High Yield Test #5 (Level 1)

Botany - Section A

1.

Select incorrect option with respect to sickle cell anaemia:

1.	It is an example of point mutation
2.	It occurs due to base substitution i.e. transition
3.	Glumatic acid is replaced by Valine at sixth position in a polypeptide chain
4.	Mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerization under low oxygen tension

2.

Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variations?
1. vegetative reproduction
2. parthenogenesis
3. Sexual reproduction
4. Nucellar polyembryony

3.

Which of the following groups of plants can reproduce through specialised asexual reproductive structure?
1. Algae and angiosperms
2. Angiosperms and gymnosperms
3. Pteridophytes and fungi
4. Algae and fungi

4.

In 1953, James Watson and F. Crick proposed the Double Helix model of DNA and got Nobel Prize. Their model of DNA was based on:

A.	X-ray diffraction of DNA produced by M. Wilkins and R. Franklin
B.	Griffith’s experiment.
C.	Hershey - Chase experiment
D.	Chargaff’s rule of base equivalence (A + G / T + C = 1)

1. A and D
2. A, B, C and D
3. B, C and D
4. A, B and C

5.

The major part of activated sludge is sent to:

1. Anaerobic sludge digesters
2. Aerobic sludge digesters
3. Aeration tank
4. Settling tank

6.

The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was used by:

1.	Franklin	2.	Meischer
3.	Chargaff	4.	Mendel

7.

Phenomenon in which inheritance of a trait is controlled by two or more genes is known as:
1. Polygenic inheritance
2. Multiple allelism
3. Pleiotropy
4. Co-dominance

8.

A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the:

1.	trees are very healthy	2.	trees are heavily infested
3.	location is highly polluted	4.	location is not polluted

9. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is:-

1.	Multiple step mutations
2.	Saltation
3.	Phenotypic variations
4.	Minor mutations

10.

Tailor made plants will supply which of the following alternative resources to industries?

1. Gloden rice
2. Starches
3. Maize
4. Pesticide

11.

Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of:

(i)	(kcal m^-3)yr^-1
(ii)	gm^-2 yr^-1
(iii)	g^-1 yr^-1
(iv)	(kcal m^-2)yr^-1

1. (ii)
2. (iii)
3. (ii) and (iv)
4. (i) and (iii)

12.

Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Protoplast fusion	(i)	Totipotency
(b)	Plant tissue culture	(ii)	Pomato
(c)	Meristem culture	(iii)	Somaclones
(d)	Micropropagation	(iv)	Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)

13.

Plant growth regulators which inhibit and promote the formation of lateral shoot respectively are:
1. Auxin, gibberellins
2. Cytokinin, ethylene
3. Gibberellins, abscisic acid
4. Auxin, cytokinin

14.

Which one of the following is a correct statement?

1.	In the cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow
2.	The ovary is half inferior in the flowers of cucumber
3.	In castor, the endosperm is not present in mature seeds
4.	Seeds of dicot and monocot plants vary in shape, size and period viability

15.

Neurospora, Ustilago and Agaricus are similar in presence of ____________ during sexual life cycle:
1. Endogenous megaspore
2. Dikaryophase
3. Esogenous meiospore
4. Basidiocarp

16.

Which of the following statement is not true?

1.	Plasma membrane is selectively permeable
2.	Polar molecules cannot pass through the polar lipid bilayer
3.	Neutral molecules pass the membranes through diffusion
4.	Active transport is exhibited with the expenditure of ATP

17.

A collection of species, which bears a close resemblance to one another in the morphological characters of the floral parts is known as :-
1. Class
2. Genus
3. Division
4. Variety

18.

Turgidity of guard cells during the opening of stomata is maintained by the help of:
1. Sodium
2. Magnesium
3. Potassium
4. Calcium

19.

Choose the incorrect statement with respect to pollen grain:

1.	Exine of the pollen grain has prominent apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is absent.
2.	Inner wall of the pollen grain is called intine.
3.	Pollen grains are generally spherical in shape.
4.	In 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen is shed at three-celled stage.

20.

Which of the following is considered a hotspot of biodiversity in India?
1. Indo-Gangetic plain
2. Eastern ghats
3. Aravalli hills
4. Western ghats

21.

Stability of the DNA helical structure is conferred by:

1.	Stacking of one base pair over the other in addition to H-bonds
2.	N-glycosidic bond between nitrogen base and sugar
3.	Presence of 2' - OH group at every nucleotide
4.	More than one option is correct.

22. All of the following are methods of direct gene transfer except:
1. Micro-injection
2. Biolistics
3. Gene gun
4. Disarmed pathogen

23.

Which of the following statements do not justify the importance of photosynthesis?

1.	It is the primary source of all food on earth.
2.	It is responsible for the release of oxygen into the atmosphere.
3.	It is responsible for the water balance on earth.
4.	Use of energy from sunlight by plants doing photosynthesis is the basis of life on earth.

24.

In the dicot root, the vascular cambium originates from:

1.	Tissue located below the phloem bundles, a portion of pericycle tissue, above the protoxylem.
2.	Cortical region
3.	Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle
4.	Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring

25.

Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?
1. Lactobacillus
2. Trichoderma
3. Chlorella
4. Anabaena

26.

Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by:

1.	Phosphofructokinase	2.	Aldolase
3.	Hexokinase	4.	Enolase

27.

What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem?
1. Bi-directional
2. Non-multidirectional
3. Upward
4. Downward

28.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms?
1. They are heterosporous
2. Male and female gametophytes are free-living
3. Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle
4. Their seeds are not covered

29.

During the process of ecological succession, the changes that take place in communities are:
1. orderly and sequential
2. random
3. very quick
4. not influenced by the physical environment

30.

Graph below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to biotic factors. What do a,b,c represent respectively?

1. Partial regulator, conformer, regulator
2. Regulator, conformer, Partial regulator
3. Conformer, regulator, Partial, regulator
4. Regulator, Partial conformer, regulator

31.

Select the wrong statement:

1.	Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.
2.	The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.
3.	‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.
4.	Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.

32.

The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to:
1. megaspore
2. megasporangium
3. megasporophyll
4. megaspore mother cell

33.

Choose correct pair

	Placentation		Example
1.	Marginal	-	Dianthus, Silene
2.	Axile	-	Pea, Acacia
3.	Parietal	-	Lemon, Petunia
4.	Basal	-	Triticum, Sunflower

34.

The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F₁ and F₂ plants, can be understood from a diagram called:
1. Punnett square
2. Net square
3. Bullet square
4. Punch square

35.

What does lac refer to in lac operon?

1.	Lactase	2.	1,00,000
3.	Lac insect	4.	Lactose

Botany - Section B

36.

Which of the following is the function of mesosomes?

1.	help in cell wall formation
2.	help in DNA replication and its distribution
3.	help in respiration, secretion processes and increase surface area
4.	All of the above

37.

Vernalisation prevents:

1. Precocious reproductive development late in growing season
2. Late reproductive development
3. Flowering
4. Fruiting

38.

Viability of seeds:
1. is maybe lost within a few months
2. of Lupinus arcticus was found to be 1000 years
3. recorded in Phoenix is 10000 years
4. can be tested by 0.1% solution of TTC

39.

The floral diagram does not provide which of the following information?

1. Provides information about the number of parts of the flower
2. Arrangement of flower parts
3. Relation of flower parts with respect to each other
4. Medicinal use of plant

40.

Which of the following fungus is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work?
1. Aspergillus
2. Colletortichum
3. Neurospora
4. Claviceps

41.

Coralloid roots of gymnosperms are/have:
1. Irregular roots and possess a large number of roots hairs.
2. Symbiotic association with Rhizobium.
3. Symbiotic association with N₂ - fixing cyanobacteria.
4. VAM

42. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Dicot root	Parenchymatous conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem
2.	Monocot root	Polyarch xylem bundles and well-developed pith
3.	Isobilateral leaf	Palisade and spongy parenchyma in mesophyll
4.	Dorsiventral leaf	Bulliform cells are absent

43.

The apoplast in plants is continuous throughout except at:
1. Pericycle of the root
2. Xylem vessels
3. Tracheids
4. Casparian strips in root endodermis

44.

Some organisms that are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological means are called:
1. Conformers
2. Regulators
3. Migrators
4. Hibernators

45.

When domestic sewage mixes with river water -

1.	The increased microbial activity releases micro-nutrients such as iron
2.	The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
3.	The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%
4.	Small animals like rats will die after drinking river water

46.

How many statements are correct?

(i)	Chlorophyll-a , xanthophylls and carotenoids are called as accessory pigments.
(ii)	Accessory pigments protect chlorophyll-a from photo-oxidation.
(iii)	Chlorophylla are the major pigments responsible for trapping of light
(iv)	chl-a and chl-b forms the reaction centre
(v)	chl-a transfers the energy to accessory pigments.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

47.

In respiration from 180g of glucose, which of the following is formed?
1. $264 \mathrm{gm} \mathrm{CO}_2+190 \mathrm{gm} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}+391 \mathrm{Kcal} $
2. $264 \mathrm{gm} \mathrm{CO}_2+108 \mathrm{gm} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}+686 \mathrm{Kcal} $
3. $390 \mathrm{gm} \mathrm{CO}_2+108 \mathrm{gm} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}+686 \mathrm{Kcal} $
4. $390 \mathrm{gm} \mathrm{CO}_2+264 \mathrm{gm} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}+391 \mathrm{Kcal}$

48.

Which of the following is true?

1.	All the elements present in a sample of earth’s crust are also present in a sample of living tissue
2.	Carbon and Hydrogen are present in more amount in any living organism than earth’s crust.
3.	Carbon and Hydrogen are present in more in living organisms than in non living matter.
4.	All of the above

49.

Which of the following pair of gases is mainly responsible for greenhouse effect?
1. Carbon dioxide and methane
2. Ozone and Ammonia
3. Oxygen and Nitrogen
4. Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide

50.

Identify the correct statement with regard to $G_{1}$ phase (Gap 1) of interphase:

1.	The reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
2.	The cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA
3.	Nuclear Division takes place
4.	DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

Zoology - Section A

51.

Drug Absorption in the mouth involves:

1. Coming in contact of Mucosa of the mouth
2. Coming in contact of upper surface of the tongue
3. Coming in contact of palate of the mouth
4. More than one of the above options are correct.

52.

The condition where urea accumulates in blood is:

1.	Glycosuria	2.	Uremia
3.	Ketonuria	4.	Acidosis

53.

The endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles are considered together as an endomembrane system because:

1.	These are present in eukaryotic cells
2.	They lack DNA
3.	Their functions are coordinated
4.	They have cisternae

54.

Identify the statement which is incorrect:
1. Sulphur is an integral part of cysteine.
2. Glycine is an example of lipids.
3. Lecithin contains a phosphorus atom in its structure.
4. Tyrosine possesses an aromatic ring in its structure.

55.

Which of the following cross will produce four different blood groups in children?

1.	\|^A\|^B X \|^A\|^B	2.	\|^A\|^O X \|^B\|^O
3.	\|^A\|^A X \|^A\|^B	4.	\|^A\|^B X \|O\|^O

56.

Which of the following is wrong with respect to digestion?

1.	The sight, smell or presence of food in the oral cavity stimulates secretion of saliva
2.	Hormonal signals cannot stimulate gastric and intestinal secretions
3.	The muscular activities of different parts of the alimentary canal can be moderated by neural mechanisms.
4.	Hormones control the secretion of digestive juices.

57.

Which of the following sequence is correct in terms of abundance?

1.	Neutrophils>Lymphocytes> Monocytes> Eosinophils> Basophils
2.	Neutrophils>Lymphocytes< Monocytes> Eosinophils> Basophils
3.	Neutrophils<Lymphocytes> Monocytes> Eosinophils> Basophils
4.	Neutrophils>Lymphocytes> Monocytes <Eosinophils> Basophils

58.

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine is indicative of Diabetes Mellitus:
1. Uremia and Renal Calculi
2. Ketonuria and Glycosuria
3. Renal Calculi and Hyperglycaemia
4. Uremia and Ketonuria

59. Which of the following reactions are facilitated by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?
$(i) \mathrm{CO}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} \longrightarrow \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{CO}_{3}\\ (ii) \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{CO}_{3} \longrightarrow \mathrm{HCO}_{3}^{-}+\mathrm{H}^{+}\\ (iii) \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{CO}_{3} \longrightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\\ (iv)\mathrm{HCO}_{3}^{-}+\mathrm{H}^{+} \longrightarrow \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{CO}_{3}$

1.	(i) & (iv) only
2.	(ii) & (iii) only
3.	(i) & (iii) only
4.	(i), (ii), (iii) , (iv)

60. The diameter of pupil is regulated by:
1. Ciliary body
2. Iris muscle fibres
3. Lens itself
4. Ligaments attached to ciliary body

61.

When did an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice?

1.	1997	2.	1995
3.	1998	4.	1994

62.

Which of the following is a product of cross-breeding?
1. Mule
2. Jersey
3. Leghorn
4. Hisardale

63. To make the host cells competent, they are treated with specified concentration of:

1.	Ca⁺²	2.	Na⁺
3.	K⁺	4.	Cl^-

64.

In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called:
1. oscula
2. choanocytes
3. mesenchymal cells
4. ostia

65.

A hormone that is antagonist to the parathyroid hormone is secreted from:

1.	Thyroid	2.	Adrenal cortex
3.	Hypothalamus	4.	Parathyroid itself

66.

Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?

1.	Homo erectus	2.	Homo sapiens
3.	Homo neanderthalensis	4.	Homo habilis

67.

In which part of the human female reproductive system do the following events take place?
A. Release of semen by penis.
B. Release of a tiny first polar body.
C. Release of second polar body.
D. Implantation.
Identify the correct option for A, B, C and D:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Cervix	Ovary	Ovary	Uterus
2.	Cervix	Abdominal cavity	Fallopian tube	Uterus
3.	Vagina	Ovary	Abdominal cavity	Uterus
4.	Vagina	Ovary	Isthmis-ampullary junction of fallopian tube	Uterus

68.

Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Mutualism	1.	Lion and deer
B.	Commensalism	2.	Roundworm and man
C.	Parasitism	3.	Birds compete with squirrels for nuts
D.	Competition	4.	Sea anemone on hermit crab
E.	Predation	5.	Barnacles attached to Whales.

	A	B	C	D	E
1.	4	5	2	3	1
2.	3	1	4	2	5
3.	2	3	1	5	4
4.	5	4	2	3	1

69.

What is the quantity of human protein in the milk produced by first transgenic cow?

1.	2.4 g/litre	2.	4.8 g/litre
3.	4.2 g/litre	4.	1.2 g/litre

70.

The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is:
1. Adrenaline
2. Nor-adrenaline
3. Dopamine
4. Acetylcholine

71.

Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?
1. Medulla oblongata
2. Cerebrum
3. Hypothalamus
4. Corpus callosum

72.

Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various enzymes:
1. Duodenal cells
2. Chief cells
3. Goblet cells
4. Oxyntic cells

73.

In cockroach, identify the parts of the foregut in correct sequence:-
1. Mouth $\to$ Oesophagus $\to$ Pharynx $\to$ Crop $\to$ Gizzard
2. Mouth $\to$ Crop $\to$ Pharynx $\to$ Oesophagus $\to$ Gizzard
3. Mouth $\to$ Gizzard $\to$ Crop $\to$ Pharynx $\to$ Oesophagus
4. Mouth $\to$ Pharynx $\to$ Oesophagus $\to$ Crop $\to$ Gizzard

74.

Fight or flight reactions cause activation of:

1.	the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
2.	the kidney, leading to suppression of reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway
3.	the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
4.	the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels

75.

Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

1.	Henle's loop - most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrated
2.	Distal convoluted tubule - reabsorption of ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
3.	Afferent arteriole - carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards the renal vein
4.	Podocytes- create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule

76.

Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane:

1.	Na⁺ and K⁺ ions move across the cell membrane by passive transport
2.	Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane.
3.	Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
4.	Fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson

77.

Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?
1. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
2. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
3. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
4. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito

78. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source:

(a)
(b)

	Molecule	Source	Use
1.	(a) Cocaine	Erythroxylum coca	Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2.	(b) Heroin	Cannabis sativa	Depressant and slows down body functions
3.	(b) Cannabinoid	Atropa belladona	Produces hallucinations
4.	(a) Morphine	Papaver somniferum	Sedative and painkiller

79.

Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand. What is so special shown in it?
5' GAATTC 3'
3' CTTAAG 5'
1. Replication completed
2. Deletion mutation
3. Start codon at the 5' end
4. Palindromic sequence of base pairs

80. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?

	Convergent evolution	Divergent evolution
1.	Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates	Wings of butterfly and birds
2.	Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita	Eye of Octopus and mammals
3.	Eye of Octopus and mammals	Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates
4.	Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita	Wings of butterfly and birds

81.

The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

1.	Who cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilisation.
2.	Who cannot produce an ovum.
3.	Who cannot retain the fetus inside the uterus.
4.	Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms

82.

An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around hemoglobin causes:

1.	Hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules
2.	An increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules
3.	Hemoglobin to denature
4.	An increase in the binding of H+ by hemoglobin

83.

The second heart sound during the cardiac cycle is produced by the:
1. Simultaneous opening of the atrioventricular valves
2. Simultaneous closure of the atrioventricular valves
3. Simultaneous opening of the semilunar valves
4. Simultaneous closure of the semilunar valves

84.

At puberty, how many primary follicles are there in each ovary in a female?

1. 60000-80000
2. 120000-160000
3. 30000-40000
4. 12000

85.

The molecule that provides stability to cell membrane is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

Zoology - Section B

86.

Which of the following is part of the thoracic chamber?

1.	ribs and vertebral column	2.	diaphragm
3.	sternum	4.	All of the above

87.

The lumen of arteries gets ________ because of the ________ of ________
1. narrower, dissolution, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues.
2. narrower, deposition, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues.
3. wider, deposition, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues.
4. wider, dissolution, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues.

88.

Given below is a diagrammatic representation of human eye showing various parts as labelled structures, A to E:

Which option includes set of two parts with correct identification along with their description?

1.	A. Cornea - Composed of dense connective tissue B. Choroid - Contains many blood vessels and looks bluish in colour
2.	C. Sclera - External white layer of eye D. Blind spot - Photoreceptors are absent in this region
3.	E. Retina - Contains three layers from outside to inside - ganglionic cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptors B. Ciliary body - Involved in accomodation reflex
4.	D. Fovea - Thinned out portion of retina where only cones are densely packed C. Choroid - Contains many blood vessels and looks bluish in colour

89.

Which of the following pituitary hormones will have more amount on 29th day of standard menstrual cycle?

1.	LH	2.	FSH
3.	Estrogen	4.	Progesterone

90.

Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?

1.	Foetus	2.	Uterus
3.	Graafian follicle	4.	Corpus luteum

91.

Choose the correct match with respect to animals and their common names:

1.	Bath sponge
2.	Venus flower basket
3.	Freshwater sponge
4.	Jellyfish

92.

Which of the following bacteria has a role in removing clots from the blood vessels?
1. Bacillus thuringiensis
2. Clostridium butylicum
3. Streptococcus
4. Lactobacillus

93.

The DNA fingerprinting has applications in:
1. forensic sciences
2. population genetics
3. genetic diversities determination
4. All of the above

94.

Adaptive radiation does not follow which of the following statements?

1.	Blackbirds on Galapagos islands observed by Darwin is an amazing example of Adaptive Radiation.
2.	All the varieties of Finches evolved on the same island from original seed-feeding finches to insectivorous and vegetarian finches.
3.	Australian marsupials, which are similar to each other evolved from an ancestral stock but all within the Australian island continent.
4.	More than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area representing different habitats, known as convergent evolution

95.

Study the given figure showing various human endocrine glands. Select the correct statement(s) regarding these:

(i)	Gland P is stimulated to secrete its hormones by thyrotropin secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary gland.
(ii)	Gland R is associated with the secretion of hormones corticosteroids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
(iii)	Glands T and U represent the sex glands, which are derived from the mesoderm of embryo.
(iv)	Gland Q is derived from mesoderm of the embryo and its increased size results in ageing.
(v)	Gland S secretes the hormone glucagon which stimulates the liver to convert glucose into glycogen.

1.	(i) and (ii)
2.	(ii) and (iv)
3.	(i), (ii) and (iii)
4.	All are correct

96.

Which of the following statements is wrong?

1.	Movement is one of the significant features of living beings
2.	Streaming of protoplasm in unicellular organisms like Amoeba is a simple form of movement
3.	Animals and plants exhibit a wide range of movements
4.	Movement of cilia, flagella, and tentacles is limited to a few organisms

97.

Kangaroo rats:
1. Have a generalized diet
2. Avoid eating fats
3. Do not need to drink water
4. Are insensitive to heat

98.

Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
1. It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cell
2. It serves as a selectable marker
3. It is isolated from a virus
4. It remains active at high temperature

99.

Which of the following is not a character of cancerous cells in our body?
1. Contact inhibition
2. Neoplasia
3. Metastasis
4. Inability for differentiation

100.

What is the marriageable age for the females and males in India?
1. 18, 18
2. 18, 25
3. 21, 18
4. 18, 21

Chemistry - Section A

101.

The molecular formulae of A and B in the following are:
$CH_3CH_2Br\xrightarrow{KCN}CH_3CH_2CN\xrightarrow{LiAlH_4}\\ A\xrightarrow {HNO_2,~0 \ ^{o}C}B$
1. $\mathrm{{CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} {CH}_{2} {NH}_{2}}, ~\text{and} ~\mathrm{{CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} {CH}_{3}}$
2. $\mathrm{{CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} {CH}_{2} {NH}_{2}},~\text{and} ~\mathrm{{CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} {CH}_{2} {OH}}$
3. $\mathrm{{CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} {CH}={NH}}, ~\text{and} ~\mathrm{{CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} {CH}_{2} {OH}}$
4. $\mathrm{{CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} {CH}={NH}}, ~\text{and} ~\mathrm{{CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} {CH}_{3}}$

102.

Which of the following statements are correct about this reaction?

(i)	The given reaction follows S_N2 mechanism.
(ii)	(b) and (d) have opposite configuration.
(iii)	(b) and (d) have the same configuration.
(iv)	The given reaction follows S_N1 mechanism

Choose the correct option:

1.	(i, ii)	2.	(ii, iii)
3.	(iii, iv)	4.	(i, iii)

103.

The major product(A) of the following reaction is :

1.		2.
3.		4.

104.

Peptization is a:

1.	Process of converting soluble particles to form colloidal solution
2.	Process of converting precipitate into colloidal solution
3.	Process of bringing colloidal molecule into solution
4.	Process of converting a colloidal solution into precipitate

105.

The spin-only magnetic moment of [MnBr₄]^2– is 5.9 BM. The geometry of the complex ion is:
1. Square planar
2. Tetrahedral
3. Octahedral
4. None of the above

106.

In a molecule of pyrophosphoric acid, the number of P – OH, P = O and P – O – P bonds/moiety (ies) respectively are :

1.	4, 2 and 0	2.	2, 4 and 1
3.	4, 2 and 1	4.	3, 3 and 3

107.

Among statements (I) – (IV), the correct ones are-

(I)	Limestone is decomposed to CaO during the extraction of iron from its oxides
(II)	In the extraction of silver, silver is extracted as an anionic complex
(III)	Nickel is purified by Mond's process
(IV)	Zr and Ti are purified by the Van Arkel method

1. (III) and (IV) only
2. (I), (III), and (IV) only
3. (II), (III), and (IV) only
4. (I), (II), (III), and (IV)

108.

The mechanism of action of "Terfenadine" (Seldane) is :

1.	It inhibits the secretion of histamine.
2.	It inhibits the action of histamine receptor.
3.	It Activates the histamine receptor.
4.	It helps in the secretion of histamine.

109.

The correct structure of $α$ -anomer of maltose, among the following is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

110.

Compound(s) which will liberate carbon dioxide with sodium bicarbonate solution is/are:


(A)	(B)	(C)

1. B only
2. C only
3. B and C only
4. A and B only

111.

The increasing order of the boiling points of the major products A, B and C of the following reactions will be :

(a).
(b).
(c).

1. C < A < B
2. B < C < A
3. A < B < C
4. A < C < B

112.

The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen atom is:
(Planck's Const. h = 6.6262 × 10^–34 Js; mass of electron = 9.1091 × 10^–31 kg; charge of electron e = 1.60210 ×10^–19 C; permittivity of vaccum ∈₀ = 8.854185 ×10^–12 kg^–1m^–3A²)
1. 0.529 Å
2. 2.12 Å
3. 1.65 Å
4. 7.76 Å

113.

The molecular formula of a commercial resin used for exchanging ions in water softening is $C_{8} H_{7} {SO}_{3} Na (Mol . Wt . 206)$ . The maximum uptake of ${Ca}^{2 +}$ ions by the resin when expressed in mole per gram resin is:
$ \mathrm{C}_8 \mathrm{H}_7 \mathrm{SO}_3 \mathrm{Na}+\mathrm{Ca}^{2+} \rightarrow (\mathrm{C}_8 \mathrm{H}_7 \mathrm{SO}_{3}){_2} \mathrm{Ca}+ \mathrm{Na}^{+}$
1. $\frac{1}{103}$
2. $\frac{1}{206}$
3. $\frac{2}{309}$
4. $\frac{1}{412}$

114.

Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 Å. The radius of sodium atom is approximately :
1. 1.86 Å
2. 3.22 Å
3. 5.72 Å
4. 0.93 Å

115.

'a' and 'b' are van der Waals' constants for gases. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because:

1.	a and b for Cl₂ > a and b for C₂H₆
2.	and b for Cl₂ < a and b for C₂H₆
3.	a for Cl₂ < a for C₂H₆ but b for Cl₂ > b for C₂H₆
4.	a for Cl₂ > a for C₂H₆ but b for Cl₂ < b for C₂H₆

116.

The ionic radii (in Å) of $N^{3 -}, O^{2 -} and F^{-}$ are respectively :
1. 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
2. 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
3. 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
4. 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40

117.

At 25°C, the solubility product of Mg(OH)₂ is 1.0 × 10^-11. At which pH, will Mg²⁺ ions start precipitating in the form of Mg(OH)₂ from a solution of 0.001 M Mg²⁺ ions?

1.	8	2.	9
3.	10	4.	11

118.

Among the following, the correct statement is-

1.	Beryllium exhibits a coordination number of six.
2.	Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminum have bridged chloride structures in solid phase.
3.	B₂H₆.2NH₃ is known as 'inorganic benzene'.
4.	Boric acid is a protonic acid.

119.

In the following sequence of reactions,
$\mathrm{CH_3CH_2OH\xrightarrow{P+I_2}A\xrightarrow[ether]{Mg}B\xrightarrow{HCHO}C\xrightarrow{H_2O}D,}$
then compound 'D' is:
1. Butanal
2. n-Butyl alcohol
3. n-Propyl alcohol
4. Propanal

120.

A non-ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30 mL of chloroform and 50 mL of acetone. The volume of the mixture will be:
1. >80 mL
2. <80 mL
3. =80 mL
4. ≥80 mL

121.

Proper management of disposal of household and industrial wastes can be done by:

1.	Recycling the waste material to give useful products again.
2.	Burning and incineration of combustible waste.
3.	Sewage treatment.
4.	All of the above.

122.

The reaction,
$5 H_{2} O_{2} + {XClO}_{2} + 2 {OH}^{-} \to {XCl}^{-} + {YO}_{2} + 6 H_{2} O$
is balanced if:
1. 𝑋 = 5, 𝑌 = 2
2. 𝑋 = 2, 𝑌 = 5
3. 𝑋 = 4, 𝑌 = 10
4. 𝑋 = 5, 𝑌 = 5

123.

The false statement among the following is-

1.	Water gas is a mixture of water vapor and hydrogen
2.	Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
3.	Water gas is a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
4.	Natural gas consists of methane, ethane, and gaseous hydrocarbons

124.

Which of the following explains the primary cause of lanthanoid contraction?

1.	Greater shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons.
2.	Poor shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons.
3.	Effective shielding of one of the 4f electrons by another in the sub-shell.
4.	Poor shielding of one 4f electron by another within the sub-shell.

125.

The rate equation for the reaction 2A+B→C is found to be:
rate = k [A] [B]
The correct statement in relation to this reaction is that the:

1.	Unit of k must be s^-1
2.	t_1/2 is a constant.
3.	Rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A.
4.	Value of k is independent of the initial concentrations of A and B.

126. Which of the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?
1. n-Butane
2. Isobutene
3. 1-Butene
4. 1-Butyne

127.

The IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃)₅ONO]²⁺ ion is:
1. Pentaamminenitritocobalt(IV) ion
2. Pentaamminenitritocobalt(III) ion
3. Pentaamminenitrocobalt(III) ion
4. Pentaamminenitrocobalt (IV) ion

128.

An organic compound C₅H₁₀O forms phenyl hydrazone that gives a positive iodoform test and undergoes Wolff Kishner reaction to give isopentane. The IUPAC name of the organic compound is:
1. Pentanol
2. Pentan-2-one
3. Pentan-3-one
4. 3-Methylbutan-2-one

129.

An aqueous solution of 1M NaCl and 1M HCl is :
1. not a buffer but pH < 7
2. not a buffer but pH >7
3. a buffer with pH <7
4. a buffer with pH >7

130.

PCl₃ and PCl₅ both exist; NCl₃ exists but NCl₅ does not exist. It is due to:

1.	Lower electronegativity of P and N
2.	Lower tendency of N to form a covalent bond
3.	Availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N
4.	The statement is incorrect

131.

The number of electrons passing per second through a cross-section of Cu wire carrying 10 ampere is :
1. 1 ×10¹⁹
2. 8 ×10¹⁹
3. 6 ×10¹⁹
4. 1.6 ×10¹⁹

132.

The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 k J/mol . If the system goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path, what would be the net change in internal energy?
1. 40 kJ
2. > 40kJ
3. < 40 kJ
4. zero

133.

The correct statement among the following is:
1. Sn²⁺ is oxidising agent while Pb⁴⁺ is reducing agent.
2. Sn²⁺ and Pb²⁺ both are oxidising agent.
3. Sn⁴⁺ is reducing agent while Pb⁴⁺ is oxidising agent.
4. Sn²⁺ is reducing agent while Pb⁴⁺ is oxidising agent.

134. Which molecule among the following does not exhibit resonance?
1. $\mathrm{C_6 H_6}$
2. $\mathrm{CO_2}$
3. $\mathrm{CO_3^{2-}}$
4. $\mathrm{SiO_2}$

135. 0.2g of an organic compound containing C, H, and O, on combustion gave 0.147g CO₂ and 0.12g water. The percentage of oxygen in the organic compound is :

1.	73.29%	2.	70.51%
3.	77.24%	4.	80.50%

Chemistry - Section B

136.

In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken $O_{2}^{+} {PtF}_{6}^{-}$ as a base compound. This is because:

1.	Both O₂and Xe have the same size.
2.	Both O₂ and Xe have the same electron gain enthalpy.
3.	Both O₂ and Xe have almost the same ionisation enthalpy.
4.	Both Xe and O₂ are gases.

137.

When 0.1 mol CoCl₃(NH₃)₅ is treated with an excess of AgNO₃, 0.2 mol of AgCl is obtained. The conductivity of the solution will correspond to:
1. 1:3 electrolyte
2. 1:2 electrolyte
3. 1:1 electrolyte
4. 3:1 electrolyte

138.

The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

139.

Order of acidic strength of the following compounds will be:

A.		B.	$C_6H_5OH$
C.		D.

1. C > D > B > A
2. D > C > B > A
3. A > B > C > D
4. B > A > C > D

140.

During the change of O₂ to $O_{2}^{-}$ , the incoming electron that goes to the orbital is:

1.	$\sigma _{2pz}^{*}$	2.	π_2py
3.	$\sigma _{2pz}$	4.	π^*_2px

141.

The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell reaction in kJ mol^–1 at 298 K is :
$Z n (s) + C u^{2 +} (a q) \to Z n^{2 +} (a q) + C u (s)$
Eº(cell) = 2V at 298 K
(Faraday’s constant, F = 96000 C mol^–1)

1.	–192 kJ mol^–1	2.	192 kJ mol^–1
3.	–384 kJ mol^–1	4.	384 kJ mol^–1

142.

5 moles of AB₂ weight $125 \times 10^{-3}$ kg and 10 moles A₂B₂ weight $300 \times 10^{- 3}$ kg. The molar mass of A (M_A) and molar mass of B (M_B) in kg mol are:

1.	M_A= 10×10^-3 and M_B= 5×10^-3
2.	M_A= 25×10^-3 and M_B = 50×10^-3
3.	M_A= 5×10^-3 and M_B= 10×10^-3
4.	M_A= 50×10^-3 and M_B = 25×10^-3

143.

At 300 K, the vapour pressure of a solution containing 1 mole of n-hexane and 3 moles of n-heptane is 550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature, if one more mole of n-heptane is added to this solution, the vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure in mm Hg of n-heptane in its pure state is:
1. 500
2. 600
3. 700
4. 800

144.

If 75 % of a first-order reaction was completed in 90 minutes, 60 % of the same reaction would be completed in approximately (in minutes):
(Take : log 2 = 0.30 ; log 2.5 = 0.40)
1. 50 min
2. 60 min
3. 70 min
4. 65 min

145.

The solubility of Ca(OH)₂ in water is:
[Given: K_sp Ca(OH)₂ in water = 5.5 × 10^–6]
1. 1.77 × 10^–6
2. 1.11 × 10^–6
3. 1.11 × 10^–2
4. 2.77 × 10^–2

146.

How many lone pairs of electrons are present in ${I }_{3}^{-}$ ion?

1.	Three (3)	2.	Six (6)
3.	Nine (9)	4.	Twelve (12)

147.

Assuming ideal behaviour, the magnitude of log K for the following reaction at 25°C is
x × 10^–1 . The value of x is:
$3 HC \equiv {CH}_{(g)} ⇌ C_{6} {H_{6}}_{(l)}$
$[Given:$
$Δ_{f} G^{\circ} (HC \equiv CH) = - 2.04 \times 10^{5} J {mol}^{- 1}$
$Δ_{f} G^{\circ} (C_{6} H_{6}) = - 1.24 \times 10^{5} J {mol}^{- 1}$
$R = 8.314 J K^{- 1} {mol}^{- 1}]$
1. 860
2. 875
3. 855
4. 895

148.

In the Carius method for estimation of halogens, 250 mg of an organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the compound is:
(Atomic masses: Ag = 108, Br = 80)

1.	24%	2.	36%
3.	48%	4.	60%

149.

The compound among the following that shows geometrical isomerism is:
1. 1-Phenyl-2-butene
2. 3-Phenyl -1-butene
3. 2-Phenyl-1-butene
4. 1,1-Diphenyl-1-propene

150.

The most stable carbocation among the following is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

Physics - Section A

151.

Two stars of masses $m$ and $2m$ at a distance $d$ rotate about their common centre of mass in free space. The distance of the centre of mass from the heavier mass is:

1.	$\dfrac{d}{3}$	2.	$\dfrac{2 d}{3}$
3.	$\dfrac{4 d}{3}$	4.	$\dfrac{5 d}{3}$

152. An electric dipole with dipole moment $\vec{p}=\left({{3}\hat{i}+{4}\hat{j}} \right)$ C-m, is kept in electric field $\vec{E}=0.4~{\text{kN}}{/}{\text{C}} \hat{i}$. What is the torque acting on it & the potential energy of the dipole?
1. $1600$ $\left({{\text{N}}\times{\text{m}}}\right)\hat{k}$, $-1200$ J
2. $-1600$ $\left({{\text{N}}\times{\text{m}}}\right)\hat{k}$, $1200$ J
3. $-1600$ $\left({{\text{N}}\times{\text{m}}}\right)\hat{k}$, $-1200$ J
4. $1600$ $\left({{\text{N}}\times{\text{m}}}\right)\hat{k}$, $1200$ J

153. In an $LCR$ circuit, $100~\Omega$ resistance is connected to an AC source of $200~\text V,$ and an angular frequency of $300~\text{rad/s}.$
If only the capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the current by phase angle $\mathit{\phi}.$ If only the inductance is removed the current leads the voltage by phase angle $\mathit{\phi}$ the RMS value of the current in $LCR$ circuit is:
1. $2~\text A$
2. $4~\text A$
3. $1.2~\text A$
4. $5~\text A$

154. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is:

1.	much greater than one
2.	one
3.	between zero and one
4.	equal to zero

155. According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, the total charge flown through a cross-section of a conducting loop depends upon:

1.	initial magnetic flux only
2.	final magnetic flux only
3.	rate of change of magnetic flux
4.	the net change in magnetic flux

156. In the given circuit, the switch is closed at $t=0$. The ratio of electric current through resistance $R_2$ at $t=0$ and at $t=\infty$ is:

1. $\frac{3}{2}$
2. $\frac{3}{4}$
3. $\frac{1}{2}$
4. $\frac{2}{3}$

157. An AC circuit having supply voltage ${V},$ consist of a capacitor of reactance $10~\Omega$ and a resistor of resistance $10~\Omega$ as shown in the figure. The voltage across the capacitor at time $t=\pi/\omega~\text s$ is:

1. $10\sqrt 2~\text V$
2. $20~\text V$
3. $20\sqrt 2~\text V$
4. $40~\text V$

158.

If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by removing some of the gas, how is the mean free path between two gas molecules affected?

1.	It increases.
2.	It decreases.
3.	It remains unchanged.
4.	It increases or decreases depending on the nature of the gas.

159. The Young's modulus of brass and steel are respectively ${1}\times{10}^{10}~\text{N/m}^2$ and ${2}\times{10}^{10}~\text{N/m}^2.$ A brass wire and a steel wire of the same length are extended by $1~\text{mm}$ under the same force; the radii of brass and steel wires are $R_B$ and $R_S$ respectively. Then:

1.	${R}_{S}=\sqrt{2}{R}_{B}$	2.	${R}_{S}=\dfrac{{R}_{B}}{\sqrt{2}}$
3.	${R}_{S}={4}{R}_{B}$	4.	${R}_{S}=\dfrac{{R}_{B}}{4}$

160. A thick and thin wire of the same material and the same length are heated from $10^\circ~\text{C}$ to $90^\circ~\text{C}.$ Which expands more?

1.	Thick wire
2.	Thin wire
3.	Both show the same expansion
4.	None of the above

161. A uniform metre stick of mass $M$ is hinged at one end and supported in a horizontal direction by a string attached to the other end. What should be the initial acceleration (in rad/sec²) of the stick if the string is cut?
1. $\dfrac{3}{2}g $
2. $g$
3. $3g$
4. $4g$

162. The pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in the figure. The density of the gas at point $A$ is ${\mathit{\rho}}_{0}$. Density at point $B$ will be:

1.	$\dfrac{3}{4}{\mathit{\rho}}_{0}$	2.	$\dfrac{3}{2}{\mathit{\rho}}_{0}$
3.	$\dfrac{4}{3}{\mathit{\rho}}_{0}$	4.	$2{\mathit{\rho}}_{0}$

163. The electric current in an X-ray tube (from the target to the filament) operating at 40 kV is 10 mA. Assuming that on average, 1% of the total kinetic energy of the electrons hitting the target is converted into X-rays, what is the total power emitted as X-rays?
1. 4 W
2. 3 W
3. 2 W
4. 1 W

164. The velocity of a particle depends upon the time $t$ according to the equation:
${v}{=}\sqrt{ab}{+}{bt}{+}\frac{c}{{d}{+}{t}}$
The physical quantities are represented by $a,b,c$ and $d$ are in the order:

1.	distance, distance, acceleration, time
2.	distance acceleration, distance, time
3.	acceleration, distance, distance, time
4.	none of the above

165. Two identical $5$ kg blocks are moving with the same speed of $2$ m/s towards each other along a frictionless horizontal surface. Two blocks collide, stick together, and come to rest. Consider the two blocks as a system. The work done by external and internal forces is respectively:
1. $0,0$
2. $0,20$ J
3. $0,-20$ J
4. $20$ J, $-20$ J

166. If the pressure and temperature of an ideal gas is doubled and volume is halved, the number of molecules of the gas:
1. remains constant
2. becomes half
3. becomes two times
4. becomes four times

167. Two tuning forks of frequencies $n_1$ and $n_2$ produce $n$ beats per second. If $n_2$ and $n$ are known, $n_1$ may be given by:
1. $\frac{{n}_{2}}{n}{+}{n}_{2}$
2. $n_2n$
3. ${n}_{2}\pm{n}$
4. $\frac{{n}_{2}}{n}{-}{n}_{2}$

168.

When a particle's position changes, which of the following statements is true about its displacement and the distance it covers?

1.	Both cannot be zero.
2.	Either one can be zero.
3.	Both must be zero.
4.	If one is positive, the other is negative, and vice-versa.

169. A car is moving along a circular path of radius $500$ m with a speed of $30$ m/s. If, at some instant, its speed increases at the rate of $2$ m/s², then, at that instant, the magnitude of the resultant acceleration will be:
1. $4.7$ m/s²
2. $3.8$ m/s²
3. $3$ m/s²
4. $2.7$ m/s²

170. What is the weight of a body at a distance $2r$ from the centre of the earth if the magnitude of the gravitational potential energy of the body at a distance $r$ from the centre of the earth is $U?$
1. $\frac{U}{2r}$
2. $\frac{U}{3r}$
3. $\frac{U}{4r}$
4. $Ur$

171. In the case of forced vibration, the resonance wave becomes very sharp when the:

1.	quality factor is small
2.	damping force is small
3.	restoring force is small
4.	applied periodic force is small

172. An insulator plate is passed between the plates of a capacitor. Then current (outside the capacitor):

1.	always flows from $A$ to $B$
2.	always flows from $B$ to $A$
3.	first flows from $A$ to $B$ then from $B$ to $A$
4.	first flows from $B$ to $A$ and then from $A$ to $B$

173. An object is placed at a distance equal to the focal length of a convex mirror. If the focal length of the mirror is $f,$ then the distance of the image from the pole of the mirror is:
1. less than $f$
2. equal to $f$
3. more than $f$
4. infinity

174. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then parallel rays incident on the lens will converge at:
(the focal length of the lens is $f$)

1.	$f$	2.	$2f$
3.	$3f$	4.	not possible

175. The first diffraction minimum due to single slit diffraction is at $\theta ~{=}~30^{\circ}$ for a light of wavelength $5000~\mathring{A}.$ The width of the slit is:

1.	${5}\times{10}^{{-}{5}}~\text{cm}$	2.	${1}{.}{0}\times{10}^{{-}{4}}~\text{cm}$
3.	${2}{.}{5}\times{10}^{{-}{5}}~\text{cm}$	4.	${1}{.}{25}\times{10}^{{-}{5}}~\text{cm}$

176. The magnetic moment of atomic neon is equal to:
1. zero
2. ${\mathit{\mu}}_{B}/2$
3. ${\mathit{\mu}}_{B}$
4. $3{\mathit{\mu}}_{B}/2$
(where ${\mathit{\mu}}_{B}$ = Bohr magneton)

177. If the intensity of radiation incident on a photocell is increased four times keeping frequency constant, then the number of photoelectrons and energy of photoelectrons emitted become:

1.	four times, doubled
2.	doubled, remains unchanged
3.	remains unchanged, doubled
4.	four times, remains unchanged

178. To which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does the frequency $1~\text{GHz}$ correspond to?

1.	Ultraviolet rays	2.	Radiowaves
3.	Visible radiation	4.	$X\text-$rays

179. In a semiconductor crystal, if current flows due to breakage of crystal bonds, then the semiconductor is called:

1.	acceptor
2.	donor
3.	intrinsic semiconductor
4.	extrinsic semiconductor

180. A $\mathrm{p\text-n}$ junction diode is connected in a series circuit with a battery (internal resistance $0.5~\Omega)$ and a $5~\Omega$ resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. This is because the resistance in the circuit is:
1. $5~\Omega$
2. $5.5~\Omega$
3. $10~\Omega$
4. infinite

181. The figure shows a circuit with two cells connected in opposition. One cell has an EMF of $6~\text{V}$ and an internal resistance of ${2}~\Omega,$ while the other cell has an EMF of $4~\text{V}$ and an internal resistance of ${8}~\Omega.$ The potential difference across the terminals $X$ and $Y$ is:

1.	$5.4$ V	2.	$5.6$ V
3.	$5.8$ V	4.	$6.0$ V

182. The radius of the helical path for a proton moving with a velocity ${3}\times{10}^{5}~\text{m/s}$, which enters in a magnetic field of $0.3$ T at an angle $\theta$ with the field, is $0.5$ cm. The value of $\theta$ is:
($e/m$ for proton = $10^8$ C/kg)

1.	$30^\circ$	2.	$45^\circ$
3.	$60^\circ$	4.	$90^\circ$

183. A radioactive element A with a half-value period of 2 hours decays giving a stable element Y. After a time t the ratio of X to Y atoms is 1:7. Then, $t$ is:
1. 6 hours
2. 4 hours
3. between 4 and 6 hours
4. 14 hours

184. A raindrop of mass $0.2$ g is falling with a uniform velocity of $25$ cm s^-1. Its weight will be: ($g=10$ ms^-²)
1. zero
2. $0.02$ N
3. $0.002$ N
4. $0.2$ N

185. A $\text{U}\text-$tube with limbs of diameters $5~\text{mm}$ and $2~\text{mm}$ contains water of surface tension ${7}\times{10}^{{-}{2}}~\text{N/m}$, angle of contact $0^{\circ}$ and density $10^{3}~\text{kg/m}^3$. If $g$ is $10~\text{m/s}^2$, then the difference in levels in the two limbs is: (Given: Initially water level in both the limbs is the same and in metres)

1.	$8.4~\text{mm}$	2.	$8.4~\text{cm}$
3.	$8.4~\text{m}$	4.	$0.84~\text{mm}$

Physics - Section B

186.

Select the correct option based on the statements below:

Assertion (A):	The escape velocities of planets $A$ and $B$ are the same. But $A$ and $B$ are of unequal mass.
Reason (R):	The product of their mass and radius must be the same, $M_1R_1=M_2R_2.$

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

187.

Images of the same size are formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at $20$ cm or at $10$ cm from the lens. The focal length of the convex lens is:

1.	$5$ cm	2.	$10$ cm
3.	$15$ cm	4.	$20$ cm

188.

A man runs along a horizontal road holding his umbrella vertical in order to afford maximum protection from the rain. The rain is actually:

1.	falling vertical
2.	coming from the front of the man
3.	coming from the back of the man
4.	either of $1,$ $2,$ or $3$

189. A charged particle (of mass $m$ and charge $q$) is projected from large distance towards another identical charge with speed $v.$ Potential energy of the system of the charges, at the instant of minimum separation, is:

1.	$ \frac{1}{4}{mv}^{2}$	2.	$ \frac{1}{6}{mv}^{2}$
3.	$ \frac{1}{8}{mv}^{2}$	4.	zero

190. The equivalent resistance of the circuit between $O$ and $A$ is:

1.	$ \dfrac{12R}{13}$	2.	$ \dfrac{R}{13}$
3.	$ \dfrac{5R}{13}$	4.	$ \dfrac{15R}{13}$

191. As a result of the change in the magnetic flux linked to the closed-loop as shown in the figure, an emf $V$ volts is induced in the loop. The work done (in joule) in taking a charge $Q$ coulomb once along the loop is:

1.	$QV$	2.	$2QV$
3.	$\frac{QV}{2}$	4.	zero

192. A charged particle moves in a gravity-free space without a change in its velocity. Which of the following is not possible?
1. $E=0, B=0$
2. ${E}\ne{0}{,}{B}{=}{0}$
3. ${E}{=}{0}{,}{B}\ne{0}$
4. ${E}\ne{0}{,}{B}\ne{0}$

193. An air bubble of radius, $r$ rises steadily through a liquid of density, $\mathit{\rho}$ at the rate of $v$. Neglecting the density of air, the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is:

1.	$\dfrac{2}{9}\dfrac{{r}^{2}{\rho}{g}}{v}$	2.	$\dfrac{1}{3}\dfrac{{r}^{2}{\rho}{g}}{v}$
3.	$\dfrac{1}{9}\dfrac{{r}^{2}{\rho}{g}}{v}$	4.	$\dfrac{1}{4}\dfrac{{r}^{2}{\rho}{g}}{v}$

194. $600~\text{J}$ of heat is added to a monoatomic gas in a process in which the gas performs a work of $150~\text{J}$. The molar heat capacity for the process is:
1. $3R$
2. $4R$
3. $2R$
4. $6R$

195. The wire of a sonometer $180$ cm long is divided into three parts by two bridges. The fundamental frequencies of the parts are in the ratio $3:4:6.$ The positions of bridges are:
1. $41.5, 97$ cm
2. $80, 140$ cm
3. $50, 120$ cm
4. $30,140$ cm

196. If the reaction is $R$ and the coefficient of friction is $\mathit{\mu}$, what is the work done against friction in moving the body horizontally by distance $d$ slowly?

1. $\frac{\mathit{\mu}{Rd}}{4}$
2. ${2}\mathit{\mu}{Rd}$
3. $\mathit{\mu}{Rd}$
4. $\frac{\mathit{\mu}{Rd}}{2}$

197. What should be the minimum coefficient of static friction between the plane and the cylinder, for the cylinder not to slip on an inclined plane?
1. $\frac{1}{3}\tan\mathit{\theta}$
2. $\frac{1}{3}\sin\mathit{\theta}$
3. $\frac{2}{3}\tan\mathit{\theta}$
4. $\frac{2}{3}\sin\mathit{\theta}$

198. For a simple pendulum, the graph between $T^2$ and $L$ is:
1. a straight line passing through the origin
2. parabola
3. circle
4. ellipse

199. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA. If 80% of the electrons emitted from emitter reach the collector, then:

1.	the emitter current will be 7.5 mA
2.	the emitter current will be 12.5 mA
3.	the base current will be 3.5 mA
4.	the base current will be 2.0 mA

200. If $h$ is Planck's constant, the momentum of a photon of wavelength $0.01~\mathring{A}$ is:

1.	$10^{-2}h$	2.	$h$
3.	$10^2h$	4.	$10^{12}h$

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1.	\(\sigma _{2pz}^{*}\)	2.	π_2py
3.	\(\sigma _{2pz}\)	4.	π^*_2px

1.	\(\dfrac{d}{3}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{2 d}{3}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{4 d}{3}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{5 d}{3}\)

1.	\({R}_{S}=\sqrt{2}{R}_{B}\)	2.	\({R}_{S}=\dfrac{{R}_{B}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
3.	\({R}_{S}={4}{R}_{B}\)	4.	\({R}_{S}=\dfrac{{R}_{B}}{4}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{3}{4}{\mathit{\rho}}_{0}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{3}{2}{\mathit{\rho}}_{0}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{4}{3}{\mathit{\rho}}_{0}\)	4.	\(2{\mathit{\rho}}_{0}\)

1.	always flows from \(A\) to \(B\)
2.	always flows from \(B\) to \(A\)
3.	first flows from \(A\) to \(B\) then from \(B\) to \(A\)
4.	first flows from \(B\) to \(A\) and then from \(A\) to \(B\)

1.	\({5}\times{10}^{{-}{5}}~\text{cm}\)	2.	\({1}{.}{0}\times{10}^{{-}{4}}~\text{cm}\)
3.	\({2}{.}{5}\times{10}^{{-}{5}}~\text{cm}\)	4.	\({1}{.}{25}\times{10}^{{-}{5}}~\text{cm}\)

1.	\(8.4~\text{mm}\)	2.	\(8.4~\text{cm}\)
3.	\(8.4~\text{m}\)	4.	\(0.84~\text{mm}\)

Assertion (A):	The escape velocities of planets \(A\) and \(B\) are the same. But \(A\) and \(B\) are of unequal mass.
Reason (R):	The product of their mass and radius must be the same, \(M_1R_1=M_2R_2.\)

1.	\( \frac{1}{4}{mv}^{2}\)	2.	\( \frac{1}{6}{mv}^{2}\)
3.	\( \frac{1}{8}{mv}^{2}\)	4.	zero

1.	\( \dfrac{12R}{13}\)	2.	\( \dfrac{R}{13}\)
3.	\( \dfrac{5R}{13}\)	4.	\( \dfrac{15R}{13}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{2}{9}\dfrac{{r}^{2}{\rho}{g}}{v}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{1}{3}\dfrac{{r}^{2}{\rho}{g}}{v}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{1}{9}\dfrac{{r}^{2}{\rho}{g}}{v}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{1}{4}\dfrac{{r}^{2}{\rho}{g}}{v}\)

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