Identify the incorrectly matched pair :
1. |
Humulin |
First therapeutic rDNA product approved for human use |
2. |
RNAi |
Silencing of mRNA with the help of dsRNA |
3. |
Rosie |
Transgenic sheep producing alpha 1 antitrypsin |
4. |
Golden rice |
Vitamin A enriched rice variety |
RNAi is a mechanism to silence genes with the help of
1. ssRNA
2. dsRNA
3. ssDNA
4. dsDNA
Tobacco plant has been made resistant to the tobacco mosaic virus by :
1. introducing T-DNA of Agrobacterium
2. introducing a gene for virus coat protein
3. introducing meristematic activity in somatic cells
4. applying newer generation pesticides to the crops
What limitation of traditional hybridization used for plant and animal breeding has been overcome by
the use of rDNA techniques?
1. High cost
2. Insertion of undesirable genes
3. Complexity of the procedure
4. Antigenicity of the product
To protect tobacco plants against Meloidegyne incognita using RNAi, nematode specific genes were introduced in the plant using:
1. Transposons
2. Retrotransposons
3. Virus with RNA genome
4. Agrobacterium
A permanent cure for ADA deficiency could be:
1. | Enzyme replacement therapy |
2. | Bone marrow transplant |
3. | Introduction of a functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes |
4. | Introduction of gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA into early embryonic cells |
The technique not used for transformation of plant cells in recombinant procedures is:
1. Biolistics
2. Agrobacterium mediation
3. Use of viruses
4. Micro-injection
If gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stage, it could be a permanant cure of ADA deficiency because the early embryonic cells :
1. Are more differentiated than the later stage cells
2. Are constantly dividing and do not get differentiated
3. Are easy to manipulate than the later stage cells
4. Are virtually immortal
To test the safety of polio vaccine, the organisms used are transgenic :
1. Mice
2. Pigs
3. Monkey
4. Cattle
If the goal were to create a plant resistant to an insecticide, which cell-based plant technology would be most effective ?
(1) clonal propagation
(2) cybridization
(3) protoplast fusion
(4) mutant selection
Which protein has been produced generating a transgenic sheep that is used for replacement therapy for individuals at risk from emphysema?
1. Plasminogen activator (rPA)
2. α-antitrypsin (ATT)
3. Casein
4. Amyloid precursor proteins
Consider the following statements :
I. | RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence |
II. | It involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to complementary dsDNA molecules that prevents the translation of mRNA |
III. | Fire and Mello got Nobel Prize for the discovery of RNAi |
Which of the above statements are true ?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I,II and III
Consider the following statements :
I. The BCG vaccine is given as a protection against Tuberculosis
II. Oral polio vaccine is being used in the Pulse Polio Immunization programme in India
III. Hepatitis B vaccine is made with the help of recombinant E.Coli
Which of the above statements are true ?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I,II and III
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below :
Column I Column II
I. RNAi 1. Fire and Mello
II. Ribozyme 2. Thomas Cech
III. PCR 3. Kyle Mullis
IV. Monoclonal antibodies 4. Millstein and Kohler
Codes :
I II III IV
1. 1 2 3 4
2. 2 1 4 3
3. 2 1 3 4
4. 1 2 4 3
Symptoms of altitude sickness include all except
Shivering during cold is beneficial for mammals. It helps to
(1) Decrease body temperature.
(2) Increase body temperature.
(3) Decrease rate of metabolism.
(4) None of these
Many adaptations of an organism have evolved over a long duration of evolution and are______
(1) Genetically unstable.
(2) Genetically fixed.
(3) Genetically disadvantageous.
(4) Genetically extemporaneous.
The main reason behind building burrows in soil by burrowing animals is
(1) To escape from predators.
(2) To derive nutrition parts of plants from Underground.
(3) The mode of evolution chose burrows as a specific habitat.
(4) To hide and escape from the above ground heat.
Choose the odd one out with respect to structure formed in the different organisms during suspended phase.
(1) Bacteria - Thick-walled spores
(2) Higher plants - Seeds, vegetative propagules
(3) Zooplankton - Diapause state
(4) Ectothermic organism - Torpid state during favourable season.
Smaller animals tend to lose body heat very fast as compared to larger animals because they have
(1) Higher surface to volume ratio.
(2) Lower surface to volume ratio.
(3) Equal values of surface and volume.
(4) Very low BMR (basal metabolic rate).
Select the incorrect statement
(1) Organisms living in oceans, lakes and rivers do not face any water related problems.
(2) Productivity and distribution of plants is dependent on water.
(3) The levels of thermal tolerance of different species determine to a large extent their geographical distribution
(4) Foraging, reproductive and migratory activities of some animals are dependent on seasonal variations in light
Population size in any given habitat is also known as _______
(1) Population cluster
(2) Population explosion
(3) Population abundance
(4) Population density
A striking difference between immigration and emigration is _____
(1) Immigration considers total numbers of species in a given habitat, while emigration refers to a single species.
(2) Emigration considers total numbers of species in a given habitat, while immigration refers to a single species.
(3) Immigration considers total number of dominant species in a given habitat, while emigration refers to a single species.
(4) Immigration considers total number of species in a given habitat, while emigration refers to a dominant single species.
Study the following equation in context of population growth and choose the correct option
dN/dt=(B-D)×N
Substituting r in place of B-D then
dN/dt=rN
Here, r is known as _______
(1) Extrinsic rate of natural decrease.
(2) Intrinsic rate of natural decrease.
(3) Intrinsic rate of natural increase.
(4) Extrinsic rate of natural increase.
What four factors define population growth?
(1) Births, deaths, immigration, emigration
(2) Survivorship, age specific, mortality, fecundity, death rate
(3) Mark recapture, census, quadrate, sampling transects
(4) Age specific birth rate, metapopulation structure, quardrate, ecotone
Which of the following is true concerning exponential growth?
(1) No population can grow exponentially for long.
(2) Exponential growth slows down as the population reaches near its maximal size.
(3) Bacterial colonies have been observed to maintain exponential growth for over a month.
(4) Exponential growth is commonly observed in large, slow growing species such as humans and elephants.
Read the following statements and select the correct option with respect to population attributes.
a. Population density is necessarily measured in numbers.
b. Tiger census is often based on pug marks and fecal pellets.
c. Biomass is not a meaningful measure to known population size.
d. Size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.
1. a. and b. 2. a. and d.
3. c. and d. 4. b. and d.
Select the incorrect statement regarding different population attributes.
(1) Natural selection operates at population level.
(2) Size of the population tells a lot about its status in the habitat.
(3) In age pyramids, age distribution of male and females are shown in separate diagrams.
(4) Population is a group of individuals multiplying by sexual and asexual reproduction
A species whose distribution is restricted to a small geographical area because of the presence of a competitive superior species is found to expand its distributional range dramatically when the competing species is experimentally removed. This phenomenon is known as
(1) Competitive exclusion.
(2) Competitive release.
(3) Interference competition.
(4) Resource partitioning.
Find out the false statements
(1) Parasite that feeds on the external surface of the host organism are called ectoparasite.
(2) The life cycle of endoparasite are more complex because of their extreme specialisation
(3) Parasitism has evolved in so many taxonomic groups from plants to higher vertebrates.
(4) Endoparasites have greatly complex morphological and anatomical features along with high reproductive potential.
Find out the incorrect statement
(1) Under a particular set of selection pressure, organisms evolve towards the most efficient reproductive strategy.
(2) In ammensalisms, one species is harmed whereas other is not benefitted.
(3) Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically coloured (camouflaged) to avoid being detected easily by the predator.
(4) Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the prey to regulate predator population.
Through resource partitioning
(1) Two species can compete for the same prey
(2) Slight variation in niche allow closely related species to co-exist in the same habitat.
(3) Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species.
(4) Two species undergo character displacement that allows them to compete.
The association between clown fish and sea anemone is the same as between
(1) Egret and grazing cattle
(2) Cuckoo and crow
(3) Fig and wasp
(4) Cuscuta and hedge plant
For the defense against predators, butterflies become highly distasteful due to having certain chemical in their bodies. What is the source of the chemical?
(1) The butterflies have genes for synthesis of this chemical in its each and every cell.
(2) The butterfly acquires this chemical during its caterpillar stage by feeding on a poisonous plant.
(3) The chemical accumulates in the cells of butterfly when it feeds on another insect
(4) The butterfly secretes the chemical
Predation, parasitism and commensalism share a common characteristic, that is
(1) Both the interacting species are benefitted.
(2) Interacting species live closely together.
(3) One of the species is benefitted while other is harmed.
(4) Both the species belong to the same taxonomic group.
Which of the following is not correct?
(1) More recent studies do not support gross generalisations about competition as suggested in Gause’s competitive exclusion principle.
(2) More recent studies do not rule out the occurrence of interspecific competition in nature.
(3) More recent studies point out that species facing competition might evolve mechanisms that promote co-existence rather than exclusion.
(4) Gause’s competitive exclusion principle is effective when resources are in excess.
Secondary productivity means
(1) Rate of formation of organic matter by producer.
(2) Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
(3) Rate of formation of inorganic matter by producer
(4) Rate of formation of inorganic matter by consumer
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a. Fragmentation (i) Break down of detritus into smaller particles
b. Leaching (ii) Precipitation of water soluble nutrients as unavailable salt
c. Catabolism (iii) Degradation of detritus by bacterial and fungal enzymes
1. a. — (i) ; b. — (ii) ; c. — (iii)
2. a. — (ii) ; b. — (iii) ; c. — (i)
3. a. — (iii) ; b. — (ii) ; c. — (i)
4. a. — (iii) ; b. — (i) ; c. — (ii)
Humus is degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occur by the process known as
(1) Fragmentation
(2) Leaching
(3) Humidification
(4) Mineralisation
Following are the two main structural features of an ecosystem
a. Species composition
b. Energy flow
c. Decomposition
d. Stratification
1. a. and d. 2. b. and c.
3. Only a. 4. b. and d.
Cycling of material in ecosystem is entirely dependent upon
(1) Producers and consumers.
(2) Primary producers and herbivores.
(3) Herbivores and carnivores
(4) Producers and decomposers.
The process of decomposition is in the following order
(1) CatabolismFragmentationLeachingHumificationMineralization
(2) CatabolismFragmentationHumificationLeachingMineralization
(3) FragmentationHumificationCatabolismLeachingMineralization
(4) FragmentationLeachingCatabolismHumificationMineralization
Net primary productivity
(1) For oceans is 60% of biosphere productivity
(2) Depends upon photosynthetic capacity of producers.
(3) Remains constant in temperate area throughout the year
(4) Is limited by light in marine habitats only
Most important climatic factors that regulate the rate of decomposition are
(1) Temperature and soil moisture.
(2) Soil pH and aeration
(3) Aeration and temperature
(4) Moisture and soil Ph
Gross primary productivity is
(1) Rate of which organic molecules are formed in an autotroph.
(2) Rate at which organic molecules are used up by an autotroph
(3) Storage of organic molecules in the body of an autotroph
(4) Rate at which organic molecules are transferred to next higher trophic level.
Which law is obeyed during energy flow in an ecosystem?
(1) First law of thermodynamics
(2) Second law of thermodynamics
(3) Third law of thermodynamics
(4) Both 1. and 2.
Find the incorrect statement
(1) In terrestrial ecosystem larger fraction of energy flow occurs through DFC
(2) In aquatic ecosystem a major conduit for energy flow is GFC
(3) Detritus food chain is not at all connected with grazing food chain at any level.
(4) Natural interconnection of food chain makes it a food web
A graphical representation known as ______is required to express food or energy relationship between organisms at different trophic levels.
(1) Ecological pyramid
(2) Standing state
(3) Ecological quadrilateral
(4) Standing crop
Find the correct statement
(1) Trophic level represents a functional level, not a species as such
(2) A given species never occupies more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time
(3) In most ecosystem, producers are less in number and biomass than the herbivores
(4) Pyramid of energy can never be upright
A food web
(1) Increases variety of food at each trophic level
(2) Delicately balances the inter-relations among organisms.
(3) Decreases variety of food but increases quantity of food at each trophic level
(4) Increases variety as well as quantity of food at each trophic level
Orderly and sequential changes in communities, parallel with the changes in the physical environment is known as
(1) Ecological succession.
(2) Extinction.
(3) Divergent evolution.
(4) Convergent evolution.
The entire sequence of communities that successively, change in a given area are called
Find out the total number of true statements from the following:
a. Primary succession is a very slow process, taking thousands of years for the climax to be reached.
b. All succession whether taking place in water or land, proceeds to a similar climax community, the mesic.
c. As succession proceeds, the number and types of animals and decomposers also change
d. Saprophytes are not given any place in the ecological pyramids even though they play a vital
role in the ecosystem.
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four
Amount of nutrients present in soil at any given time is referred as
Which of the following majorly regulates the amount of carbon in the atmosphere?
(1) Respiratory activities of the producers and consumers
(2) Decomposers
(3) Burning of fossil fuel
(4) Oceanic reservoir
What price tag did Robert Constanza put for fundamental ecosystem services?
Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services, the soil account for __________%, recreation and nutrient cycling constitute less than ___________% and climate regulation and habitat for wildlife account for about __________% each.
What is the problem in providing a bone marrow transplant to a patient of SCID as a treatment?
1. rejection of the graft by the recipient
2. graft-versus-host disease
3. cardiovascular failure
4. anaphylaxis
The advantage of using DNA polymerases from thermophilic organisms in PCR is that:
1. | the DNA polymerases of these bacteria are much faster than those from other organisms |
2. | the DNA polymerases of these bacteria can withstand the high temperatures needed to denature the DNA strands |
3. | the DNA polymerases of these bacteria never make mistakes while replicating DNA |
4. | all of the above |
A gene carried by recombinant DNA is cloned when:
1. Its host bacterium divides by binary fission
2. It is transcribed
3. It is fragmented by restriction enzymes
4. It is hybridized
Restriction enzymes are synthesized by
(1) Bacteria only
(2) Either yeast or bacteria only
(3) Eukaryotic cells, only
(4) All kind of cell
A bacterium adds methyl group to its DNA, by a process known as modification, in order to:
1. | Clone its DNA |
2. | Turn its genes on |
3. | Transcribe many genes simultaneously |
4. | Protect DNA from its own restriction enzymes |
A fragment of DNA, cut by a restriction enzyme, forms bonds with other DNA molecules that have
1. Been fragmented by the same restriction enzyme
2. Sticky ends
3. Plasmid component
4. Attached methyl group
Hybridization of mRNA with DNA can reveal which segment of the DNA are introns and which segment are exons. When the magnification is high enough to see the molecule, the introns appear as
1. Single stranded loops in a double stranded molecule
2. Separate fragments
3. Triple stranded nucleic acid molecules
4. Barr bodies
Which of the following primers would allow copying of the single-stranded DNA sequence 5' ATGCCTAGGTC?
1. | 5' TACGG | 2. | 5' CTGGA |
3. | 5' GACCT | 4. | 5' GGCAT |
Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is INCORRECTLY paired with one of its uses?
1. | restriction endonuclease - production of DNA fragments for gene cloning. |
2. | DNA polymerase - copies DNA sequences to create primers in the polymerase chain reaction. |
3. | reverse transcriptase - production of cDNA from mRNA. |
4. | electrophoresis - RLFP analysis. |
Which of the following is not part of the normal process of cloning recombinant DNA in bacteria?
1. | restriction endonuclease digestion of cellular and plasmid DNAs. |
2. | production of recombinant DNA using DNA ligase and a mixture of digested cellular and plasmid DNAs. |
3. | separation of recombinant DNAs by electrophoresis using the Southern technique to determine where the desired recombinant migrates. |
4. | transformation of bacteria by the recombinant DNA plasmids and selection using ampicillin. |
A key feature of insertional mutagenesis for the identification of plasmids containing recombinant DNA is:
1. | the production of nutritional auxotrophs. |
2. | the DNA sequencing of recombinant plasmids. |
3. | the production of restriction endonuclease maps of recombinant plasmids. |
4. | the disruption of a gene on the plasmid by the inserted recombinant DNA. |
What type of probe would you use for a Western blot experiment?
1. | A known DNA sequence. | 2. | An RNA molecule. |
3. | A purified protein. | 4. | An antibody. |
Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic evolution -
1. production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning
2. Development of organs from 'stem' cells for organ transplantation
3. Development of transgenic animals
4. Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
The world's highly prized wool yielding 'Pashmina' breed is -
1. Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
2. Goat
3. Sheep
4. Goat-sheep cross
The best breeding method for animals that are below average in productivity in milk production is:
1. Inbreeding
2. Out crossing
3. Cross breeding
4. Interspecific hybridization
To induce follicular maturation and super-ovulation, a cow is administered a hormone with activity like:
1. FSH
2. LH
3. Estrogen
4. Progesterone
Which of the following is a freshwater edible fish?
1. Hilsa
2. Mackerel
3. Pomfret
4. Common carp
The reduced biological fitness in a given population as a result of breeding of related individuals is called as:
1.Heterosis
2.Heterozygote advantage
3 Inbreeding depression
4.Saltation
In MOET, the fertilized eggs at 8 – 32 cells stage is transferred to the surrogate rather than the genetic mother because:
1 The surrogate chosen is of a different breed from the genetic mother
2.The surrogate mother is of a younger age
3.The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation
4.The genetic mother is of an inferior breed
Choose the correct match
|
Type of Biome |
Mean Annual Rainfall (mm) |
Mean Annual Temperature (C) |
1 |
Tropical Rain Forest |
2000-3500 |
23-27 |
2 |
Temperate Needle Leaf Forest |
1000-2500 |
"6-15" |
3 |
Tropical deciduous forest |
900-1600 |
"6-20" |
4 |
Temperate Broad Leaf Forest |
400-900 |
0-10 |
Match the following columns and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a. Eurythermal (i) 0.1-0.28 m
b. Hypersaline lagoons (ii) Organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature
c. Stenohaline (iii) > 100 ppt saltconcentration
d. UV–C (iv) Organisms are restricted to a narrow range of salinities
1. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
2. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
3. a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1:The success of mammals is largely due to their ability to maintain a constant body temperature.
Statement 2:Majority of the animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment.
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statements are correct.
4. Both statements are incorrect
State True (T) or False (F) for the following statements and select the correct option
a. Mammals from colder climates generally have larger ears and limbs to minimize the heat loss.
b. Experience of altitude sickness is due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes.
c. The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.
d. Resources for growth for most of the animal population are finite and become limiting sooner
or later.
a b c d
1. T T T T
2. F T T T
3. F F F F
4. T F T F
If ‘N’ is the population density at time t, then its density at time ‘t+1’ will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
A molecular technique in which DNA sequences between two oligonucleotide primers can be amplified is known as:
1. southern blotting
2. northern blotting
3. polymerase chain reaction
4. DNA replication
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
1. a disease in humans that causes loss of sight
2. a bacterium that can be used to introduce DNA into plants
3. a fungi that is used to produce antibiotics in large amounts
4. a disease in humans that causes loss of weight
Vectors are
1. molecules that degrade nucleic acids
2. molecules that help in replication
3. molecules that are able to covalently bond to and carry foreign DNA into cells
4. molecules that protect host cells from invasion by foreign DNA
Bacterial cells protect their own DNA from degradation by restriction endonucleases by
1. methylating the DNA at the sites that the enzyme recognizes
2. deleting all recognition sites from the genome
3. not producing any restriction endonucleases
4. having anti restriction endonucleases
Which of the following enzyme is used to covalently bond foreign DNA to a vector plasmid?
1. DNA polymerase
2. Restriction endonuclease
3. DNA ligase
4. DNA helicase
The piece of equipment, that introduces DNA into cells via DNA-coated microprojectiles is known as
1. laser
2. DNA probe
3. gene gun
4. inoculating needle
In attempts to confer special characteristics upon plants, genetic engineers find Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be an effective vector for use with
1. corn
2. rice
3. wheat
4. soy beans
In the screening process, clones that metabolize X-gal turn
1. yellow
2. orange
3. blue
4. colorless
Identify the incorrect statement:
1. Inbreeding is necessary if we want to evolve a pure line in any animal
2. A single out-cross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression
3. To induce super-ovulation in MOET, the cow is administered hormone with FSH like activity
4. The genetic mother is used to transfer the fertilized eggs in MOET procedures
Entropy change of vaporization at constant pressure is given by:
1.
2.
3.
4. None of the above
What is the entropy change for the reaction given below,
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) 2H2O(l)
at temperature 300 K? Standard entropies of H2 (g), O2(g) and H2O(l) are 126.6, 201.20 and 68.0 JK-1mol-1 respectively.
1. -318.4 JK-1mol-1 .
2. 318.4 JK-1mol-1
3. 31.84 JK-1mol-1
4. none of these
The work done in an open vessel at 300 K, when 112 g iron reacts with dil. HCl is:
1. 1.2 kcal
2. 0.6 kcal
3. 0.3 kcal
4. 0.2 kcal
The standard change is Gibbs energy for the reaction,
H2OH+ + OH- at 25C is:
1. 100 kJ
2. -90 kJ
3. 90 kJ
4. -100 kJ
The reaction CH4(g) + Cl2(g)CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g)
has =-25 Kcal
Bond | Bond Energy Kcal |
EC-Cl | 84 |
EH-Cl | 103 |
EC-H | X |
ECl-Cl | Y |
X:Y | 9:5 |
From the given data, what is the bond enthalpy of Cl-Cl bond?
1. 70 Kcal
2. 80 Kcal
3. 67.75 Kcal
4. 57.85 Kcal
Equilibrium is represented by:
1. H = 0
2. GTotal=0
3. STotal=0
4. E=0
Heat of the neutralization is greater than 13.7 kcal in -
1. HF & NH4OH
2. HCl & NaOH
3. HI & KOH
4. HF & NaOH
In which case rate of diffusion is highest if all are present in the same container at the same temerature:
1. 4g H2
2. 32g O2
3. 22g CO2
4. 56g N2
At high pressure, Vander Waal gas equation is reduced to (For 1 mole of gas)
1. Z = 1- a/RTV
2. PV = RT +Pb
3. PV = RT +a/V
4. Z = 1- Pb/RT
Partial pressure of Hydrogen in a flask containing 2 gm of H2 and 32 gm of SO2 is:
1. 1/16 of total pressure
2. 1/2 of total pressure
3. 2/3 of total pressure
4. 1/8 of total pressure
An amine is reacted with benzene sulphonyl chloride then a solid compound is formed which is insoluble in alkali. The amine is:
1. CH3-CH2-NH2
2. CH3-NH-CH2-CH3
3. (CH3)3N
4. C6H5-NH2
The correct order of basicities of the following compounds is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
1. 2>1>3>4
2. 1>3>2>4
3. 3>1>2>4
4. 1>2>3>4
In the below-mentioned reaction, the main byproduct (A) formed is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. | None of these |
Given those bond energies of H-H and Cl-Cl are 430 kJ mol-1 and 240 kJ mol-1 respectively and ΔHf for HCI is -90 kJ mol-1. Bond enthalpy of HCl is:
1. 290 kJ mol-1
2. 380 kJ mol-1
3. 425 kJ mol-1
4. 245 kJ mol-1
What will be the total volume of the mixture when 32 gm of oxygen and 3 gm of hydrogen are mixed and kept at 1 atm at 0°C ?
1. 23.26 L
2. 44.8 L
3. 56 L
4. 50 L
Which order is correct regarding 'a' and 'b' van der waal's constants ?
200 ml of He at 0.66 atm pressure and 400 ml of O2 at 0.52 atm pressure are mixed in a 400 ml vessel at 25°C. The partial pressure of He and O2 respectively will be
1. 0.33 atm, 0.52 atm
2. 0.52 atm, 0.33 atm
3. 0.22 atm, 0.45 atm
4. 0.33 atm, 0.26 atm
Select the correct order of the following temperature for a gas
A. Boyle's Temperature
B. Critical Temperature
C. Inversion Temperature
1. A > B > C
2.C > B > A
3. A > C > B
4. C > A > B
x mL of H2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is
1. 10 seconds : Не
2. 20 seconds : O2
3. 25 seconds : CO
4. 55 seconds CO2
A reaction occurs spontaneously if -
1. T∆S > ∆H and ∆H is +ve and ∆S are –ve
2. T∆S = ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
3. T∆S < ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
4. T∆S > ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
The surface tension of which of the following liquid is maximum :-
1. C6H6
2. H2O
3. C2H5OH
4. CH3OH
Which of the following pairs of a chemical reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous reaction -
1. Endothermic and decreasing disorder
2. Exothermic and increasing disorder
3. Endothermic and increasing disorder
4. Exothermic and decreasing disorder
Densities of two gases are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their temperatures are in the ratio 2 : 1, then the ratio of their respective pressures is
1. 1 : 1
2. 1 : 2
3. 2 : 1
4. 4 : 1
If 4 g of oxygen diffuse through a very narrow hole, how much hydrogen would have diffused under identical conditions
1. 16 g
2. 1 g
3. 1/4 g
4. 64 g
The Vander Waal’s equation reduces itself to the ideal gas equation at
1. High pressure and low temperature
2. Low pressure and low temperature
3. Low pressure and high temperature
4. High pressure and high temperature
A fixed mass of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and back to K as shown
The successive operation that enable this transformation of states are:
1. heating, cooling, heating, cooling
2. cooling, heating, cooling, heating
3. heating, cooling, cooling, heating
4. cooling, heating, heating, cooling
Equal masses of , He and gasses mixed in vessel recorded a pressure of 7.5 atm. The partial pressure of is:
1. 4.8 atm
2. 2.4 atm
3. 0.3 atm
4. 7.5 atm
In the van der Waals equation of states about gas law, the constant ‘b’ is a measure of:
1. Intermolecular collision per unit volume
2. Intermolecular attraction
3. Volume occupied by the molecules
4. Intermolecular repulsions
If the heats of neutralisation of HCl and HCN with NaOH are – 56 kJ and –12 kJ respectively, the enthalpy of ionisation of HCN is:
1. – 44 kJ
2. 44 kJ
3. 78 kJ
4. – 78 kJ
The bond energies of C – C, C = C, H – H and C – H linkages are 350, 600, 400 and 410 kJ mol–1 respectively. The heat of hydorgenation of ethylene is
1. – 170 kJ mol–1
2. – 260 kJ mol–1
3. – 400 kJ mol–1
4. – 450 kJ mol–1
How much should the pressure be increased in order to decrease the volume of a gas 5% at a constant temperature?
1. 5%
2. 5.26%
3. 10%
4. 4.26%
For a reaction . The value of is -30 kJ/mol and is -100 J/mol. At what temperature, the reaction will be at equilibrium :-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The formation of phosgene is represented as,
The reaction is carried out in 500 mL flask. At equilibrium 0.3 mole of phosgene, 0.1 mole of CO and 0.1 mole of are present. The ewuilibrium constant of the reaction is:
1. 30
2. 15
3. 5
4. 3
both when dissolved in water containing ions the pair of species formed is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Assertion: The change in air pressure effect the speed of sound.
Reason: The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to square root of pressure.
Which one of the following pairs represents stereoisomerism?
1. Chain isomerism and rotational isomerism
2. Structural isomerism and geometrical isomerism
3. Linkage isomerism and geometrical isomerism
4. Optical isomerism and geometrical isomerism
Nitration of benzene is :
1. nucleophilic substitution
2. electrophilic substitution
3. electropilic addition
4. nucleophilic addition
Assertion: An orbital cannot have more than two electrons and they must have opposite spins.
Reason: No two electrons in an atom can have same set of all the four quantum numbers as per
Pauli's exclusion principle.
Assertion: If the activation energy of a reaction is zero, temperature will have no effect on the rate constant.
Reason: Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.
An amine is reacted with benzene sulphonyl chloride then a solid compound is formed which is insoluble in a alkali.The amine is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Assertion: Equivalent mass of a base
Reason: Acidity is the number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one molecule of the base.
1. when A and R both are correct , and R is correct explanation
2. when A and R both are correct , and R is not correct explanation
3. A is correct, and R is incorrect
4. A is incorrect, and R is correct
Assertion: Change in internal energy is zero for all gases at constant temperature.
Reason: Internal energy is function of temperature.
Assertion: An increase in surface area increases the rate of evaporation.
Reason: Stronger the inter-molecular attraction forces, faster is the rate of evaporation at a given temperature.
Assertion: is a disproportionation reaction.
Reason: Oxidation number can be zero, negative, positive or fractional.
Assertion: Boiling point of is more than that of
Reason: Molecules of primary amines are associated due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
A carnot engine working between 400K and 800K has a work output of 900J per cycle. The amount of heat supplied to engine from the source per cycle is
1. 900 J
2. 1800 J
3. 450 J
4. 2700 J
Magnetic field lines
1. Cannot intersect
2. Are always closed curves
3. Can pass through vacuum
4. All of these
A rod of length l rotates with uniform angular velocity about an axis passing through its one end and perpendicular to its length. If a uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to the axis of rotation, then induced emf across the two ends of the rod is :
1.
2.
3.
4. zero
Electromagnetic waves are produced by
1. A static charge
2. A moving charge
3. An accelerated charge
4. Charged particles
The idea of displacement current was introduced by
1. Maxwell
2. Hertz
3. Marconi
4. Bose
Energy stored in an inductor can be made four times when
1. inductance is doubled
2. Current is made times
3. current is doubled
4. can never to be made
A coil wire of a certain radius has 600 turns and a self-inductance of 36 mH. The self-inductance of a second similar coil of 500 turns will be
1. 25 mH
2. 50mH
3. 108mH
4. 75mH
The current passing through a choke coil of 5 H is decreasing at the rate of 3 As-1. The emf induced in the coil is
1. 15 V
2. -15 V
3.
4.
The temperature of an ideal gas expansion increases in an:-
(1) Adiabatic expansion
(2) Isothermal expansion
(3) Adiabatic compression
(4) Isothermal compression
The network shown in the figure is part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant, the current \(I\) is \(5~\text{A}\) and it is decreasing at a rate of \(5\times 10^{3}~\text{A/s}\), then \(V_B-V_A\)
1. \(20~\text{V}\)
2. \(15~\text{V}\)
3. \(10~\text{V}\)
4. \(5~\text{V}\)
A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square of wire of side L (L>>l). The loops are co-planar and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is proportional to :
1. l/L
2.
3. L/l
4.
For an isotropic medium B,, H and M are related as (where B, , H and M have their usual meanings in the context of magnetic material )
1.
2.
3.
4.
Magnetic permeability is maximum for
1. Diamagnetic susbtance
2. Paramagnetic substance
3. Ferromagnetic substance
4. All of these
The relation connecting magnetic susceptibility , and relative permeability is
1.
2.
3.
4.
When a metallic plate swings between the poles of a magnet
1. no effect of the plate
2. eddy current are set up inside the plate and the direction of the current is along the motion of the plate
3. eddy current are set up inside the plate and then direction of the current oppose the motion of the plate
4. eddy currents are set up inside the plate
A small square loop of wire of side 'l' is placed inside a large square loop of side 'L' (L>>l). If the loops are coplanar and their centres coincide, the mutual induction of the system is directly proportional to
1. L/l
2. l/L
3.
4.
The magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of a conducting ring of radius r changes at the rate dB/dt. Then
1. the potential difference between diametrically opposite points on the ring is half of the induced emf
2. the emf induced in the ring is
3. all the points on the ring are at the same potential
4. none of the above
A solenoid has an inductance of 60 henry and a resistance of 30 ohms. If connected to a 100-volt battery, how long will it take for the current to reach of its final value?
1. 1 second
2. 2 seconds
3. e seconds
4. 2e seconds
If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and ferromagnetic material are denoted by , and respectively, then
1.
2.
3.
4.
As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the closed loop shown in the figure, an e.m.f. V volt is induced in the loop. The work done (joules) in taking a charge Q coulomb once along the loop is-
1. QV
2. QV/2
3. 2QV
4. Zero
Time period of a bar magnet in uniform magnetic field is T. If magnet is cut into four equal parts perpendicular to its length and only one part is made to oscillate in same field then new time period is
1.
2.
3.
4.
At two place of earth, angles of dip are and respectively. The places are
1. Pole and equator
2. Equator and pole
3. latitude and latitude
4. latitude and latitude
Magnetic susceptibility is -1 for which of the following substances?
1. Diamagnetic
2. Paramagnetic
3. Semiconductors
4. Superconductors
A plane circular coil having radius r has its axis parallel to a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. It is rotated by about a vertical axis passing through its centre. If resistance of coil is R, then amount of charge flown through a given cross-section of coil is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Isoclinic lines on a magnetic map are formed by joining the points where
1. Dip angle is same.
2. Declination is same.
3. Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is the same.
4. Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is the same.
At room temperature (27°C) magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance is 0.004. At 600 K, the value of the magnetic susceptibility will become/remains
1. 0.004
2. 0.002
3. 0.008
4. Zero
A simple electric motor has armature resistance of 1 and runs from a d.c. source of 12V. When running unloaded it draws a current of 2A. When a certain load is connected, its speed becomes one-half of its unloaded value. Then the current in ampere it draws is:-
1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. 9
The real angle of dip, if a magnet is suspended at an angle of 30 to the magnetic meridian and the dip needle makes an angle of 45 with the horizontal is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A circuit coil is in y-z plane with centre at the origin. The coil is carrying a constant current. Assuming direction of magnetic field at x=-25 cm to be positive direction of magnetic field, which of the following graphs shows variation of magnetic field along x-axis :-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The figure shown has two coils of wires placed in close proximity. The current in primary coil P is made to vary with time as shown in the graph, which of the following graphs best represents the variation of the emf induced in the secondary coil S?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A bicycle wheel of radius \(0.4~\text{m}\) has \(20\) spokes. It is rotating at the rate of \(180\) revolution per minute, perpendicular to the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field of \(0.4\times 10^{-4}~\text{T}\). The emf induced between the rim and the centre of the wheel will be:
1. \(6\times 10^{-3}~\text{V}\)
2. \(6\times 10^{-4}~\text{V}\)
3. \(6\times 10^{-5}~\text{V}\)
4. \(6\times 10^{-6}~\text{V}\)
A thin semi-circular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic induction (see figure). At the position MNQ the speed of the ring is v and the potential difference developed across the ring is
1. zero
2. and M is at higher potential
3. and Q is at higher potential
4. 2RBv and Q is at higher potential
Assertion: The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by placing a suitable magnetic
material as a core inside the coil.
Reason: Soft iron has a high magnetic permeability and cannot be easily magnetized or demagnetized.
Assertion: Self-inductance is called the inertia of electricity.
Reason: In a LR circuit, the inductor opposes any change in current.
Assertion (A): | Power loss in the Admin ideal choke coil is zero. |
Reason (R): | Ideal choke coil has zero resistance. |
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. | Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. | Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. | (A) is true but (R) is false. |
4. | Both (A) and (R) are false. |
Assertion: For observing traffic at our back, we prefer to use a convex mirror.
Reason: A convex mirror has a much larger field of view than a plane mirror or a concave mirror.
Assertion: Radio waves can be polarised.
Reason: Sound waves in air are longitudinal in nature.
If for a given substance melting point is and freezing point is , then correct variation shown by graph between entropy change and temperature is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Assertion: Light described by equation having work function . The maximum kinetic energy of
the photoelectron is
Reason: Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron depends on the maximum frequency present in
incident light according to Einstein's photoelectric effect equation.
Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): | In transistor common emitter mode as an amplifier is preferred over common base mode. |
Reason (R): | In common emitter mode the input signal is connected in series with the voltage applied to the base emitter junction. |
1. | Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. | Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. | (A) is true but (R) is false. |
4. | (A) is false but (R) is true. |
Assertion: Stress is the internal force per unit area of a body
Reason: Rubber is more elastic than steel
Assertion: When a gas is compressed suddenly, its temperature increases.
Reason: Work done in compression of gas increases internal energy of gas in adiabatic process.
Assertion: When a simple pendulum is made to oscillate on the surface of moon, its time period increase.
Reason: Moon is much smaller compared to earth.
A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity from the top of tower of height h. It strikes the level ground through the foot of the tower at a distance x from the tower. The value of x is:
1. h
2.
3. 2h
3.
A force newton is applied over a particle which displaces it from origin to the point metres. The work done on the particle is -
1. -7 joules
2. +13 joules
3. +7 joules
4. +11 joules