The disease inheritance pattern exemplified in the given pedigree analysis can be:
1. | Hemophilia | 2. | Red-green colour blindness |
3. | Phenyl ketonuria | 4. | Polydactyly |
Consider the following statements:
I. People affected by phenylketonuria are unable to convert tyrosine to phenylalanine.
II. Alzheimer's disease results from accumulation of amyloid protein plaques in the brain.
III. Klinefelter's and Turner's syndromes are the result of non disjunction of the sex chromosomes in either of sexes.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Consider the following statements:
I. If we put them through test cross, all homozygous dominant combinations will breed true but heterozygous genotypes will follow the segregation.
II. Two gene interactions such as epistasis do not follow the Menedelian principle of segregation.
III. In any diploid individual, only two alleles can be found, so multiple alleles can be detected only in a population.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
The maximum amount of air that a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration, under normal physiological conditions, would be about:
1. | 1600 ml | 2. | 2300 ml |
3. | 4500 ml | 4. | 5600 ml |
Facilitated transport differs from active transport as the former
1. Transports saturates.
2. Response to protein inhibitors.
3. Requires special membrane proteins.
4. Shows downhill transport.
Initial carboxylation reaction in and plants occurs respectively in
plants plants
1. Mesophyll cells - Mesophyll cells.
2. Mesophyll cells - Bundle sheath cells.
3. Bundle sheath cells - Mesophyll cells.
4. Bundle sheath cells - Bundle sheath cells.
Identify the mismatched pair with respect to respiratory quotient (RQ)
Substrates R.Q.
1. Carbohydrates - 1
2. Oxalic acid - 4
3. Proteins - >1
4. Malic acid - 1.33
Consider the following statements and select the option that correctly fill in the blanks.
A. _________ is used to induce the dormancy of buds and storage organs.
B. _________ speed up the malting process in brewing industry.
C. Senescence is prevented by __________.
A B C
1. Gibberellin Cytokinin GAs
2. Ethylene ABA Cytokinin
3. Cytokinin Auxins ABA
4. ABA GAs Cytokinin
DNA having labelled thymidine is allowed to replicate in medium having non-radioactive thymidine. After three duplications, the DNA having labelled thymidine shall be
1. one molecule
2. two molecules
3. four molecules
4. eight molecules
Select the odd one with respect to redifferentiated tissues.
1. Cork cambium
2. Secondary phloem
3. Secondary xylem
4. Secondary cortex
Assertion : Dragonflies are useful to get rid of mosquitoes
Reason : Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. Microfilaments are long, thin and branch structures of dynein protein.
2. 80S ribosomes are attached to RER through ribophorins.
3. Chloroplasts and mitochondria are believed to be bacterial endosymbionts.
4. Fungal cell wall is made up of polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine units.
Which of the following is not correct for slime moulds?
1. Somatic phase is plasmodium.
2. They are saprophytic.
3. Spore is with wall.
4. They are pathogenic.
Asexual spored in brown algae are
1. Non-motile sporangiospore.
2. Biflagellated zoospores with two equal flagella.
3. Quadriflagellated zoospores with thick cell walls.
4. Biflagellated zoospores with two unequal lateral flagella.
Pioneer communities in ecological succession are
(i) Phytoplanktons (ii) Scrubs
(iii) Floating plants (iv) Lichens
(v) Herbs
1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
2. (i), (iv)
3. (i), (iv), (v)
4. (i), (ii), (v)
Select the correct match with respect to mineral as activator/components of enzymes.
a. Nitrogenase (i) Zn
b. PEPcase (ii) Fe
c. Alcohol dehydrogenase (iii) Mo
d. Catalase (iv) Mg
1. a (iii), b (iv), c (i), d (ii)
2. a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)
3. a (iv), b (iii), c (i), d (ii)
4. a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
DNA replication is semiconservative because
1. Daughter DNA molecules have both parental strands.
2. Daughter DNA molecules have one parental and one newly synthesized strand.
3. Daughter DNA molecules have both newly synthesized strands.
4. Both 1 & 3.
On analyzing the number of different samples of DNA which, result would be constant with the base pairing rules?
1. A = G
2. A = C
3. A G = C T
4. G = T
Which of the following statements is correct?
1. In Fabaceae, stamens show tetradynamous condition.
2. Superior ovary with oblique septa are found in members of Solanaceae.
3. Gynoecium is tricarpellalry and apocarpous in members of Liliaceae.
4. In Smilax, root tip is tendrillar.
How many plants in the list given below have basal placentation?
Pea, China rose, Tomato, Sunflower, Wheat, Bean, Argemone, Marigold, Mustard, Lemon, Maize
1. Eight
2. Four
3. Two
4. Six
Which of the following is absent in monocot stem?
1. Ground tissue and hypodermis.
2. Phloem parenchyma and water containing cavities.
3. Endodermis and phloem parenchyma.
4. Bundle sheath and pericycle.
During secondary treatment, major part of activated sludge is pumped into tanks called
1. Aerobic sludge digesters.
2. Anaerobic sludge digesters.
3. Primary sludge digesters.
4. Settling tanks.
Population density will increase if
1. Number of births and number of deaths increase.
2. Number of births and number of immigrants is high.
3. Number of immigrants and number of deaths is high.
4. Number of births and number of immigrants is low.
Select the group of animals belonging to different phyla?
1. Hirudinaria, Limulus, Laccifer.
2. Nereis, Dentalium, Aplysia.
3. Pheretima, Chaetopleura, Ophiura.
4. Cucumaria, Anteadon, Loligo.
Similarity between protochordata and hemichordata is
1. Presence of notochord.
2. Exclusively marine.
3. Dorsal hollow and single central nervous system.
4. Exclusively parasitic.
Nucleotide is made up of
1. Heterocyclic compound, Monosaccharide, Phosphoric acid.
2. Nitrogenous base, hexose sugar, phosphate.
3. Heterocyclic compound and pentose sugar only.
4. Heterocyclic compound and nucleoside.
NAD and NADP are consider as
1. Apoenzyme and cofactor respectively.
2. Coenzyme and co-factor respectively.
3. Both as co-enzyme.
4. Apoenzyme and holoenzyme respectively.
In ECG the ventricular contraction occurs
1. Just after P wave and before Q wave.
2. Just after Q wave but before T wave.
3. In between S-T segment.
4. After the end of T wave.
Which of the following can not be expected in the filtrate. When it arrives to descending limb of Henle's loop?
I. Albumin II. Glucose III. Urea IV. Amino acid
1. I, II, III & IV
2. I only
3. II, IV only
4. I, II & IV
Gill clefts and notochord appear in the embryonic development of all vertebrates from fishes to mammals. This supports the theory of
1. Recapitulation
2. Metamorphosis
3. Biogenesis
4. Abiogenesis
Cardiac muscles can be best defined as:
1. | Many cardiac muscle cells assemble in a branching pattern. |
2. | Single cardiac muscle fibre enclosed by connective tissue layer. |
3. | Group of multinucleated muscle fibres enclosed by connective tissue layer. |
4. | Group of unstriated muscle fibres enclosed by endocardium. |
Which of the following is required for the breaking of cross-bridge during muscle contraction?
1. ATP and Ca++
2. ADP and Ca++
3. Only Ca++
4. ATP only
Mark the incorrect match?
1. | Cerebral aqueduct | A canal passes through the midbrain, connecting 3rd ventricle to 4th ventricle of the brain. | |
2. | Corpus callosum | Thick band of nerve fibres that divides the cerebral cortex lobes into left and right hemispheres. | |
3. | Limbic system | The inner part of forebrain involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour. | |
4. | Pons | Consist of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain. |
How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
1. By adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines.
2. By reinforcing bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds.
3. By adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA.
4. By forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching.
DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis are shown. Mark the correct statement:
1. Band 3 contains more positively charged DNA molecules than bond 1.
2. Band 3 indicates more charge density than bands 1 and 2.
3. Band 1 has longer DNA fragment than bands 2 and 3.
4. All bands have equal length and charges but differ in base composition.
Fertilization membrane is formed to
1. Faciliate entry of sperm into egg.
2. Provide stability to egg.
3. Prevent ectopic pregnancy.
4. Prevent polyspermy.
How many of the following is correct with respect to Ernst Mayr?
(1) Evolutionary biologist.
(2) Darwin of 20th century.
(3) Origin of species diversity.
(4) Biological concept of species.
Options
1. All
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
Which of the following Algae shows anisogamy.
1. Volvox.
2. Udorina.
3. Spirogyra.
4. Ulothrix.
During cell cycle, events are under
1. Genetic control
2. Metabolic control
3. Cytoplasmic control
4. Mitochondrial control
For recombination in meiosis, which of the following is not correct?
1. Occur between non sister chromatids.
2. Homolohous chromosomes are involved.
3. Non homolohous chromosomes are involved.
4. Enzyme recombinase is involved.
Study the following statements find the incorrect match.
1. Wild relatives are used in plant breeding.
2. Production of single cell protein is useful in reducing environmental pollution.
3. Somaclones are different from source of explant.
4. Maize hybrid have twice amount of amino acid lysine & tryptophan.
Find the incorrect statement
1. Lac-operon is under both positive and negative regulation.
2. A very low level of expression of lac operon has to be present all the time, otherwise lactose can not enter into the cell.
3. The repressor of the operon is synthesised all the time-constitutively.
4. In lac operon lactose or allolactose acts as repressor.
Which of the following is not correct for “Snips”?
1. | There are 1.4 million locations in human genome. |
2. | Where single base differences occur. |
3. | They shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution. |
4. | It promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease associated sequences. |
Amount of DDT in fish eating bird is :-
1. 25 ppm
2. 15 ppm
3. 10 ppm
4. 5 ppm
Find incorrect match
1. The earth summit – 1992
2. World summit on sustainable development – 2002
3. Hot spots – 2% of the earth’s land area.
4. Sacred groves – Ex situ conservation
Statement - 1 : Herbivores and plants appears to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores.
Statement - 2 : Competition is a process in which fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
Options
1. Both statements are correct.
2. Both statements are incorrect.
3. 1 is incorrect.
4. 2 is incorrect.
Theory of spontaneous generation of life was conclusively disproved by:
1. Francesco Redi
2. Oparin and Haldane
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Eldredge and Gould
The mode of transmission for all the following human diseases is primarily by droplet infection except for:
1. Pneumonia
2. Diphtheria
3. Influenza
4. Polio
Select the option where all columns are correctly matched:
Disease |
Causative organism |
Feature |
|
1. |
Malignant malaria |
Plasmodium ovale |
Cerebral involvement |
2. |
Typhoid |
Salmonella typhi |
Confirmed by the VDRL test |
3. |
Elephantiasis |
Wuchereria bancrofti |
Waterborne disease |
4. |
Ringworm |
Microsporum |
Intense itching |
The Km value of an enzyme denotes the substrate concentration at which the enzyme catalyzed reaction:
1. Reaches Vmax
2. Shows a decline in the rate of reaction
3. Attains ½ Vmax
4. Finally stops
What is true regarding the morphology of Periplaneta americana?
1. Head is formed by the fusion of 10 segments
2. Hypopharynx acts as the tongue
3. The first pair of wings arise from the prothorax
4. Anal cerci are not seen in females
When the plasma of a person has both anti A and anti B antibodies the blood group of this person would be:
1. A
2. B
3. AB
4. O
Consider the following statements and select the option that correctly fill in the blanks
(a) __________ acts as gametes in plasmodial slime moulds.
(b) __________ forms a connecting link with plants, animals and fungi.
(c) __________ are regarded as advanced protists and primitive fungi.
(d) __________ is producer-consumer protist.
In C4 plants, number of carbon atoms in
(a) Primary CO2 acceptor
(b) Primary CO2 fixation product
(a) (b)
1. 5 3
2. 3 4
3. 3 5
4. 4 3
The given vegetative propagule is
1. Bulb of onion
2. Rhizome of turmeric
3. Tuber of potato
4. Bulbil of Agave
The most efficient reproductive strategy for Oysters is that they:
1. Breed only once in their life time
2. Breed many times during their life time
3. Produce a large number of small sized offspring
4. Produce a small number of large sized offspring
Death of organism is the beginning of food chain in which
1. Energy and nutrient requirement is met by degrading organic matter.
2. Major conduct for energy flow is operational in aquatic ecosystem.
3. Number of trophic levels are limited.
4. Producers belong to first carefully.
Which one of the following statement is false in respect of flowering plants?
1. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones.
2. Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small opening called the germ pore is present.
3. Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
4. Apomicts have several advantages in horticulture and agriculture.
Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of biological organization, which one of the following is
correct representation?
1. Population Ecosystem Biome Landscape.
2. Communities Population Ecosystem Biome.
3. Organisms Population Communities Biome.
4. Species Ecosystem Communities Biome.
Megaspore mother cell differentiates from
1. Nucellus in the micropylar region.
2. Nucellus in the chalazal region.
3. Primary parietal cell in chalazal region.
4. Integument cell in micropylar region.
Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because of the presence of
1. Pollenkitt.
2. Sporopollenin.
3. Pecto-cellulose.
4. Lingo-cellulose.
In racemose type of inflorescence
1. Main axis does not terminate in a flower.
2. Flowers are borne in a basipetal order.
3. Main axis shows limited growth.
4. Both 1 and 2.
According to Whittaker system, organisms with chemosynthetic autotrophic nutrition and cellular body organization belong to
1. Monera and protista.
2. Monera.
3. Monera and fungi.
4. Protista.
Select correct match between Column I and II
Column I Column II
a. As quick referral system (i) Monograph
in taxonomical studies
b. Collection of preserved (ii) Herbarium
plants and animals
c. Index to the plant species (iii) Museum
found in a particular area
d. Complete information of (iv) Flora
any one taxon
1. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
2. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
3. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
4. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
In contrast to Annelids, the Platyhelminths show:
1. Absence of body cavity
2. Presence of pseudocoel
3. Radial symmetry
4. Bilateral symmetry
An acromion process is characteristically found in the -
1. Skull of frog
2. Sperm of mammals
3. Pelvic girdle of mammals
4. Pectoral girdle of mammals
Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cell of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells -
1. Osteocytes
2. Liver cells
3. Neurons
4. Malpighian layer of the skin
The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is -
1. 20 mm Hg
2. 50 mm Hg
3. 75 mm Hg
4. 30 mm Hg
Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface -
1. Zymogen granules
2. Pinocytic vesicles
3. Phagocytic vesicles
4. Microvilli
If the mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely-
1. Estrogen secretion further decreases
2. Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
3. Corpus luteum will disintegrate
4. Primary follicle starts developing
Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain-
1. Lipase
2. protease
3. Exonuclease
4. Endonuclease
One of the examples of the action of the autonomous nervous system is -
1. Knee-jerk reponse
2. Pupillary reflex
3. Peristalsis of the intestines
4. Swallowing of food
The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to their destinations is -
1. Endoplasmic Reticulum
2. Lysosome
3. Mitochondria
4. Chloroplast
Use the graph below, which shows changes during
the menstrual cycle.
What is the cause of the sudden increase shown as
point E ?
1. Negative feedback of progesterone on the
hypothalamus.
2. Negative feedback of estrogen on the anterior
pituitary.
3. Positive feedback of FSH on ovary.
4. Positive feedback of estrogen on the anterior
pituitary
Select the incorrect statement with respect to parturition.
1. Fully developed foetus and placenta induce mild
uterine contractions.
2. It is a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
3. Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of oxytocin
from foetal pituitary gland.
4. The signal for parturition is called foetal ejection
reflex
___A___ is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling present in the forebrain of the central nervous system. Here ‘A’ is:
1. Association area
2. Thalamus
3. Pons
4. Hypothalamus
Which of the following is not true for fermentation?
1. Fermentation accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose
2. In fermentation there is a net gain of only two molecules of ATP for each molecule of glucose
3. During fermentation NADH is oxidised to NAD+ very rapidly
4. Anaerobic respiration takes place in the cytoplasm
Glycerol would enter the respiratory pathway after being converted to-
1. PGAL
2. DPGA
3. PGA
4. Acetyl CoA
Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse are given–
A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the entry of ions, a new action potential is generated in the post synaptic neuron.
B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post synaptic membrane
C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic membrane, neurotransmitter releases into synaptic cleft
D. Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane
E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal.
In which sequence do these events occur?
Match the Source gland with its respective hormone and function and select the correct option.
Source gland |
Hormone |
Function |
|
1. |
Anterior pituitary |
Oxytocin |
Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth |
2. |
Posterior pituitary |
Vasopressin |
Stimulates reabsorption of water in the distal tubules in the nephron |
3. |
Corpus luteum |
Estrogen |
Supports Pregnancy |
4. |
Thyroid |
Thyroxine |
Regulates blood calcium level |
Which of the following is/are correct statement regarding contraception?
(1) Insertion of IUD could be effective contraceptive within 3 days of unprotected sex
(2) Morning after pills are used as emergency contraceptives
(3) IUDs prevent STDs.
(4) Lactational amenorrhea is due to hyperprolactinemia
1. (1) only
2. (1), (2) & (4) only
3. (1), (2) & (3) only
4. (1), (2), (3) & (4)
Which of the following bacteria is known as natural genetic engineer of plants?
1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Bacillus thuringiensis
3. Rhizobium meliloti
4. Pseudomonas putida
Mark the incorrect statement:
1. | By using Agrobacterium vectors nematode specific genes were introduced into the host plant. |
2. | Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular phase of growth. |
3. | C-peptide is not present in mature insulin and is removed during maturation into insulin. |
4. | All vectors naturally contain antibiotic-resistance gene. |
Identify A, B, C, D in the given diagram of E. Coli cloning vectors pBR 322.
| A | B | C | D |
1. | Hind I | Eco RI | ampR | ori |
2. | Hind I | Bam HI | kanR | ampR |
3. | Bam HI | Pst I | ori | ampR |
4. | Eco RI | Bam HI | ampR | ori |
Phloem sap is mainly:-
1. Water and osmotically inactive disaccharides only
2. Water and PGRs only
3. Water and osmotically active disaccharides
4. Minerals and PGRs only
Match Column-l with Column-ll with respect to trophic level and their example
Column l Column ll
a. Primary producer i. Lion
b. Primary consumer ii. Phytoplanktons
c. Secondary consumer iii. Grasshoper
d. Tertiary consumer iv. Fishes
1. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
2. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
3. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
4. a*ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of the reason (R)
A : Electrostatic precipitator is most efficient in removing particulate matter.
R : It can remove over 99% of particulate matter present in the exhaust from the thermal power plant.
1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1)
2. If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2)
3. If Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3)
4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4)
In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of the reason (R)
A : Electrostatic precipitator can remove over 99% particulate matter present in the exhaust.
R : It has cathodes only.
1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1)
2. If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2)
3. If Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3)
4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4)
In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of the reason (R)
A : Integrated organic farming is a cyclical zero waste procedure.
R : It uses waste products of one process as nutrients in other process.
1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (1)
2. If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (2)
3. If Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3)
4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4)
In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed
by a statement of the reason (R)
A : Biomagnification is increase
in concentration of a growth factor at successive trophic levels.
R :
This phenomenon is well known for biological fungicides.
1.
If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion, then mark (1)
2. If both Assertion & Reason
are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion, then mark
(2)
3. If Assertion is a true statement but Reason is false, then
mark (3)
4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statements,
then mark (4)
The de Broglie wavelength relates to applied voltage as :
1.
2.
3.
4. Both 2 and 3
The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d orbital respectively are
1. 3,1
2. 1,2
3. 3,0
4. 2,1
The frequency of the characterstic X ray of line of metal target ‘M’ is 2500 cm-1 and
the graph between vs ‘z’ is as follows, then atomic number of M is
1. 49
2. 50
3. 51
4. 25
The IP1, IP2, IP3 and IP4 of an element A are
6.0, 10.0, 16.0 adn 45.0 eV respectively. The
molecular weight of the oxide of the element A
is (x is atomic weight)
1. x + 48
2. 2x + 48
3. 3x + 48
4. x + 32
The molecule having non-zero dipole moment
is
1. 2.
3. 4.
Air is cooled from 250c to 00 c . The decrease
in rms speed of the molecules is
1. 4.3 %
2. 5 %
3. 4.8 %
4. 3 %
Versene, a chelating agent having chemical formula . If each mole of this compound could bind 1 mole of Ca2+, then the rating of pure versene expressed as mg of bound per g of chelating agent is:
1. 100 mg
2. 163 mg
3. 200 mg
4.263 mg
Molarity of liquid HCl with density equal to 1.17 g/cc is:
1. 36.5
2. 18.25
3. 32.05
4. 4.65
How many grams of methyl alcohol should
be added to 10 litre tank of water to prevent
it from freezing at 268K?
(Kf for water is 1.86 K Kg mol−1 )
1. 880.07 g
2. 899.04 g
3. 886.02 g
4. 860.2 g
The volume of a colloidal particle, Vc as
compared to the volume of a solute particle
in a true solution Vs could be
1.
2.
3.
4.
For a first order reaction, the plot of 't' against log C gives a straight line with slope equal to–
1.
2.
3.
4. -k
The decomposition of a gaseous substance (A) to yield gaseous products (B) and (C) follows first order kinetics. If initially only (A) is present and 10 minutes after the start of the reaction the pressure of (A) is 200 mm Hg and that of over all mixture is 300 mm Hg, then the rate constant for 2A B + 3 C is –
1. (1/600) ln 1.25 sec–1
2. (2.303/10) log 1.5 min–1
3. (1/10) ln 1.25 sec–1
4. none of these
An element crystallizes in a structure having FCC unit cell of an edge length 200 pm. If
200 g this element contains 24 x 1023 atoms, the density of the element is
1. 50.3 g/cc
2. 63.4 g/cc
3. 41.6 g/cc
4. 34.8 g/cc
Among the following groups maximum –I effect is exerted by:
\(1 . - C_{6} H_{5}\)
\(2 .\) \(- \left(OCH\right)_{3}\)
\(3 .\) \(- Cl\)
\(4 .\) \(-NO_2\)
Which of the following pairs of structures do not represent resonating structures ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is 51 kcal/mol and its resonance energy is 36 kcal/mol. What will be the heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene ?
1. 18 kcal mol–1 2. 29 kcal mol–1
3. 50 kcal mol–1 4. 26 kcal mol–1
Which of the options is correct about product (A)?
1. Product is aromatic
2. Product has a high dipole moment
3. Product has less resonance energy
4. Both A and B
Correct order of acidic strength is :
1. x > y > z 2. z > y > x
3. y > z > x 4. x > z > y
Correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
1. 2-Amino-3-Formyl butane-1,4-dioic acid
2. 2-Formyl-3-amino butane-1,4-dioic acid
3. 3-Amino-2-formyl butane-1,4-dioic acid
4. 2-Amino-3-carboxy-4-oxo butanoic acid
Propene react with Cl2 at 500ºC the product is formed -
1. 1-chloro propene-1
2. 2-chloro propene-1
3. 1,2-dichloro propane
4. 3-chloro propene-1
Compounds A and B are, respectively:
A | B | |
1. | CH2CH2CHO | CH=CH-CH2OH |
2. | CH2CH2CH2OH | CH=CH-CH2OH |
3. | CH=CH-CH2OH | CH=CH-CH2OH |
4. | CH2CH2CH2OH | CH2CH2CH2OH |
?
Major product is -
One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0L, 95K) (4.0 atm, 5.0L, 245 K) with a change in internal energy,
E = 30.0 L atm. The change in enthalpy (H) of the process in L atm is -
1. 40.0
2. 42.3
3. 44.0
4. not defined, because pressure is not constant
2.1 g of Fe combines with S evolving 3.77 kJ. The heat of formation of FeS in kJ/mole is–
1. – 3.77
2. – 1.79
3. – 100.5
4. none of these
At a certain temperature, equilibrium constant (K) is 16 for the reaction ;
SO(g) + NO(g) SO(g) + NO(g)
If we take one mole of each of all the four gases in a one litre container, what would be the equilibrium concentrations of NO and NO?
1. 1.6 mol/L
2. 2.3 mol/L
3. 4.8 mol/L
4. None of these
The geometry of and
are
1. both square planar
2. tetrahedral and square planar, respectively
3. both tetrahedral
4. square planar and tetrahedral, respectively
A sample of air consisting of and was heated to 2500 K until the equilibrium
was established with an equilibrium constant At equilibrium, the mole % of NO was 1.8. Estimate the initial composition of air in mole fraction of and .
1. N2 = 79%, O2 =21%
2.N2 = 69%, O2 =31%
3. N2 = 55%, O2 =45%
4. N2 = 79%, O2 =17%
The progress of the reaction
A nB with time, is presented in figure. Determine the value of n.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. None of these
What volume of 3 molar HNO3 is needed to oxidise 8 g of Fe2+ to Fe3+ ?
HNO3 NO
1. 8 ml
2. 15.87 ml
3. 32 ml
4. 64 ml
When conc. is added to , explosion take place and the product formed is-
1.
2.
3.
4.
What is the equivalent weight of P in the following reaction ?
P + NaOH NaH PO + PH
The volume of '10 Vol' of H2O2 required to liberate 500 mL O2 at NTP is -
1. 50 ml
2. 25 ml
3. 100 ml
4. 125 ml
Gold is extracted by making soluble cyanide complex. The cyanide complex is
1.
2.
3.
4.
When CO is heated with NaOH under pressure, we get -
1. Sodium benzoate
2. Sodium acetate
3. Sodium formate
4. Sodium oxalate
Silica reacts with Mg to form a magnesium compound (A). (A) react with dil. HCl and forms (B). (B) is -
1. MgSiO 2. MgO
3. MgCl2 4. SiCl4
In the reaction,
2KI + HO + O 2KOH + O + A,
the compound A is –
1. KIO
2. I2O
3. HIO
4. I
Radius of Ar atom is 145 pm. The percentage volume occupied by an Ar atom at STP is
1. 0.03
2. 3.0
3. 0.30
4. 0.06
Serine is an essential amino acid. The correct Fischer projection of serine is
1. 2.
3. 4.
Rayon is manufactured by
1. Cellulose nitrate process
2. Viscose process
3. Cellulose acetate process
4. All of these
Other than the X-ray diffractions, how could be the following pairs of isomers be distinguished from one another by;
1. Cryoscopic method
2. Measurement of molar conductance
3. Measuring magnetic moments
4. Observing their colors
Which of the following statements is not true for Ce3+ and Yb3+? [NSEC 2017]
1. Both absrob in UV region
2. Both show f-f transition
3. Both show 4f to 5d transition
4. Both ions are colourless
The specific conductance of 0.01 M solution of a weak monobasic acid is 0.20 x 10-3 S cm-1. The dissociation constant of the acid is-
[Given = 400 S ]
1. | \(5 \times 10^{-2}\) | 2. | \(2.5 \times 10^{-5}\) |
3. | \(5 \times 10^{-4}\) | 4. | \(2.2 \times 10^{-11}\) |
In which electrolysis pH of solution decreases?
1. NaCl solution using Pt electrodes
2. solution using Pt electrodes
3. solution using Cu electrodes
4. All of these
The thermal stability of alkaline earth metal carbonates-MgCO3, CaCO3, SrCO3 and BaCO3, follows the order.
1. BaCO3>SrCO3>CaCO3>MgCO3
2. CaCO3>SrCO3>BaCO3>MgCO3
3. MgCO3>CaCO3>SrCO3>BaCO3
4. SrCO3>CaCO3>MgCO3>BaCO3
Subtract \(12.589-12.4\) and give the answer to the correct significant figure:
1. \(0.2\)
2. \(0.189\)
3. \(0.188\)
4. \(0.199\)
The value of
1. -sin 4x+C
2. sin 4x
3. 4 sin 4x
4. sin 4x+C
Two condensers of capacity 0.3 μF and 0.6 μF are connected in series. The combination is connected across a potential of 6 V. The ratio of energies stored by the condensers will be
1.
2. 2
3.
4. 4
Two condensers in a circuit are joined as shown in figure. The potential of point A is and that of B is . The potential of point D will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ring of radius R is charged uniformly with a charge +Q. The potential at a point on its axis at a distance 'r' from any point on ring will be:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
For the given figure the direction of electric field at A will be
1. Along AX
2. Along AY
3. Along AZ
4. zero
Imagine yourself standing in an elevator which is moving with an upward acceleration . A coin is dropped from rest from the roof of the elevator, relative to you. The roof to floor height of the elevator is 1.5 m. Find the velocity of the coin relative to you when it strikes the base of the elevator.
1. 3 m/s
2. 6 m/s
3. 2 m/s
4. 1.5 m/s
The figure shows a meter-bridge circuit, . The jockey J is at the null point. If R is made through what distance will the jockey J have to be moved to obtain null point again?
1. 10 cm
2. 20 cm
3. 30 cm
4. 40 cm
A person sitting in the rear end of the compartment throws a ball towards the front end. The ball follows a parabolic path. The train is moving with uniform velocity of . A person standing outside on the ground also observes the ball. How will the maximum heights attained and the ranges (R) seen by the thrower and the outside observer compare with each other?
1. same , different R
2. same and R
3. different , same R
4. different and R
Water boils in an electric kettle in 15 minutes after switching on. If the length of the heating wire is decreased to 2/3 of its initial value, then the same amount of water will boil with the same supply voltage in:-
1. 15 minutes
2. 12 minutes
3. 10 minutes
4. 8 minutes
A man is crossing a river flowing with the velocity of 5 m/s. He reaches a point directly across at a distance of 60 m in 5 sec. His velocity in still water should be:
1. 12 m/s
2. 13 m/s
3. 5 m/s
4. 10 m/s
A parallel capacitor has plates of area A and separation d and is charged to a potential difference V. The charging battery is then disconnected and the plates are pulled apart until their separation is 2d. What is the work required to separate the plates?
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of friction between the two blocks is . The force of friction acting between the two blocks is
1. 8 N
2. 10 N
3. 6 N
4. 4 N
A wire of length I is used to form a coil. The magnetic field at its center for a given current in it is minimum if the coil has:-
1. 4 turns
2. 2 turns
3. 1 turn
4. data is not sufficient
What will be the energy loss per hour in the iron core of a transformer if the area of its hysteresis loop is equivalent to . The frequency of alternating current is 50 Hz. The mass of core is 10 kg and the density of iron is -
1. joule
2. joule
3. joule
4. joule
An equilateral triangular loop ACD of side I carries a current i in the directions shown in figure. The loop is kept in a uniform horizontal magnetic field as shown in fig. Net force on the loop is-
1. zero
2.
3. perpendicular to paper inwards
4. perpendicular to paper outwards
The negative of the work done by the conservative internal forces in a system equals the change in its
1. Total energy
2. Kinetic energy
3. Potential energy
4. None of these
Position-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg is shown in the figure. Total work done on the particle from t=0 to t=4s is:
1. 8 J
2. 4 J
3. 0 J
4. can't be determine
Two vehicles of equal masses are moving with same speed v on two roads inclined at an angle . Thet collide inelastically at the junction and, then move together. The speed of the combination is.
1.
2.
3.
4.
A long horizontal metallic rod with length along the east-west direction is falling under gravity. The potential difference between its two ends will:-
1. be zero
2. be constant
3. increase with time
4. decrease with time
A circular ring of diameter 20 cm has a resistance 0.01 . How much charge will flow through the ring if it is rotated from a position perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 2T to a position parallel to field?
1. 4 C
2. 6.28 C
3. 3.14 C
4. 2.5 C
In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are 140 and that in the secondary are 280. If current in primary is 4A then that in the secondary is:-
1. 4A
2. 2A
3. 6A
4. 10A
The graph between the angular momentum J and angular velocity will be:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A solid homogeneous sphere is moving on a rough horizontal surface, partially rolling and partially sliding. During this kind of motion of the sphere:-
1. Total kinetic energy is conserved
2. Angular momentum of the sphere about the point of contact is conserved
3. Only the rotational kinetic energy about the centre of mass is conserved
4. Angular momentum about the centre of mass is conserved
The graph which represents the variation of mean kinetic energy of molecules of a gas with temperature is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
P-V graphs for an ideal gas undergoing polytropic process is shown here. Find the value of m:-
1. 3/4
2. -3/2
3. 5/3
4. 3/2
Two bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of 0.01 and 0.81 respectively. The outer surface areas of the two bodies are the same. The two bodies emit total radiant power at the same rate. The wavelength of B corresponding to maximum spectral radiance in the radiation differs from that of A, by 1.00 . If the temperature of A is 5802 K:-
1. the temperature of B is 17406 K
2.
3. the temperature of B is 11604 K
4. the temperature of B is 2901 K
A drilling machine of 10 kW power is used to drill a bore in a small aluminium block of mass 8 kg. If 50% of power is used up in heating the machine itself or lost to the surrounding, then how much is the rise in temperature of the block in 2.5 minutes?
(specific heat of aluminium=
1.
2.
3.
4.
A 50 kg man is running at a speed of 18 km/h. If all the kinetic energy of the man can be used to increase the water temperature from , how much water can be heated with this energy:-
1. 5 g
2. 10 g
3. 15 g
4. 20 g
A concave mirror gives an image three times as large as the object placed at a distance of 20 cm from it. For the image to be real, the focal length should be:-
1. 10 cm
2. 15 cm
3. 20 cm
4. 30 cm
Two stars are situated at a distance of 8 light years from the earth. These are to be just resolved by a telescope of diameter 0.25 m. If the wavelength of the light used is , then the distance between the stars must be:-
1. m
2. m
3. m
4. m
The velocity of a small ball of mass m and density when dropped in a container filled with glycerin of density becomes constant after sometime. The viscous force acting on the ball in the final stage is:-
1.
2.
3.
4. mg
The diameter of a brass rod is 4 mm and Young's modulus of brass is . The force required to stretch it by 0.1% of its length is-
1.
2. 36 N
3.
4.
Two equal drops of water are falling through air with a steady velocity v. If the drops coalesce, the new steady velocity will be
1. 2v
2. v
3.
4.
The stopping potential for the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface of work function 1.7 eV is 14.3 V. Find the wavelength of radiation used:
1. 975 nm
2. 775 nm
3. 275 nm
4. 575 nm
If a planet has mass and radius double that of earth, what will be the time period of a second's pendulum on the planet?
1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3.
4.
The kinetic energy of an electron with de-Broglie wavelength of 0.3 nanometer is:-
1. 0.168 eV
2. 16.8 eV
3. 1.68 eV
4. 2.5 eV
The gravitational potential energy of an isolated system of three particles, each of mass m, at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side 'I' is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
An electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen-like atom/ion:-
1. Its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and the total energy decrease
2. Kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
3. Kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remain same
4. Kinetic energy and total energy decreases but potential energy increases.
A radioactive isotope is being produced at a constant rate X. Half-life of the radioactive substance is Y. After some time the number of radioactive nuclei become constant. The value of this constant is:
1.
2. XY
3. (XY) ln (2)
4.
A racing car moving towards a cliff sounds its horn. The driver observes that the sound reflected from the cliff has a pitch one octave higher than the actual sound of the horn. If V=the velocity of sound, the velocity of the car is-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Truth table for the function X of A and B as shown in the figure.
1.
A | B | X |
0 | 0 | 1 |
0 | 1 | 0 |
1 | 0 | 0 |
1 | 1 | 1 |
2.
A | B | X |
0 | 0 | 1 |
0 | 1 | 1 |
1 | 0 | 1 |
1 | 1 | 1 |
3.
A | B | X |
0 | 0 | 0 |
0 | 1 | 0 |
1 | 0 | 1 |
1 | 1 | 1 |
4.
A | B | X |
0 | 0 | 0 |
0 | 1 | 1 |
1 | 0 | 1 |
1 | 1 | 0 |
In a resonance tube experiment, the first two resonances are observed at length 10.5 cm and 29.5 cm. The third resonance is observed at the length.
1. 47.5 cm
2. 58.5 cm
3. 48.5 cm
4. 82.8 cm
For the transistor circuit shown below, if , voltage drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V then value of will be:
1. 10 V
2. 5 V
3. 13 V
4. 0
Boolean output for ABC. is:-
1. Zero
2. 1
3. A+B+C
4. ABC