Class 12 Syllabus Bio test 100 Questions

Botany - Section A

1. The basic structural unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotes [the basic repeating unit of eukaryotic chromatin] is called as:

1.	Nucleosome	2.	Solenoid
3.	Euchromatin	4.	Heterochromatin

2. After germinating from the seed, which of the following plants takes the longest time to flower?
1.   Neela kuranji
2.   Bamboo
3.   Marigold
4.   Mango

3. Identify the correct statements:

I:	Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
II:	Geitonogamy is genetically similar to autogamy.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

4. What is incorrect regarding the tRNA molecule?
1. There are no tRNAs for stop codons
2. It is the smallest of the major cellular RNAs
3. The actual structure of tRNA looks like a clover leaf
4. Its 3’ end is the amino acid acceptor end

5. The genus Citrus has a number of species that undergo polyembryony, where alongside sexually-derived embryos:

1.	multiple nucellar-cell-derived embryos exist
2.	multiple integument derived embryos exist
3.	only one nucellar-cell-derived embryo exists
4.	multiple antipodal-cell-derived embryos exist

6. In Hershey and Chase experiment:

I:	Radioactive sulfur-35 was used to label the DNA contained in the T₂ phage
II:	Radioactive phosphorus-32 was used to label the protein sections of the T₂ phage

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

7. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Khasi hills	P	Waste water management
B	Western ghats	Q	Chipko movement
C	Arcata	R	Sacred groves
D	Garhwal himalayas	S	Hotspot of biodiversity

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	R	P	Q
2.	R	S	P	Q
3.	S	Q	P	R
4.	R	S	Q	P

8. In sexually reproducing organisms which of the following events can normally be regarded as most ‘critical’?
1.   Gametogenesis
2.   Gamete transfer
3.   Fertilization
4.   Embryogenesis

9. Identify the correct chronological sequence in the stages of embryonic development in a dicot:

1.	A → B → C	2.	C → A → B
3.	B → A → C	4.	C → B → A

10. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Brown rust of wheat	Fungus
2.	Black rot of crucifers	Bacterium
3.	Tobacco mosaic	Virus
4.	Root knot of tobacco	Annelid

11. In the given diagram, identify A, B, C and D:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Terminator	Promoter	Template Strand	Coding Strand
2.	Promoter	Terminator	Template Strand	Coding Strand
3.	Promoter	Terminator	Coding Strand	Template Strand
4.	Terminator	Promoter	Coding Strand	Template Strand

12. Identify the correct statements:

I.	Pioneers in primary xerarch succession are lichens
II.	Pioneers in primary hydrarch succession are phytoplanktons
III.	Secondary succession is slower than primary succession

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

13. “Chromosomes, which are seen in all dividing cells and pass from one generation to the next, are the basis for all genetic inheritance” – this statement can correctly be attributed to:
1. de Vries, Correns and Tschermak
2. Sutton and Boveri
3. Knight and Goss
4. Beadle and Tatum

14. There are six mRNA codons for all the following amino acids except:
1.   Leucine
2.   Serine
3.   Arginine
4.   Glycine

15. In the given diagram showing the TS of wall of an anther, identify the layer where cells can be binucleate:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

16. A very low level of expression of lac operon is present in E.coli:
1. Only when lactose is present
2. Only when glucose is absent
3. Only when allolactose is present
4. all the time

17. In pea seeds, starch synthesis is controlled by one gene with two alleles [B/b]. A pea seed with genotype Bb will be:
1. Round and Large
2. Wrinkled and large
3. Round and intermediate in size
4. Round and small in size

18. Fredrick Griffith:
1.   proved that DNA is the genetic material
2.   discovered the process of bacterial transformation
3.   identified Diplococcus pneumoniae as the causative agent of pneumonia
4.   was the first to isolate DNA in a pure form

19. The prime contaminants of water bodies responsible for cultural or Accelerated Eutrophication are:
1.   Calcium and Magnesium
2.   Zinc and Cobalt
3.   Nitrates and phosphates
4.   Sulphates and carbonates

20. What is incorrect about the Double helix structure of DNA molecule?
1. The two strands are antiparallel
2. The two strands are complementary
3. The pitch is 34 nm
4. The two strands are coiled in a right-handed fashion

21. Which RNA molecule plays structural and catalytic role during translation?

1.	miRNA	2.	rRNA
3.	tRNA	4.	mRNA

22. Pure-breeding red-flowering snapdragons [Antirrhinum sp.] are crossed with pure-breeding white-flowering snapdragons. The proportion of progeny with pink flowers from this cross is expected to be:

1.	25 %	2.	50 %
3.	75 %	4.	100 %

23. During RNA splicing 200-300 adenine residues are added:

1.	at the 3’-end of RNA in a template independent manner
2.	at the 5’-end of RNA in a template independent manner
3.	at the 3’-end of RNA in a template dependent manner
4.	at the 5’-end of RNA in a template dependent manner

24. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Flower]		Column II [Pollination by]
A.	Brassica	P.	Water
B.	Zostera	Q.	Moth
C.	Grasses	R.	Wind
D.	Yucca	S.	Honey bees

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	P	R	Q
2.	Q	R	P	S
3.	S	P	Q	R
4.	Q	R	S	P

25. A crop gets infected with a certain virus and the farmers of the area suffer immense financial loss. You have been asked to help the farmers and you decide to improve the crop by raising virus-free plants through plant tissue culture. The explant you will choose must be:

1.	Meristem	2.	Anther
3.	Embryo	4.	Internode

26. Identify the option that includes all dominant traits seen in Pisum sativum?

1.	Tall stem height, Violet flower, Green pod colour, Axial flower position, Inflated pod shape, Round seed shape and Yellow seed colour
2.	Tall stem height, Violet flower, Yellow pod colour, Axial flower position, Inflated pod shape, Round seed shape and Green seed colour
3.	Dwarf stem height, Violet flower, Green pod colour, Axial flower position, Inflated pod shape, Round seed shape and Yellow seed colour
4.	Tall stem height, Violet flower, Green pod colour, Terminal flower position, Inflated pod shape, Round seed shape and Yellow seed colour

27. Currently. what is the most important cause that is driving animals and plants to extinction?
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Alien species invasion
3. Over-exploitation
4. Co-extinction

28. Organisms exhibiting external fertilization do not:
1.   show synchrony between the sexes
2.   release a large number of gametes in the surrounding medium
3.   depend on water for fertilization
4.   show a significant reduction in the number of eggs produced

29. The molecule shown in the given figure:

I:	serve as substrate for DNA replication
II:	provide energy for polymerisation reaction

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

30. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Golden rice	P	High protein wheat
B	Atlas 66	Q	Vitamin A enriched
C	Pusa Komal	R	Resistant to Bacterial Blight
D	Pusa Gaurav	S	Resistant to Aphids

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	Q	P	R	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	P	Q	S	R

31. In the given diagram, the correctly labelled parts are:

1.	Only E	2.	Only D and E
3.	Only A and C	4.	Only B

32. During the decomposition of detritus, the correct chronological sequence of steps involved is:
1. Fragmentation → Leaching → Catabolism
2. Catabolism → Leaching → Fragmentation
3. Leaching → Fragmentation → Catabolism
4. There is no sequence as all steps occur simultaneously

33. In a test cross AaBb X aabb [assuming independent assortment], the ratio of progeny with genotypes AaBb and aabb will be:
1. 1 : 1
2. 3 : 1
3. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
4. 9 : 1

34. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Asexual reproductive structure in Penicillium	P	Conidia
B	Vegetative propagule in Agave	Q	Marchantia
C	Monoecious plant	R	Chara
D	Dioecious plant	S	Bulbil

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	S	P	Q	R
3.	P	S	R	Q
4.	S	P	R	Q

35. A heterozygous tall pea plant is allowed to self-pollinate. What proportion of tall progeny will be heterozygous tall?

1.	¼	2.	2/3
3.	½	4.	¾

Botany - Section B

36.

Assertion (A):	Traditional hybridization for crop improvement very often leads to inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desirable gene
Reason (R):	Genetic engineering allows isolation and introduction one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

37.

Assertion (A):	Whole plants can be regenerated from any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in special nutrient media
Reason (R):	Every living plant cell is totipotent

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

38.

Assertion (A):	When constructing rDNA, the vector DNA should never be cut by the same restriction endonuclease that was used to cut the donor DNA
Reason (R):	Use of same restriction endonuclease will generate same kind of sticky ends retarding the function of DNA ligase.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

39.

Assertion (A):	The organic farmer holds the view that eradication of pest is undesirable
Reason (R):	Biocontrol is not a good strategy to control pest

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

40. Assertion: Temperature is usually not an important factor limiting primary production in the ocean.
Reason: Due to high specific heat of water the temperature variations in water are not as significant as on the land.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

41.

Assertion (A):	Ex-situ conservation is advisable if the organism is facing a high threat of extinction.
Reason (R):	Ex-situ conservation is an on-site conservation where we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

42.

Assertion (A):	Cyclosporin A has been commercialized as a blood- cholesterol lowering agent
Reason (R):	Cyclosporin A is a competitive inhibitor of an enzyme responsible for the biosynthesis of cholesterol

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

43. Assertion: Ecosystems with higher species diversity are less subject to invasive species.
Reason: Fewer niches are available in ecosystems with higher species diversity

1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

44.

Assertion (A):	Thermostable DNA dependent DNA polymerase is used in Polymerase Chain Reaction
Reason (R):	Such enzymes do not require primers and can initiate DNA synthesis

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

45.

Assertion (A):	The current sixth mass extinction is happening at a lower pace than the previous mass extinctions.
Reason (R):	Human beings have been highly successful in conserving biodiversity across the globe.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the reason is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the reason is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

46. Assertion: The reduction of combustion of fossil fuels can reduce air pollution drastically.
Reason: A very effective means to reduce air pollution is the transition to renewable energy.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

47.

Assertion (A):	In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have very few, preferably single, recognition sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes.
Reason (R):	Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate several fragments, which will complicate the gene cloning.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

48.

Assertion:	Apiculture has been an age-old cottage industry
Reason:	It is an activity that can be carried on in people's homes

1.	Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2.	Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3.	Assertion is true but reason is false
4.	Both assertion and reason are false

49.

Assertion:	The thinning of ozone [ozone hole] is especially significant over Antarctica.
Reason:	CFCs get accumulated over Antarctica in maximum concentration.

1.	Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2.	Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3.	Assertion is true but reason is false
4.	Both assertion and reason are false

50.

Assertion (A):	It makes sense to make concentrated efforts to conserve hotspots of biodiversity.
Reason (R):	They cover majority of the area of the planet earth.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

Zoology - Section A

51. Consider the two statements

I:	The thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and cucurbita represent homology
II:	Sweet potato and potato represent analogy

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

52. Consider the two statements

I:	Sertoli cells divide meiotically to produce sperms
II:	Leydic cells secrete androgens when stimulated by FSH

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

53. What is true about HBB [gene for production of beta chain of haemoglobin]:
1.   It is a single gene located on chromosome 11
2.   It is a single gene located on chromosome 16
3.   There are two genes closely linked on chromosome 11
4.   There are two genes closely linked on chromosome 16

54. Darwin did not believe that Earth was only few thousand years old. According to him, the species found on earth today:
1. Were created in their current forms about 6000 years ago
2. Evolved from a few common ancestors
3. Are no longer evolving
4. Originated on another planet

55. What can be correctly inferred from species richness model?

1.	The extinction rate and the rate at which new species arrive will tend toward an equilibrium number of species
2.	Offspring can inherit characteristics acquired by their parents
3.	More new species will arrive in an area than go extinct in a given amount of time
4.	The number of species in an area will always increase

56. Consider the two statements

I:	Multiload −375 is a Cu releasing IUD
II:	Levonorgesterel is an oestrogen

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

57. What would be true regarding chromosomes?
1.   There are more chromosomes in animal cells than plant cells.
2.   The more complex the organism, the more chromosomes it has.
3. A greater number of chromosomes does not mean an organism will be more sophisticated.
4.   Larger organisms have more chromosomes than smaller organisms.

58. Match each item in Column I with one given in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Column I [Organism]		Column II [Mechanism of sex determination]
A.	Honey bees	P.	Genic balance
B.	Grasshopper	Q.	ZZ-ZW, female heterogamety
C.	Birds	R.	XX-XO male heterogamety
D.	Fruit fly	S.	Haplo-diploidy

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	R	P	Q	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	S	R	Q	P

59. Sickle cell anaemia allele is deleterious and frequently causes death in homozygous condition. Yet the disease persists because:
1.   It is caused by a dominant allele
2.   The allele is located on the X chromosome
3.   Presence of one allele confers protection against severe malaria
4.   The allele arises by a recurring mutation in the wild allele

60. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The survival of a species relies on some individuals producing offspring.
2.	Fitness in evolutionary terms is reproductive fitness.
3.	All organisms of a particular species are identical; otherwise, they would not be able to breed.
4.	The organisms best adapted to their environment are the most likely to produce offspring.

61. In a population at genetic equilibrium the frequency of dominant allele is 0.8. What is the frequency of heterozygotes in this population?
1.   0.04
2.   0.16
3.   0.32
4.   0.64

62. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Length of Testis	4 to 5 cm
2.	Width of testis	2 to 3 cm
3.	Length of ovary	5 to 6 cm
4.	Length of fallopian tube	10 to 12 cm

63. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Number of genes on chromosome 1	P.	2968
B.	Number of genes on Y chromosome	Q.	Less than 2
C.	Percent of genome that codes for proteins	R.	Over 50
D.	Percent of discovered genes without known functions	S.	231

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	S	P	Q	R
3.	P	S	R	Q
4.	S	P	R	Q

64. An environment eliminates individuals at the extremes of a population. This type of natural selection will be called as:
1. Stabilizing
2. Directional
3. Disruptive
4. Dispersive

65. The ultimate source of all genetic [allelic] variation is:
1.   Natural selection
2.   Genetic drift
3.   Mutation
4.   Recombination

66. What is true regarding the experiment carried out by S. L. Miller?
1. The flask contained methane, ammonia and oxygen
2. The temperature was kept at 4⁰C
3. Electric discharge was used as a source of energy
4. He did not observe formation of any amino acids

67. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I [month of pregnancy]		COLUMN II [Feature of embryonic development]
A	End of one month	P	Limbs and digits develop
B	End of second month	Q	Heart is formed
C	During the fifth month	R	First movements of foetus observed
D	End of sixth month	S	Eyelashes are formed

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	Q	P	R	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	P	Q	S	R

68. The total number of centrioles present in a normal human sperm is:
1.   2
2.   3
3.   4
4.   8

69. A small group of individuals leaves a population and establishes a new one in a geographically isolated region. This is called as:
1. gene flow
2. genetic drift
3. natural selection
4. saltation

70. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I *[Ancestors of Home sapiens]*		Column II [Cranial capacity]
A	Homo erectus	P	1400 cc
B	Homo habilis	Q	450 cc
C	Australopithecus	R	650-800 cc
D	Neanderthal man	S	900 cc

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	R	P	Q	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	S	R	Q	P

71. According to the MTP [Amendment] Act 2017, the gestational age till which MTP can be performed is a maximum of:
1. 12 weeks
2. 16 weeks
3. 20 weeks
4. 24 weeks

72. Study the given diagram and select the correct option:

1.	The karyotype is of an individual suffering from Down’s syndrome
2.	The number of autosomes seen is 43
3.	The genetic sex of this individual must be female
4.	The fertility will be maintained in this individual

73. Evolution can be best defined as:
1. changes in a population of organisms over a period of time
2. passage of acquired traits to progeny
3. differential reproduction
4. organisms coming into existence at a defined moment in time and not changing

74. Beginning from the mammary alveolus which of the following would be the first structure amongst the following?
1.   Mammary duct
2.   Ampulla
3.   Lactiferous duct
4.   mammary tubule

75. In the absence of fertilization:
1. the zona pellucid gets hardened
2. the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II
3. the corpus luteum degenerates
4. menstruation does not occur

76. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Jersey	P	Exotic cattle breed
B	Leghorn	Q	Chicken breed
C	Catla	R	Freshwater edible fish
D	Hilsa	S	Marine water edible fish

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	R	P	Q	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	S	R	Q	P

77. The drug, amongst the following, that is least likely to produce hallucinations as side effect, is :

1.	LSD	2.	Cocaine
3.	Atropine	4.	Benzodiazepines

78. The term transformation can be used for :

I:	Specific process where exogenous genetic material is directly taken up and incorporated by a cell through its cell membrane.
II:	The process by which an animal cell acquires the properties of cancer.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

79. Which of the following human diseases is not transmitted by faecal-oral route ?
1. Ascariasis
2. Viral Diarrhoea
3. Filariasis
4. Typhoid

80. Consider the two statements

I:	Phenylketonuria is caused by mutation in a pleiotropic gene
II:	Sickle cell anemia is inherited as an autosomal-recessive condition

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

81. The economist whose book ‘Essay on the Principle of Populations’ influenced Darwin was:
1. Georges Cuvier
2. Alfred Lyell
3. T. R. Malthus
4. A. R. Wallace

82. Which of the following may or may not undergo cell division during oogenesis?
1.   Oogonia
2.   First polar body
3.   Second polar body
4.   Primary oocyte

83. The trait shown in the given pedigree [symbols have usual meaning] is most likely:

1.	Autosomal recessive	2.	X-linked recessive
3.	Autosomal dominant	4.	X-linked dominant

84. When a retrovirus infects an animal cell:

1.	c DNA is introduced into cell
2.	Viral RNA is produced by reverse transcription
3.	Viral RNA incorporates into host genomes
4.	Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released

85. Australian marsupials and placental mammals of other continents have many similarities. This is due to:
1. Divergent evolution
2. Reproductive isolation
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Convergent evolution

Zoology - Section B

86. Assertion: IgG antibodies are important for humoral immunity in the new born before its own immune system develops
Reason: IgG antibodies can cross placenta
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

87. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Most cancers are treated by a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy
Reason (R):	Combination therapy is curative for all types of cancers

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

88.

Assertion (A):	The female anopheles mosquito is not considered a parasite
Reason (R):	The bite of the female anopheles mosquito injects infective stage of malarial parasite into human blood

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

89.

Assertion:	Mammals from colder climates generally have small body size and long appendages (ears and limbs)
Reason:	This promotes increased heat production and minimises heat loss

1.	Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2.	Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3.	Assertion is true but reason is false
4.	Both assertion and reason are false

90.

Assertion (A):	Competition can be avoided even if two species compete for the same resource
Reason (R):	The competition species can partition their resources to avoid competition

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False

91.

Assertion (A):	The genetic sex of an individual with Klinefelter's syndrome is female
Reason (R):	Only X-chromosome is present in their genotype

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

92.

Assertion (A):	Transgenic animals can be specifically designed to allow the study of how genes are regulated, and how they affect the normal functions of the body and its development, e.g., study of complex factors involved in growth such as insulin-like growth factor.
Reason (R):	By introducing genes from other species that alter the formation of this factor and studying the biological effects that result, information is obtained about the biological role of the factor in the body.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

93.

Assertion(A):	Delivery of ADA cDNA into lymphocytes is not a permanent cure for ADA deficiency
Reason(R)	Lymphocytes do not express ADA gene.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

94. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Selection of good breeds is the most important task when setting up a dairy farm for cattle.
Reason (R):	Milk yield is primarily dependent on the quality of breeds in the farm.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

95.

Assertion:	Predatory fish such as swordfish and sharks or birds like osprey and eagles have higher concentrations of mercury in their tissue than could be accounted for by direct exposure alone.
Reason:	Mercury undergoes biomagnifications in aquatic ecosystems.

1.	Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2.	Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3.	Assertion is true but reason is false
4.	Both assertion and reason are false

96.

Assertion (A):	Anabolic steroids are frequently abused by athletes
Reason (R):	They decrease aggressiveness helping athletes to maintain calm during competitive athletic events

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

97.

Assertion (A):	VNTRs are the basis of DNA fingerprinting by RFLP
Reason (R):	VNTRs are polymorphic and are inherited

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is false
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

98. Assertion: Particulate size 2.5 \(\mu m\) or less in diameter [ PM 2.5] are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health
Reason: Electrostatic precipitors are not effective in removing particulate matter from polluted air.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

99.

Assertion(A):	Natural selection is differential reproduction
Reason(R):	The unit of natural selection is individual

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false

100.

Assertion(A):	Spleen can help in survival in cases of haemorrhagic shock
Reason(R):	Spleen has a large reservoir of erythrocytes

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

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