the reaction is increased
2. the rate of the reaction is decreased
3. the rate of the reaction is not affected
4. the reaction direction is reversed

69.

An organelle is seen to possess a single circular chromosome DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules, 70s ribosomes and divides by fission. This organelle can be either:
1. Endoplasmic reticulum or Golgi apparatus
2. Mitochondria or Chloroplast
3. Endoplasmic reticulum or Mitochondria
4. Golgi apparatus or Chloroplast

70.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Tissue		Location
A	Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium	P	Proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron
B	Ciliated columnar epithelium	Q	Fallopian tubes
C	Dense regular connective tissue	R	Tendon
D	Dense irregular connective tissue	S	Skin

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	P	S	R
3.	Q	P	R	S
4.	P	Q	S	R

71.

Cyclostomes:

1.	are fresh water organisms that move to marine water for spawning
2.	have an open circulatory system
3.	have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws
4.	do not have either scales on body or paired fins

72. Arrange the following elements present in human body in their ascending order of occurrence [begin with the element found in the lowest percentage]:

Hydrogen, Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Calcium

1. Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Calcium, Hydrogen
2. Calcium, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon
3. Hydrogen, Calcium, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon
4. Hydrogen, Calcium, Nitrogen, Carbon, Oxygen

73.

Mitotic spindles are mainly composed of which protein?

1.	Actin	2.	Tubulin
3.	Actomyosin	4.	Myoglobin

74.

Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear during Telophase I
2.	The nuclear membrane disappears by the end of Prophase II
3.	DNA replicates during interkinesis between meiosis I and meiosis II
4.	Chromosomes do not reach the extremely extended state of interphase nucleus

75.

Notochord is present only in larval tail in all the following except:

1.	Ascidia	2.	Salpa
3.	Doliolum	4.	Branchiostoma

76.

Unicellular glands located in the alimentary canal are called as:

1.	Paneth cells	2.	Peyer’s patches
3.	Goblet cells	4.	Histiocytes

77. Complete alimentary canal, an excretory tube and a pseudocoelom will be seen in animals belonging to the phylum:

1.	Cnidaria	2.	Aschelminthes
3.	Hemichordata	4.	Echinodermata

78.

Identify the option where the given phylum is matched with given animals, all included in it:

1.	Cnidaria	Adamsia, Gorgonia, Pleurobrachia
2.	Mollusca	Chaetopleura, Sepia, Dentalium
3.	Echinodermata	Antedon, Cucumaria, Myxine
4.	Arthropoda	Limulus, Nereis, Locusta

79.

What type of protein structure is the beta-pleated sheet?

1.	Primary	2.	Secondary
3.	Tertiary	4.	Quaternary

80.

Most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere is:

1.	Collagen	2.	Cellulose
3.	RuBisCO	4.	Keratin

81. In Cockroach:
I: Excretion is performed by Malpighian tubules.
II. Mosaic vision is possible due to compound eyes.
III. Tissues receive oxygen through the blood vascular system.
IV. Hepatic caeca secrete digestive juice.
V. The development is paurometabolous.
The number of correct statements is:
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

82.

The enzyme recombinase functions during:

1.	Zygotene	2.	Pachytene
3.	Diplotene	4.	Diakinesis

83.

Which one of the following sets of animals belongs to a single taxonomic group?

1.	Cuttlefish, Jellyfish, Silverfish, Dogfish, Starfish
2.	Bat, Pigeon, Butterfly
3.	Monkey, Chimpanzee, Man
4.	Silkworm, Tapeworm, Earthworm

84.

Which one of the following sets of animals share a four chambered heart?
1. Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds
2. Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals
3. Crocodiles, Lizards, Turtles
4. Lizards, Mammals, Birds

85.

The unique properties of each amino acid is determined by its particular :
1. R group
2. amino group
3. kinds of peptide bonds
4. number of bonds to other amino acids

Zoology - Section B

86.

The fluidity of the cell membrane:

1.	increases when there is a high proportion of trans unsaturated fatty acids in the phospholipid molecules that make up the bilayer.
2.	decreases when there is a high proportion of cis unsaturated fatty acids in the phospholipid molecules that make up the bilayer.
3.	increases when there is a high proportion of cis unsaturated fatty acids in the phospholipid molecules that make up the bilayer.
4.	increases when there is a high proportion of saturated fatty acids in the phospholipid molecules that make up the bilayer.

87.

Approximately what percentage of existing animal species are invertebrates?

1.	20	2.	50
3.	70	4.	95

88.

Which of the following statements is not true about Nematodes?

1.	They are bilaterally symmetrical, un-segmented worms.
2.	They are covered with a flexible, thick cuticle that is molted four times as they grow.
3.	A well-developed advanced excretory system
4.	They possess a hydrostatic skeleton.

89.

The largest phylum of marine animals is:

1.	Arthropoda	2.	Echinodermata
3.	Cnidaria	4.	Mollusca

90.

In meiosis:

1.	A single round of DNA replication is followed by two sequential divisions with the chromosome number and DNA content getting reduced twice
2.	A single round of DNA replication is followed by two sequential divisions with the chromosome number getting reduced twice and DNA content getting reduced once
3.	A single round of DNA replication is followed by two sequential divisions with the chromosome number getting reduced once and DNA content getting reduced twice
4.	A single round of DNA replication is followed by two sequential divisions with the chromosome number and DNA content getting reduced once

91.

Identify the number of animals that do not have homoiothermy from the list given in the box below:

Aptenodytes, Hemidactylus, Pteropus, Icthyophis,
Pterophyllum, Carcharodon, Neophron, Myxine

1.	3	2.	4
3.	5	4.	6

92.

Which of the following is not a feature of birds?
1. Forelimbs modified into wings
2. Single occipital condyle
3. Ten pairs of cranial nerves
4. Four-chambered heart

93.

The diversity in living beings is due to
1. Mutations
2. Long term evolutionary changes
3. Short term evolutionary changes
4. Gradual changes

94.

Identify the chordates in which the notochord persists in the adults?

1.	Tunicates	2.	Lancelets
3.	Cyclostomata	4.	Bony fishes

95.

What is not true regarding smooth muscles?
1. Fibers are fusiform and striated
2. They have actin and myosin
3. Fibers are held by cell junctions and bundled together in a connective tissue sheath
4. They are found in the walls of blood vessels, stomach and intestine

96.

Unlike amphibians, reptiles:

1.	use lungs for breathing
2.	are mostly oviparous
3.	do not have an aquatic larval stage
4.	have tympanum that represents the ear

97.

Consider the following statements:

I:	In animals, meiosis always results in the formation of gametes, while in other organisms it can give rise to spores.
II:	Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction and therefore occurs in all eukaryotes (including single-celled organisms) that reproduce sexually.
III:	Meiosis does not occur in archaea or bacteria, which reproduce via asexual processes such as binary fission.

The correct statements are:
1. I, II, and III
2. II and III
3. I and III
4. I and II

98.

Given below is highly simplified structure of glycogen molecule. Identify A, B, C and D:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Non reducing end	Reducing end	α[ 1 → 4] linkage	α[ 1 → 6] linkage
2.	Non reducing end	Reducing end	β[ 1 → 4] linkage	β [ 1 → 6] linkage
3.	Reducing end	Non reducing end	α[ 1 → 4] linkage	α[ 1 → 6] linkage
4.	Reducing end	Non reducing end	β[ 1 → 4] linkage	β [ 1 → 6] linkage

99.

The following diagram shows the section of a certain organelle. The correct function of this organelle will be:

1.	Locomotion in bacterial cell
2.	Locomotion in eukaryotic cell
3.	Formation of spindle in plant cells
4.	Formation of spindle in animal cells

100. Consider the given statements:

Statement I:	In a neuron, Nissl’s granules are not present in dendrites.
Statement II:	Unmyelinated nerve fibre is not enclosed by a Schwann cell in the peripheral neural system.
Statement III:	Myelinated neurons conduct impulse at a higher velocity when compared to unmyelinated neurons.

1.	Only Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Only Statement III is correct
3.	Statement II and Statement III are incorrect
4.	Statement I, Statement II and Statement III are correct

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