Identify the incorrecty statement:
1. Numerical Taxonomy is based on all observable characteristics.
2. More weightage is given to reproductive characters and all other characters are given equal importance in numerical taxonomy.
3. Cytotaxonomy is based on cytological information like chromosome number, structure, behaviour
4. Chemotaxonomy uses the chemical constituents of the plant
Match each term with its definition and choose your answer from the codes given:
I. |
Isogamy |
1. |
The union of two gametes |
II. |
Syngamy |
2. |
Two gametes, one larger than the other |
III. |
Heterogamy |
3. |
Two kinds of gametes, one motile and other non motile |
IV. |
Anisogamy |
4. |
Two kinds of morphologically distinct gametes |
V. |
Oogamy |
5. |
Both gametes morphologically indistinguishable |
Codes:
|
I |
II |
III |
IV |
V |
1. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
2. |
4 |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
3. |
5 |
1 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
4. |
3 |
1 |
2 |
4 |
5 |
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. | Chlamydomonas: | Microscopic unicellular algae |
2. | Volvox: | Colonial algae |
3. | Ulothrix: | Filamentous algae |
4. | Fucus: | Isogamous algae |
Identify the incorrect statement regarding algae:
1. | At least a half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through photosynthesis. |
2. | Around 70 species of freshwater algae can be used as food. |
3. | Certain marine brown and red algae produce large amounts of hydrocolloids (water holding substances), e.g., algin (brown algae) and carrageen (red algae) which are used commercially. |
4. | Agar, obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria are used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice-creams and jellies. |
Identify the incorrect statement regarding green algae?
1. They contain chl a, chl b as well as carotenoids.
2. The chloroplasts may be discoid, plate-like, reticulate, cup-shaped, spiral or ribbon-shaped in different species.
3. Most members have one or more storage bodies called pyrenoids located outside the chloroplasts.
4. They usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose.
Consider the following statements regarding brown algae:
I. | The pigments are chl a, c and xanthophylls, fucoxanthin |
II. | Storage food is laminarin and mannitol |
III. | The cellulosic cell wall is covered with algin |
IV. | They have a centrally located vacuole |
V. | Their photosynthetic organs are called as fronds - leaf like structures |
VI. | They have pear shaped biflagellate zoospores |
VII. | They have two unequal laterally attached flagella. |
The number of correct statements is
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 4
Identify the incorrect statement regarding mosses:
1. | Leaves are one cell thick except at the midrib and lack stomata |
2. | The first gametophyte stage is protonema that is creeping and green |
3. | The second stage is the leafy stage, which develops from the secondary protonema as a lateral bud. |
4. | Rhizoids are elongated and unicellular |
Evolutionarily, the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues are:
1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Cycades
4. Gnetales
Which of the following statements regarding gymnosperms are correct?
I. Ovules are naked - not enclosed by any ovary wall before fertilisation but seeds that develop after fertilisation are covered.
II. In all living Gymnosperms, sporophyte is dominant over the gametophyte.
III. They are heterosporous.
IV. The male and female gametophytes do not have an independent existence.
1. I, II and III
2. I, III and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV
Which human worm infestation are we talking about?
I. In socio-economic impact on the human race, it is second only to Malaria.
II. The worm larva enters the human body by penetrating the skin
III. The worm requires snails as an intermediate host.
IV. In developing countries, it is a common cause of anaemia in children.
1. Elephantiasis
2. Bilharziasis
3. Cysticercosis
4. Plague
Which of the following is entirely made of cartilage?
1. Nasal septum
2. Larynx
3. Glottis
4. Trachea
Trachea divides into two right and left primary bronchi at the level of:
1. Seventh cervical vertebra
2. Third thoracic vertebra
3. Fifth thoracic vertebra
4. Seventh thoracic vertebra
Contraction of diaphragm:
1. | Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis |
2. | Increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis |
3. | Decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis |
4. | Decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis |
Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is about:
1. 1200 ml
2. 2300 ml
3. 4600 ml
4. 5800 ml
The partial pressure of oxygen is equal in
1. Atmospheric air and Alveoli
2. Alveoli and Oxygenated blood
3. Alveoli and Deoxygenated blood
4. Deoxygenated blood and Tissues
The solubility of carbon dioxide is about _____ times higher than that of oxygen across the respiratory membrane.
1. 20-25
2. 25-50
3. 125-150
4. 200-250
What amount of carbon dioxide is delivered by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood to the alveoli?
1. 4 ml
2. 5 ml
3. 15 ml
4. 20 ml
Premature infants may develop respiratory distress and can land up in respiratory failure sometimes needing an intensive care for such infants. This may be due to:
1. the sudden change from the uterine environment to the air
2. the incomplete development of the lung surface
3. inadequate production of surfactant
4. mutations in the genes involved in lung formation
What keeps the lungs inflated even during expiration?
1. The smooth muscles of the lung
2. The diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone
3. The visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs
4. Surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity
Oxygen is mainly transported as oxyhaemoglobin in the blood. Identify the correct statement regarding oxygen transport in blood:
1. During normal activity, a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2
2. During conditions of acidosis, hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently.
3. Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen-carrying capacity.
4. A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal.
Which of the following algae is likely to be found in the deepest waters?
(1) Green
(2) Brown
(3) Red
(4) All are found at equal depths
Congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms in:
1. Hypotension
2. Coronary artery disease
3. Angina
4. Heart failure
In mosses, the sex organs are seen in:
1. Protonema stage
2. Leafy stage
3. Capsule of the sporophyte
4. Seta of the sporophyte
The features seen in the gymnosperm Cycas include:
I. Coralloid roots
II. Unbranched stems
III. Pinnate persistent leaves for a few years
IV. Male cones and megasporophyllys borne on same plant
1. I and II only
2. I and IV only
3. I, II and III only
4. I, II, III, and IV
Both bryophytes and pteridophytes:
1. are vascular cryptogams
2. have a dominant sporophyte
3. reproduce only sexually
4. are haplo-diplontic
The following statements refer to gas carriage by blood. Choose the correct statement:
1. | After leaving the lungs, each litre of blood contains about 20 ml of oxygen. |
2. | Haemoglobin is half saturated with oxygen when the PO2 is about 30 mm Hg |
3. | As the PCO2 rises, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is increased. |
4. | Each litre of arterial blood contains about 50 mL of carbon dioxide. |
Study the spirograph and identify the correctly matched volumes from the codes given:
TV IRV ERV RV VITAL CAPACITY
1. A c B D E
2. A B C D E
3. B A C D E
4. C B A D E
Red algae differ from the green algae and brown algae in having :
1. No chlorophyll
2. No differentiated cells
3. Lacking sexual stages
4. No flagellated stages in their life cycle
Fibrous connective tissue builds up in the lungs causing them not to inflate properly, and actually deflating them is called:
1. chronic bronchitis
2. emphysema
3. pulmonary fibrosis
4. asthma
The C-shaped cartilaginous rings around the trachea are open posteriorly to:
(1) allow for expansion of the esophagus during swallowing
(2) allow the vocal cords to relax
(3) prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing
(4) prevent food from entering the trachea
The trachea is lined with
1. ciliated simple squamous epithelium
2. stratified squamous epithelium
3. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
4. pseudostratified squamous epithelium
Consider the following statements :
I. The diffusing capacity of across the respiratory membrane is higher than that of
II. The presence of Hb increases the efficiency of transport about 10 times.
III. Carbon monoxide binds to Hb with much more tenacity with respect to
Which of the above statements are true ?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I,II and III
Column I |
Column II |
||
I. |
TV |
1. |
2500 mL - 3000mL |
II. |
IRV |
2. |
500 mL |
III. |
ERV |
3. |
1100 mL – 1200 mL |
IV. |
RV |
4. |
1000 mL – 1100 mL |
Codes :
I |
II |
III |
IV |
|
1. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
2. |
2 |
1 |
4 |
3 |
3. |
2 |
1 |
3 |
4 |
4. |
1 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
Carlous Linnaeus system is an artificial system because it is
1. Phylogenetic.
2. Based on evolutionary trends.
3. Based on number of characters.
4. Based on a few characters of superficial similarities and dissimilarities on morphology.
Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms (with respect to six kingdom system)?
1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. Four
Select the incorrect statement.
1.Nostocand Anabaena have heterocysts for nigrogen fixation.
2. Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
3. Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in nature.
4. The cell walls of mycoplasma are made up of chitin.
Statement I : Bacterial structure and behaviour is very complex
Statement 2 : They show the most extensive metabolic diversity as a group
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
The smallest living cells have all known characteristics except
1. Survive in presence of oxygen.
2. Infect animals and plant.
3. Complete lack of cell membrane.
4. Contain dsDNA as genetic material.
Which of the following is a difference between eubacteria and archaebacteria?
1. They look very different from each other under microscope.
2. Eubacteria are autotrophic and archaebacteria are heterotrophic.
3. Archaebacteria are unicellular and eubacteria are colonial.
4. They have different chemicals in their cell membranes and cell walls.
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option
|
Column-I |
|
Column-II |
(a) |
Ex-situ conservation |
(i) |
Central National Herbarium |
(b) |
Quick referral system |
(ii) |
Museum |
(c) |
Preserved plants and animals |
(iii) |
Flora |
(d) |
Actual account of habitat and distribution of plants in a given area |
(iv) |
Royal Botanical Garden, Kew |
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Slime moulds in vegetative phase are surrounded by cell wall.
(ii) Slime moulds are obligate autotrophs.
(iii) Euglena behaves like heterotroph in absence of light predating smaller organism.
(iv) The fishes are killed by toxins released by slime moulds.
(v) Protists reproduce sexually by zygote formation.
(vi) Euglena has resemblance with plant and animal both.
1. (i), (ii) and (iii) 2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (iii) and (vi) 4. (i), (ii) and (iv)
Following features belong to
(i) Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red depending on pigment in cell.
(ii) Stiff cellulosic plates forms the cell wall.
(iii) One longitudinal and one transverse flagella present.
(iv) Photosynthetic
1. Diatoms 2. Desmids
3. Dinoflagellates 4.Euglenoids
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding fungi?
1. Wheat rust-causing agent is Puccinia.
2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotics.
3. The cell walls of fungi are composed of peptidoglycans.
4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
Dikaryotic stage is a characteristic of
1.Phycomycetes and ascomycetes.
2. Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
3.Phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
4. Basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes.
Which of the following eukaryote is extensively used in experimental genetics?
1.E. coli
2.Alternaria
3.Ustilago
4.Neurospora
Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the following sequential event. Arrange them properly.
(i) | Fusion of two nuclei |
(ii) | Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or non-motile gametes. |
(iii) | Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores. |
1. (i) – (ii) – (iii)
2. (ii) – (i) – (iii)
3. (iii) – (ii) – (i)
4. (iii) – (i) – (ii)
Select the correct statement
1.Viroids have double stranded RNA.
2. RNA of viroids has higher molecular weight than that of viruses.
3. Mumps and herpes are viral diseases.
4. The name virus was given by D.J. Ivanowsky.
Which of the following statement are incorrect with respect to lichens ?
(i) Algae protects fungus and fungus is parasite on algae.
(ii) Algae and fungi are in symbiotic association.
(iii) Lichens are pollution indicator.
(iv) Lichen represents the climax of plant succession.
1. (i) and (ii) 2. (i) and (iv)
3. (ii) and (iii) 4. (iii) and (iv)
In lichen, algal component is called______and fungal component is called ______
1.Mycobiont ;phycobiont
2.Phycobiont ;mycobiont
3.Phycobiont ; mycorrhiza
4.Mycorrhiza ;mycobiont
The second-largest constituent of plasma is:
1. Water
2. Proteins
3. Glucose
4. Hormones
A person with which of the following blood groups can receive blood from a donor of only his/her own blood group?
1. | O | 2. | A |
3. | B | 4. | AB |
Factors that can initiate coagulation of blood can be released by:
I. | Platelets in the blood |
II. | Tissues at the site of injury |
III. | Liver |
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Interstitial fluid resembles plasma in the same distribution of:
1. Formed elements
2. Proteins
3. Minerals
4. Enzymes
All terrestrial vertebrates possess:
1. A muscle or elastic membrane to increase the thoracic volume
2. A renal portal system
3. A skin that does allow diffusion of gases
4. At least a three-chambered heart
What separates the right and the left atria in the human heart?
1. A thin muscular wall
2. A thick muscular wall
3. A thin fibrous membrane
4. A thick fibrous membrane
A tricuspid valve will prevent blood flow from:
1 Right atrium to the right ventricle
2. Right ventricle to the right atrium
3. Left atrium to the left ventricle
4. Left ventricle to left atrium
Purkinje fibers are:
1. Intrinsic neural fibers in the ventricles
2. Muscle fibers that interconnect the SA node and AV node
3. Muscle fibers that are distributed in the ventricular musculature
4. Neural fibers that spread the impulse throughout the ventricular muscle mass
All the following statements regarding the joint diastole phase of the cardiac cycle are correct except:
1. All chambers are in a relaxed state
2. The AV vales may remain close in the initial period
3. Ventricles get filled in the later part
4. Semilunar valves remain open
The first heart sound is heard during the:
1. Beginning of ventricular systole
2. End of ventricular systole
3. Beginning of atrial systole
4. End of ventricular diastole
When the stroke volume of the ventricles is much less than the expected values, the heart is said to be:
1. Fibrillating
2. Blocked
3. Arrested
4. Failing
A trained athlete can achieve a maximal cardiac output of:
1. 5 – 10 L/min
2. 15 – 20 L/min
3. 25 – 30 L/min
4. 55 – 60 L/min
The atria receive:
1. oxygenated blood
2. Deoxygenated blood
3. Mixed blood
4. venous blood
On a surface ECG, the end of ventricular systole is marked by:
1. The end of the QRS complex
2. The beginning of T wave
3. The end of T wave
4. The beginning of P wave
Normal activities of the human heart are regulated:
1. Intrinsically
2. By the autonomic nervous system
3. y the somatic neural system
4. By the adrenal medullary hormones
A normal blood pressure reading in a healthy adult human being would be:
I. 116/76 mm Hg
II. 150/80 mm Hg
III. 120/ 94 mm Hg
1. Only I
2. Both I and II
3. Both I and III
4. I, II, and III
The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The output F of the circuit is represented by:
1. W(X+Y)
2. W.(X.Y)
3. W+(X.Y)
4. W+(X+Y)
The vitamin that plays an important role in erythropoiesis is:
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B 12
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin K
Which of the following is not an anticoagulant?
1. Heparin
2. Warfarin
3. Oxalates and citrates
4. Plasmin
Which of the following are true for cyanobacteria?
(I) | They are freshwater/marine or terrestrial algae. |
(II) | Often form blooms in unpolluted water bodies |
(III) | Maybe unicellular, colonial, or filamentous. |
(IV) | Some of them fix atmospheric nitrogen. |
1. I, III, IV
2. I, II, III, IV
3. II, III, IV
4. I, II, IV
Which of the following is true for the reproduction of bacteria?
1. Reproduce mainly by fission.
2. Under unfavourable conditions, they produce spores.
3. Also reproduce by sort of sexual reproduction.
4. All of these
Which of the following are correct for viroids?
(I) Discovered by Pasteur.
(II) Smaller than viruses.
(III) Found to be free DNA.
(IV) Cause potato spindle tuber disease.
(V) Nucleic acid has high molecular weight.
1. I, III, IV
2. II, III, IV, V
3. II, IV
4. II, IV, V
What is absent in Euglenoids?
1. Two flagella, a short and a long one.
2. Pellicle, a protein-rich layer.
3. Pigments identical to those present in higher plants.
4. Cell wall with stiff cellulose plates.
Which of the following form the basis for the division of the kingdom fungi into various classes?
(I) | Mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies. |
(II) | Morphology of the mycelium. |
(III) | Mode of nutrition and occurrence. |
1. | I, II | 2. | I, III |
3. | II, III | 4. | Only I |
Identify A, B, and C in the given diagram:
A |
B |
C |
|
1 |
Sheath |
Head |
Collar |
2 |
Collar |
Head |
Sheath |
3 |
Sheath |
Collar |
Head |
4 |
Head |
Collar |
Sheath |
Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in kingdom protista with
1. Anabaena and Colletotrichum
2. Anabaena and Chlorella
3. Chlamydomonas and Colletotrichum
4. Chlorella and Chlamydomonas
Which of the following is not the characteristic of the class to which Mucor belongs?
1. Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
2. Zygospore is formed by fusion of two gametes
3. Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores or aplanospores
4. Gametes are always dissimilar in morphology
Earlier classification systems included bacteria, blue green algae, fungi, mosses, ferns, gymnosperms and angiosperms under plants. The character that unified this whole kingdom was that all the organisms included had
1. Cell wall in their cells
2. Nuclear membrane in their nucleus
3. Autotrophic nutrition
4. All of these
Which of the following statements is true for Heterotrophic bacteria?
1. | They fix nitrogen in legume roots. |
2. | The majority are important decomposers. |
3. | Helpful in making curd from milk and production of antibiotics. |
4. | All of these. |
Who showed that viruses could be crystallized and crystals consist largely of proteins?
1. D.J. Ivanowsky
2. M.W. Beijerinek
3. W.M. Stanley
4. T.O. Diener
Classification of organisms on the basis of gene sequencing is
1. Cytotaxonomy
2. Karyotaxonomy
3. Chemotaxonomy
4. Classical taxonomy
Asexual spored in brown algae are
1. Non-motile sporangiospore.
2. Biflagellated zoospores with two equal flagella.
3. Quadriflagellated zoospores with thick cell walls.
4. Biflagellated zoospores with two unequal lateral flagella.
Select the group of animals belonging to different phyla?
1. Hirudinaria, Limulus, Laccifer.
2. Nereis, Dentalium, Aplysia.
3. Pheretima, Chaetopleura, Ophiura.
4. Cucumaria, Anteadon, Loligo.
Which of the following Algae shows anisogamy.
1. Volvox.
2. Udorina.
3. Spirogyra.
4. Ulothrix.
In mosses vegetative reproduction takes place by fragmentation & budding in
1. Primary protonema.
2. Secondary protonema.
3. Rhizoids.
4. Both 1 and 2.
Read the following and choose the incorrect statement
1. Majority of red algae are marine with greater concentrations found in the warmer areas.
2. Thallus of Marchantia is dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substrate.
3. In Sequoia, reduced male gametophyte is called pollen grain and its endosperm represents future sporophytes.
4. Wolffia is the smallest flowering plant.
With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events
1. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
2. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
3. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
4. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy
A Prothallus is
1. A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops
2. A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes
3. A gametophyte free living structure formed in pteridophytes
4. A primitive structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes
Choose the incorrect statement:-
1. Gametophyte of Gymnosperm are always Dioecious
2. Sporophyte of Gymnosperm are always heterosporous.
3. Sporophyte of pteridophytes may be monoecious or dioecious.
4. Gametophyte of pteridophytes may be monoecious or dioecious.
Choose the incorrect match from following:-
1. Cycas-branched stem.
2. Salvinia-heterosporous sporophyte.
3. Marchantia-Elaters.
4. Chlorella-used by space travellers.
Select the correct statements from the following:-
(i) In dicotyledonous roots, the parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and phloem are medullary rays.
(ii) Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and companion cells.
(iii) Presence of vessels is characteristic feature of angiosperms.
(iv) The end walls of vessels are imperforated but pitted.
1. Only (i)
2. (i) & (iv)
3. (ii) & (iii)
4. All of the above
Assertion: Seeds are formed in Gymnosperms.
Reason: Female gametophyte is retained within megasporangium in Gymnosperms.
The slope of the straight line obtained by plotting rate versus concentration of reactant for a first order reaction is
1. - k
2.
3.
4. k
In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15 minutes. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is
1. 7.5 min
2. 15 min
3. 30 min
4. 60 min
The concentration of reactant X decreases from 0.1 M to 0.005 M in 40 minutes. If the reaction follows first order kinetics, the rate of reaction when concentration of X is 0.01 M will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which one of the following forms micelles in aqueous solution above certain concentration -
1. Glucose
2. Urea
3. Dodecyl trimetlyl ammonium chloride
4. Pyridinium chloride
In a reaction, the reactant A will disappear at
1. Half the rate at which B will decrease
2. The same rate at which B will decrease
3. The same rate at which will form
4. Twice the rate at which B will decrease
For the reaction, , the rate law for the disappearance of will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
The rate constant of a first order reaction depends on
1. Concentration of the reactants
2. Concentration of the products
3. Time
4. Temperature
For a reaction, the rate constant at a particular temperature has a value of . The order of the reaction is :
1. -1
2. 0
3. 1
4. 2
When concentration of reactant was made 4 times, the rate of reaction becomes 8 times. The order of reaction with respect to the reactant will be
1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 1.5
What is the half life of a radioactive substance if 87.5% of given amount disintegrates in 40 minutes ?
1. 160 minutes
2. 10 minutes
3. 20 minutes
4. 13.33 minutes
In a first order reaction, 75% of the reactant disappeared in 1.386 hours. The rate constant of the reaction is
1.
2.
3.
4.
For an endothermic reaction, where represents the enthalpy of the reaction in KJ mol, the value for the energy of activation will be
1. Less than
2. Zero
3. More than ∆
4. Equal to ∆
If the temperature coefficient of a reaction is 3, to what factor the rate of reaction increases when temperature is increased fron ?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 27
A gas phase reaction, is of the first order. The initial pressure was and pressure after 10 minutes was . The correct expression for rate constant (K) will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Colloids can be prepared by-
1. Tyndall Effect 2. Electrophoresis
3. Dialysis 4. Peptization
Dispersed phase and dispersion medium of gel are respectively
1. Solid, liquid
2. Liquid, solid
3. Liquid, gas
4. Gas, liquid
is a negative sol. which electrolyte is most effective for the congulation of sol?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Gold number of starch is 25. How much of it is required to prevent coagulation of 100 ml of gold sol by adding 1 ml of 10% NaCl solution?
1. 25 mg
2. 250 mg
3. 2.5 mg
4. 0.25 mg
Water vapours can be both adsorbed and absorbed by respectively ?
1. Silica gel and
2. Chalk and
3. and Silica gel
4. and Chalk
For the process mechanism is . The rate law is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The rate constant, the activation energy and the Arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at respectively. The value of rate constant as is
1.
2.
3. infinity
4.
The rate constant of a reaction depends on-
1. Temperature
2. Initial concentration of reactants
3. Time of reaction
4. Extent of reaction
Which of the following is not correct for physical adsorption?
1. Adsorption is spontaneous
2. Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative
3. Adsorption on solid is reversible
4. Adsorption increases with increase in temperature
The rate constant is numerically the same for three reactions of first, second and third order respectively. Which reaction should be fastest if
1. III order
2. II order
3. I order
4. IV order
Find the order of reaction for the rate expression rate=
1. 1.67
2. 2.67
3. 3.67
4. 4
Catalytic poisoning is due to-
1. Increasing activation energy
2. Adsorption of poisoner on the surface of the reactants
3. Adsorption of poisoner on the surface of the catalyst
4. Increase in heat of reaction
High purity dihydrogen is obtained by electrolysing
1. Warm aqueous barium hydroxide
2. Brine solution
3. Acidified sulphate solution
4. Water gas
Hardness of water cannot be removed by
1. Treating with washing soda
2. Boiling
3. Adding Calgon
4. Addition of chlorine
An orange coloured solution of acidified with and treated with gives a blue coloured solution. The blue colour is due to the formation of
1.
2.
3.
4.
can be obtained when following reacts with except with
1.
2.
3.
4.
When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminum silicate, is treated with hard water the sodium ions are exchanged with
1. H+ ions
2. Ca2+ ions
3. Mg2+ ions
4. Both Ca2+ and Mg2+
Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because the
1. Form soluble complexes with anionic species
2. Precipitate anionic species
3. Forms soluble complexes with cationic species
4. Precipitate cationic species
Saline hydrides react explosively with water, such fires can be extinguished by
1. Water
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Sand
4. None of these
Out of the two allotropic forms of dihydrogen, the form with lesser molecular energy is
1. Ortho
2. Meta
3. Para
4. All have same energy
D2O is preferred to H2O, as a moderator, in nuclear reactors because
1. D2O slows down fast neutrons better
2. D2O has a high specific heat
3. D2O is cheaper
4. None of these
Permanent hardness due to Mg2+ ions is best removed by
1. Ca(OH)2
2. Na2CO3
3. Na2CO3 + Ca(OH)2
4. None of these
Hydrogen can be obtained from water, by the action of water on
1. Calcium carbide
2. Calcium hydride
3. Calcium oxide
4. Calcium
Gold number of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.5, 0.01, 0.1 and 0.005 respectively. The correct order of their protective power is
1. D < A < C < B
2. C < B < D < A
3. A < C < B < D
4. B < D < A < C
For a linear plot of log (x/m) versus log p in Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the following statements is correct? (k and n are constants)
1. 1/n appears as the intercept
2. Only 1/n appears as the slope
3. log (1/n) appears as the intercept
4. Both k and 1/n appear in the slope term
Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
1. Sodium lauryl sulphate
2. Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
3. Glyceryl oleate
4. Sodium stearate
The coagulation power of electrolytes having ions and for arsenic sulphide sol increases in the order:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Assertion: If the activation energy of a reaction is zero, temperature will have no effect on the rate constant.
Reason: Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.
In a uniform circular motion, which of the following quantity is not constant?
1. Angular momentum
2. Speed
3. Kinetic energy
4. Momentum
Find the moment of inertia of a plate cut in the shape of a right-angled triangle of mass M, side AC = BC = a about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the plate and passing through the midpoint of side AB.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Three identical thin rods each of mass m & length l are placed along x, y & z-axis respectively. They are placed such that, one end of each rod is at origin 'O'. The moment of inertia of this system about the z-axis is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two rods of equal mass m and length l lie along the x axis and y axis with their centres origin. What is the moment of inertia of both about the line x=y :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Moment of inertia of a rectangular plate about an axis passing through P and perpendicular to the plate is I. Then the moment of PQR about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the plate:
1. about P = I/2
2. about R = I/2
3. about P > I/2
4. about R > I/2
In the triangular sheet given PQ = QR = l. If M is the mass of the sheet. What is the moment of inertial about PR?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Moment of inertia of a thin semicircular disc (mass = M & radius = R) about an axis through point O and perpendicular to plan of disc, is given by :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Moment of inertia of a semicircular ring of radius R and mass M; about an axis passing through A and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A uniform cylinder of mass m can rotate freely about its own axis which is horizontal. A particle of mass hangs from the end of a light string wound round the cylinder which does not slip over it. When the system is allowed to move, the acceleration of the descending mass will be :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A uniform rod of length l, hinged at the lower end is free to rotate in the vertical plane. If the rod is held vertically in the beginning and then released, the angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an angle of 45 with the horizontal (I = ml2/3) :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A block of mass m is attached to a pulley disc of equal mass m, radius r by means of a slack string as shown. The pulley is hinged about its centre on a horizontal table and the block is projected with an initial velocity of 5 m/s. Its velocity when the string becomes taut will be :
1. 3 m/s
2. 2.5 m/s
3. 5/3 m/s
4. 10/3 m/s
A small bead of mass m moving with velocity v gets threaded on a stationary semicircular ring of mass m and radius R kept on a horizontal table. The ring can freely rotate about its centre. The bead comes to rest relative to the ring. What will be the final angular velocity of the system?
1. V/R
2. 2V/R
3. V/2R
4. 3V/R
A small object is attached to a light string that passes through a hollow tube. The tube is held by one hand and the string by the other. The object is set into rotation in a circle of radius r1. The string is then pulled down, shortening the radius of the circle to r2. The ratio of the new kinetic energy to original kinetic energy is :
1.
2. 1
3.
4.
A man, sitting firmly over a rotating stool has his arms stretched. If he folds his arms, the work done by the man is :
1. Zero
2. positive
3. negative
4. may be positive or negative.
A particle of mass 2 kg located at the position m has a velocity of 2 m/s. Its angular momentum about z-axis in kg-m2/s is:
1. Zero
2. +8
3. 12
4. -8
Two spheres are rolling with the same velocity (for their C.M.). Their ratio of kinetic energy is 2 : 1 & radius ratio is 2 : 1, their mass ratio will be :
1. 2 : 1
2. 4 : 1
3. 8 : 1
4.
A ring of mass m and radius R has three particles attached to the ring as shown in the figure. The centre of the ring has a speed The Kinetic energy of the system is: (Slipping in absent)
1.
2.
3.
4.
The linear speed of a uniform spherical shell after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h from rest, is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ball is thrown upward and it returns to ground describing a parabolic path. Which of the following remains constant?
1. The kinetic energy of the ball
2. speed of the ball
3. horizontal component of velocity
4. none of the above
Zener diode is used for:-
1. Rectification
2. Stabilisation
3. Amplification
4. Producing oscillations in an oscillator
The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A drum of radius R and mass M rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane of angle θ. The frictional force-
1. Decreases the rotational and translational motion
2. Dissipates energy as heat
3. Decreases the rotational motion
4. Converts translational energy to rotational energy
Carbon, Silicon, and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge respectively. Which one of the following relationships is true in their case.
1. (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge
2. (Eg)C > (Eg)Si
3. (Eg)C = (Eg)Si
4. (Eg)C < (Eg)Si
Application of a forward-biased to a p-n junction -
1. Widens the depletion zone
2. Increases the number of donors on the n side
3. Increases the potential difference across the depletion zone
4. Increases the electric field in the depletion zone
Two bodies A and B have moment of inertia and respectively, if both have the same
angular momenta, then their rotational kinetic energies are in the ratio:
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a common base transistor amplifier, the input resistance is and output resistance is if the voltage gain is
1. 7
2. 49
3. 5
4. 25
An n-p-n transistor is biased to use it as an amplifier. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1. The electrons go from emitter region to base region.
2. The electrons go from base region to collector region
3. The electrons go from collector region to base region
4. The holes go from base region to emitter region
A sinusoidal voltage of r.m.s value of 200 volts is connected to the diode and capacitor C in the circuit shown so that half-wave rectification occurs. The final potential difference in volt across C is:
1. 500
2. 200
3. 283
4. 141
The figure shows the connections of two ideal diodes and two capacitors C and 2C. A 120-volt battery is connected to the input terminals with a at positive potential and b at lower potential. The output voltage across cd is:
1. 60 V
2. 40 V
3. 30 V
4. 20 V
The circuit represents :
1. OR gate
2. AND gate
3. NOR gate
4. NAND gate
The combination of the gates shown below produces :
1. AND gate
2. XOR gate
3. NOR gate
4. NAND gate
Energy required to break one bond in DNA is approximately
1. ~ 1 eV
2. ~ 0.1 eV
3. ~ 0.01 eV
4. ~ 2.1 eV
Carbon, Silicon, and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by and respectively. Which one of the following relationships is true in their case?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each with a forward resistance of 50. If the battery voltage is 6V, the current through the 100 resistance (in Amperes) is :
1. 0.027
2. 0.020
3. 0.030
4. 0.036
Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3V and 0.7V respectively. In the following figure, if Ge diode connections are reversed, the value of changes by- (assume that the Ge diode has large breakdown voltage)
1. 0.6V
2. 0.8V
3. 0.4V
4. 0.2V
The mobility of electrons in a semiconductor is defined as the ratio of their drift velocity to the applied electric field. If for an n-type semiconductor, the density of electrons is and their mobility is , then the resistivity of the semiconductor (since it is an n-type semiconductor, the contribution of holes is ignored) is close to:
1. 2 m
2. 0.4 m
3. 4 m
4. 0.2 m
The output of the given logic circuit is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
To get output ‘1’ at R, for the given logic gate circuit the values must be:
1. X = 0, Y = 1
2. X = 1, Y = 1
3. X = 0, Y = 0
4. X = 1, Y = 0
Two identical rods of length l and mass m are joined to make a T-shaped structure and it is lying in the plane of the paper as shown. Moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of the paper is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A stabilized voltage 12V across a load whose current varies from 5mA to 35mA with an unregulated d.c. supply of 18V is to be obtained with a Zener diode of Zener voltage 12V and . Calculate the value of the current limiting resistance required.
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the circuit given below, the value of the current is -
1. 0 amp
2. 10-2 amp
3. 102 amp
4. 10-3 amp
An npn transistor is biased to work as an amplifier. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1. The electrons go from the base region to collector region
2. The electrons go from emitter region to base region
3. The electrons go from the collector region to base region
4. The holes go from the base region to the emitter region
Zener diode work in -
1. zero bias
2. reverse bias
3. forward bias
4. infinite bias
By adding indium at the rate of one indium atom per germanium atoms, a sample of germanium atom is made p material. The donor density is assumed to be zero and per cubic metre at 300K. If there are germanium atoms per cubic metre, find the ratio .
1. 0.22
2. 0.51
3. 0.31
4. 0.78