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The maximum concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented is:
1. 5 - 10%
2. 10 - 15%
3. 20 - 25%
4. 45 - 50%

The virus shown here is a causative agent of :

1. Intestinal infections
2. Respiratory infections
3. CNS infections
4. Genito-urinary infections

Besides helper T cells, what are two other types of cells that HIV infects?

When searching for a donor for an organ transplant, doctors try to match the __________ of the donor and recipient as closely as possible.

In a series of immune system experiments, the thymus glands were removed from baby mice. Which of the following would you predict as a likely result?

The antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule are formed from the molecule's variable regions. Why are these regions described as variable?

Chemicals produced by virus-infected cells that alert neighboring cells to prepare a defense are called:

For the stability of the organic compounds, Oparin opined that, probably:

For the origin of life, which of the following is not a precondition needed to be fulfilled by the protobionts under consideration?

The first genetic code of life was based on:

Which of the following is not a precondition for Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?

What is genetic equilibrium?

Which of the following is the most important precondition for speciation to occur?
1. Reproductive isolation
2. A crash of the population size
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Random mating

Some of the marsupials of Australia resemble equivalent placental mammals that live in similar habitats on other continents. This is an example of:

The only evolutionary agent that produces adaptive evolutionary changes is :

A population of an animal is hunted down to only 20 organisms. Later the number is restored to 10,000 organisms, but the variations in this population are highly reduced. This is called:
1. Founder Effect
2. Bottleneck effect
3. Edge effect
4. Heterosis

What is the half life of U²³⁸, the radioactive isotope of uranium?

The earliest known members of the horse family belong to the genus:
1. Hyracotherium                                                             
2. Equus
3. Mesohippus                                                                  
4. Merychippus

In a population of red (dominant) and white flowers, the frequency of red flowers is 91 %. What is the frequency of the red allele?

 ............... operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes.

The best test of relatedness of two species is in the similarity of their :

The selecting agent in industrial melanism was :

Many bacteria are now resistant to penicillin, because:

The unit of evolution is now known to be the:

A change in allele frequency within a population, over a succession of generations, is called:

A plant population that reproduces by self - pollination is an extreme example of :

Natural selection is best defined as occurring when the environment causes :

People who carry an allele for normal hemoglobin and an allele for sickle cell are resistant to malaria. They are examples of:
1. heteozygote advantage
2. extreme diploidy
3. outbreeding
4. recessive superiority

A deleterious allele decreases more rapidly in frequency if it is:

Natural selection acts on an organism’s:

Tobacco plant has been made resistant to the tobacco mosaic virus by :

Damage to thymus in a child may lead to

Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness -
1. Morphine
2. Valium
3. Hashish
4. Amphetamines
 

AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects
1. Activator B cells
2. T4 lymphocytes
3. Cytotoxic T cells
4. All lymphocytes

The large vessels for growing microbes on an industrial scale are called
1. Petri dish
2. digestors
3. biogas vessel
4. fermentors

BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of
1. total organic matter
2. biodegradable organic matter
3. oxygen evolution
4. oxygen consumption

Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by a
1. machine
2. bacterium that produces methane gas
3. bacterium producing a large amount of carbon dioxide
4. fungus that releases a lot of gases during its metabolic activities

Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is
1. caused by a Gram-negaive bacterium
2. not an infectious disease
3. viral disease
4. caused by a Gram-positive bacterium

Which of the following represents the form of Plasmodium that is released from the erythrocyte by lysis?
1. Trophozoite
2. Schizont
3. Merozoite
4. Macrogametocyte

Dysarthria on consumption of alcohol is due to the fact that alcohol affects:
1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Hypothalamus
4. Medulla oblangata

Which disease has been completely eradicated?
1. Smallpox
2. Chickenpox
3. Measles
4. Mumps

Influenza viruses are classified into groups based on the _______ antigens of their protein coats.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. N

Infection with HIV will result in a depletion of
1. CD1+ cells.
2. CD2+ cells. 
3. CD3+ cells.
4. CD4+ cells.

Prion diseases share important clinical, neuropathological, and cell biological features with:
1. Kuru
2. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
3. Typhoid
4. Alzheimer's disease

At the time early life first formed on Earth, the atmosphere could best be described as:
1. oxidizing
2. reducing
3. rich in oxygen
4. low in hydrogen gas
 

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation develops without a:
1. Geographic barrier
2. Barrier to gene flow
3. Change in chromosome number
4. Barrier to mating

Distantly related organisms with similar traits have experienced:
1. Coevolution
2. Convergent evolution
3. Divergent evolution
4. Parallel evolution

Natural selection acts on an organism's :
1. Dominant alleles
2. Recessive alleles
3. Phenotype
4. Combined genotype

Disruptive selection favors:
1. Both extreme forms of a trait
2. Intermediate forms of a trait
3. One of the extremes of a trait
4. Environmental differences

A deleterious allele decreases more rapidly in frequency if it is:
1. Recently mutated
2. Rare
3. Dominant
4. Recessive
 

The extint reptile group from which mammals directly evolved is:
1. Sauropsids
2. Pelycosaur
3. Thecodonts
4. Therapsids

Which one of the following would cause the Hardy-Weinberg principle to be inaccurate?

Which of the following ideas was developed by Thomas Malthus?
1. Peppered moths living near English industrial cities provide a good example of evolution.
2. The diversity of Galápagos finch species is the result of natural selection.
3. Living things often produce far more offspring than are needed to maintain their numbers.
4. Reproductive isolation is pre-condition for speciation

Which of the following is not a vector borne disease?
1. African sleeping sickness
2. Dengue
3. Filariasis
4. Diptheria

Adaptive immunity depends on:

A patient who can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but not against viral infections, probably has a disorder in his
1. B cells.
2. plasma cells.
3. natural killer cells.
4. T cells.

Pyrethrin is obtained from:
1. Dahlia pinnata
2. Azadirachta indica
3. Mangifera indica
4. Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium

Match the items in Column ‘A’ and Column ‘B’ and choose correct answer.
Column A                                   Column B
i. Lady bird                         a. Methanobacterium
ii. Mycorrhiza                      b. Trichoderma
iii. Biological control             c. Aphids
iv. Biogas                            d. Glomus
The correct answer is
1. i b, ii d, iii c, iv a
2. i c, ii d, iii b, iv a
3. i d, ii a, iii b, iv c
4. i c, ii b, iii a, iv d

The bacteria and mould involved in the work of Alexander Fleming are :-
1. Staphylococci and Penicillium chrysogenum
2. Streptococci and Penicillium chrysogenum
3. Staphylococci and Penicillium notatum
4. Streptococci and Penicillium notatum

Name the product formed by Trichoderma polysporum and give its use.
1. Statins which are used as blood cholesterol lowering agent.
2. Cyclosporin A that is used as immunosuppressive agent.
3. Statins which are used as clot buster.
4. Cyclosporin A that is used to inhibit the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis.

The causative organism of African sleeping sickness is:
1. Glossina palpalis
2. Phlebotomus
3. Trypanosoma
4. Giardia lamblia

Which of the following is mismatched?

Which type of molecule is produced by viral-infected cells to communicate to non-infected cells in the presence of a virus?
1. Complement
2. Interferon
3. Interleukin
4. Pyrogen

The ineffectiveness of many antibiotics today is most closely associated with:

Identify the incorrect statement:
(i) Bacillus thuringiensisare available in sachets as dried spores which are mixed with kerosene and sprayed on to vulnerable plants
(ii) B.thuringiensis are used to control butterfly caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed
(iii) The toxin of B.thuringiensis  is released in the blood of larvae and the larvae get killed
(iv) By the development of methods of genetic   engineering  B.thuringiensis toxin genes have been introduced into plants
1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) and (iii)
4. (ii) and (iv)

Gynogenic haploids are produced by using 
1. Unfertilised ovules
2. Fertilised ovules
3. Somatic embryo
4. Shoot apex

Pomato is an intergeneric somatic hybrid of 
1. Potato and Brinjal
2. Potato and Tomato
3. Tomato and Brinjal 
4. Potato and Tobacco

In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were induced by 
1. Polyploidy
2. Mutations
3. Selection
4. Hybridisation

Select the incorrect match
1. Protina variety : Maize
2. Triticum aestivum : Bread wheat
3. Mexican wheat : HUW - 468
4. Atlas 66 : Used as donor for improving cultivated wheat

' Sonalika and Kalyan sona ' are high yielding varities of 
1. wheat
2. rice
3. sugarcane
4. maize

' Saccharum barberi ' was originally grown in which part of India ?
1. North India
2. South India 
3. Western India 
4. Eastern India

Tobacco mosaic and turnip mosaic diseases are caused by 
1. viruses
2. fungi
3. bacteria
4. nematodes

Which of the following variety is resistant to disease 'hill bunt' ?
1. Himgiri
2. Pusa Sadabahar
3. Pusa Komal
4. Pusa Sawani

Isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plant can be fused to form hybrid protoplast. which can be grown into new plant. These hybrids are called as 
1. somaclones
2. protoplasts hybrid
3. somatic hybrid
4. none of these

Which phytohormone promotes shoot culture ?
1. Napthalene acetic acid
2. Benzyl amino purine
3. Indole -3- acetic acid
4. Gibberellic acid

How many given parts of plants are used as explants to produce virus free new plant
A. Apical meristem
B. Lateral meristem of dicot plants
C. Intercalary meristem
D. Xylem of any plants
E. Parenchyma of stem
1. A and B
2. A and C
3. A, C and D
4. All of these

To obtain microbial product at industrial scale which equipment is used.
1. Auto clave.
2. Fermentors.
3. Laminar flow.
4. Phytotron.

The microbial biocontrol agent with species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal application is
1. Trichoderma 
2. Glomus
3. Dragonflies 
4. Nucleopolyhedrovirus

In the given diagram the gas X can be:

During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :

All are correct with respect to BOD (Biochemical oxygen Demand), except

The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as
1. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
2. Heterotrophic bacteria
3. Cyanobacteria
4. Archaebacteria

What are flocs?

The most common substrate used in distelleries for the production of ethanol is

Select the correct statement from the following

Probiotics are

One of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect/pest is that

Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants ?

An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is 
1. Nostoc 
2. Azobacter
3. Azospirillium
4. Rhizobium

Which set of reagents will produce freon (CCl₂F₂)?
1. C + F₂ + Cl₂ $\to$
2. CH₃Cl + F₂ $\to$
3. CCl₄ + HF $\stackrel{{\mathrm{SbCl}}_5}{\to }$
4. CCl₄ + F₂ $\to$

Mark the appropriate reagent used to distinguish vicinal and geminal dihalides.:

The halide which undergoes nucleophilic substitution most readily is:
(1) p-H₃CC₆H₄Cl
(2) o-H₃COC₆H₄Cl
(3) p-ClC₆H₄Cl
(4) p-O₂NC₆H₄Cl

Which would be least reactive towards bromine?
(1) Nitrobenzene
(2) Anisole
(3) Phenol
(4) Chlorobenzene

Dunstan’s test is used for identification of:
(1) acetone
(2) alcohol
(3) glycerol
(4) carbonyl compound

The toxicity order for CH₃OH, C₂H₅OH and C₃H₇OH is:
1. C₂H₅OH < CH₃OH < C₃H₇OH
2. C₃H₇OH < C₂H₅OH < CH₃OH
3. C₂H₅OH < C₃H₇OH < CH₃OH 
4. CH₃OH < C₂H₅OH < C₃H₇OH

The organic product in the reaction is:
+ one equivalent of HI $\stackrel{∆}{\to }$Product 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 

Ether fire can be extinguished by:
(1) sand
(2) pyrene
(3) CO₂
(4) all of these

Purity of ether before using it as anaesthetic agent is tested by :-
1. KI + starch
2. CuSO₄
3. H₂SO₄
4. none of these

C₂H₅OH cannot be dried by anhydrous CaCl_2, because:
(1) C₂H₅OH is soluble in water
(2) explosion takes place
(3) C₂H₂OH reacts with CaCl₂
(4) none of the above

The alcohol that forms fats with fatty acids is:
(1) glycerol
(2) ethanol
(3) methanol
(4) glycol

The explosive nitroglycerine is:
(1) a soap
(2) a salt
(3) an ester
(4) a complex compound

Denatured spirit is mainly used as a:
(1) good fuel
(2) drug
(3) solvent in preparing varnishes
(4) material in the preparation of oil

A characteristic group test for phenolic gp. is:
1. Liebermann's nitroso reaction
2. coupling with diazonium salt
3. aqueous FeCl3
4. all of the above

An organic compound C₇H₈O is neither soluble in NaOH nor gives blue colour with FeCl₃, is:
(1) C₆H₅.CH₂OH                 
(2) ${\mathrm{C}}_6{\mathrm{H}}_4{<}_{\mathrm{OH}}^{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}$
(3) C₆H₅.OCH₃                   
(4) none of these

The electrophile involved in the above reaction is:
1. Dichloromethyl cation ($\stackrel{\oplus }{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{HCl}}_2$)
2. Dichlorocarbene (:CCl₂)
3. Trichloromethyl anion ($\stackrel{⊝}{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{Cl}}_3$)
4. Formyl cation ($\stackrel{\oplus }{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{HO}$)

An unknown alcohol is treated with the “Lucas reagent” to determine whether the alcohol is primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts the fastest and by what mechanism:
1. secondary alcohol by S_N²
2. tertiary alcohol by S_N²
3. secondary alcohol by S_N¹
4. tertiary alcohol by S_N¹

Phenyl ethyl ether with concentrated hydrobromic acid on boiling yields:-
1. Phenol and ethyl bromide
2. Bromobenzene and ethanol
3. Phenol and ethane
4. Bromobenzene and ethane

The compound that does not react with sodium is-
1. CH₃CHOHCH₃
2. CH₃ —O—CH₃
3. CH₃COOH
4. C₂H₅OH

The correct order of reactivity of PhMgBr with,
 
$O O O$
$\left|\right| \left|\right| \left|\right|$
$PH—C—PH C{H}_3—C—H C{H}_3—C—C{H}_3 is:$
$\left(l\right) \left(ll\right) \left(lll\right)$
(1) I>II>III
(2) III>II>I
(3) II>III>I
(4) II>I>III

A distinctive and characteristic functional group in a fat is :

On treatment with alcoholic KOH followed by acidification, \(\alpha \)-chloropropionic acid gives:
1. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\mathrm{CH}\left(\mathrm{OH}\right)-\mathrm{COOH}$
2. ${\mathrm{CH}}_2=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{COOH}$
3. $\mathrm{HO}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2-{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{COOH}$
4. None of the above

Wacker method is used to convert alkene into corresponding ......... using PdCl₂.
(1) alcohol
(2) ketone
(3) aldehyde
(4) acid

Which compound produces Zwitter ions?
1. CH₃COOH
2. Salicylic acid
3. Phthalic acid
4. Sulphanilic acid

The IUPAC name of is:  
1. 6-Oxohexanoic acid
2. Hexan-1-al-6-oic acid
3. 1-Aldo-hexanoic acid
4. 6-Aldo-hexan-1-oic acid

When ${\mathrm{CH}}_2=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{COOH}$ is reduced by LiAlH₄, the compound obtained is :
(1) CH₃CH₂COOH
(2) CH₂=CHCH₂OH
(3) CH₃CH₂CH₂OH
(4) CH₃CH₂CHO

The major products(s) of following reaction is (are):
 
 $\stackrel{\mathrm{aqueous} \backslash {\mathrm{Br}}_2(3.0 \mathrm{equivalents})}{\to } ?$

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

A compound A, when reacted with PCl₅ and then with ammonia, gave B. B, when treated with bromine and caustic potash, produced C. C on treatment with NaNO₂ and HCl at $0°$C and on boiling produced ortho-cresol. Compound A is:

AgNO₃(aq) gives yellow ppt. with:
(1) KIO₃ (aq)                       
(2) KI (aq)
(3) CHI₃                               
(4) CH₂I₂

Which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating ?

In the given reaction

the product P is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

Consider the reaction 
CH₃CH₂CH₂Br + NaCN $\to$CH₃CH₂CH₂CN + NaBr
This reaction will be the fastest in
1. ethanol
2. methanol
3. N,N'-dimethylformamide (DMF)
4. water

The reaction 

can be classified as
1. Alcohol formation reaction
2. Dehydration reaction
3. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
4. Williamson ether synthesis reaction

The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is 
1. Ketone
2. Carboxylic acid
3. Aromatic acid
4. Schiff base

A single compound of the structure  is obtained from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds?
1. 
2.  
3.
4. 

An ester that gets hydrolyzed most easily under alkaline conditions is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

Reaction of phenol with chloroform in the presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally
introduces, which one of the following functional group?
1. -CH₂Cl                       
2. -COOH
3. -CHCl₂                       
4. -CHO

Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
 

Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole ?
1. CH₃CHO; RMgX
2. C₆H₅OH; NaOH; CH₃l
3. C₆H₅OH; neutral FeCl₃
4. C₆H₅-CH₃; CH₃COCl; AlCl₃

H₂COH.CH₂OH on heating with periodic acid gives :-
1. 2CO₂       
2. 2HCOOH       
3. CHO-CHO     
4.         
                                    

In S_N2 substitution reaction of the type
$R - \mathrm{Br} + {\mathrm{Cl}}^{-} \stackrel{\mathrm{DMF}}{\to }R - \mathrm{Cl} + {\mathrm{Br}}^{-},$
Which one of the following has the highest relative rate ?
(1) ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-{\mathrm{CH}}_2-{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{Br}$
(2) ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\underset{\underset{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{|}}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{Br}$
(3) ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\underset{\underset{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{|}}{\overset{\underset{|}{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}}{\mathrm{C}}}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{Br}$
(4) ${\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{Br}$

The reaction:
${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\stackrel{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{\stackrel{|}{\mathrm{CH}}}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2-\mathrm{O}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2-{\mathrm{CH}}_3 + \mathrm{HI} \stackrel{\mathrm{heated}}{\to }?$
Which of the following compounds will be formed?
(1) ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\stackrel{\stackrel{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{|}}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2-\mathrm{I}+{\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{OH}$
(2) ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\underset{\underset{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{|}}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}-{\mathrm{CH}}_3+{\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{OH}$
(3) ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\underset{\underset{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{|}}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{OH}+{\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_3$
(4) ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\stackrel{\stackrel{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{|}}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{OH}+{\mathrm{CH}}_3-{\mathrm{CH}}_2-\mathrm{I}$
 

Consider the following compounds :

The Correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is : 
(1) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
(2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(4) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

The major organic product in the reaction, CH₃ — O — CH(CH₃)₂ + HI $\to$ Product is :
(1) CH₃OH+(CH₃)₂CHI
(2) ICH₃OCH(CH₃)₂
(3) CH₃O CI(CH₃)₂
(4) CH₃I+(CH₃)₂CHOH

Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields :
(1) secondary alcohol
(2) tertiary alcohol
(3) cyclopropyl alcohol
(4) primary alcohol

A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an electric field produced by a point charge placed at P as shown in figure. Let $V_A$,$V_B$,$V_C$ be the potential at points A, B and C respectively. Then:

1. $V_C$>$V_B$
2. $V_B$>$V_C$
3. $V_A$>$V_B$
4. $V_A$=$V_C$

The concentric spheres are of radii $r_1$ and $r_2$. The outer sphere is given a charge q. The charge q' on the inner sphere will be (inner sphere is grounded)

1.  q
2.  -q
3.  -q$\frac{r_1}{r_2}$
4. Zero

In a uniform electric field, the potential is 10V at the origin of coordinates, and 8V at each of the points (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0) and (0, 0, 1). The potential at the point (1, 1, 1) will be
1. 0
2. 4V
3. 8V
4. 10V

In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the centre. Identical charges are placed at (n-1) corners. At the centre, the intensity is E and the potential is V. The ratio V/E has magnitude
1.  rn
2.  r(n-1)
3.  (n-1)/r
4.  r(n-1)/n

There are four concentric shells A, B, C and D of radii a, 2a, 3a, and 4a respectively. Shells B and D are given charges +q and -q respectively. Shell C is now earthed. The potential difference $V_A-V_C$ is:
1. $\frac{\mathrm{Kq}}{2\mathrm{a}}$
2. $\frac{\mathrm{Kq}}{3\mathrm{a}}$
3. $\frac{\mathrm{Kq}}{4\mathrm{a}}$ 
4. $\frac{\mathrm{Kq}}{6\mathrm{a}}$

A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected alternately. If the capacitance between any two plates is C, then the resulting capacitance is:
1. C
2. nC
3. (n-1)C
4. (n+1)C 

A metal ball of radius R is placed concentrically inside a hollow metal sphere of inner radius 2R and outer radius 3R. The ball is given a charge +2Q and the hollow sphere a total charge -Q. The electrostatic potential energy of this system is:

1. $\frac{7Q^2}{24\pi {\epsilon }_{0}R}$ 
2. $\frac{5Q^2}{16\pi {\epsilon }_{0}R}$
3. $\frac{5Q^2}{8\pi {\epsilon }_{0}R}$
4. None

A proton is first placed at A and then at B between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor charged to a P.D. of V volt as shown. Then force on proton at A is-

1. More than at B
2. Less than at B
3. Equal to that at B
4. Nothing can be said

A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting cylinder of larger radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral.
1. A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the inner cylinder.
2. A potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the outer cylinder.
3. No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a uniform line charge is kept along the axis of the cylinders
4. No potential difference appears between the two cylinders when same charge density is given to both the cylinders.

The electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be:
1.  $\mathrm{k}\frac{{\displaystyle \overrightarrow{\mathrm{p}}}.{\displaystyle \overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}}}{{\mathrm{r}}^3}$
2.  $\mathrm{k}\frac{{\displaystyle \overrightarrow{\mathrm{p}}}.{\displaystyle \overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}}}{{\mathrm{r}}^2}$
3.  $\frac{k\left({\displaystyle \overrightarrow{p}}\times {\displaystyle \overrightarrow{r}}\right)}{r}$
4.  $\frac{k\left({\displaystyle \overrightarrow{p}}\times {\displaystyle \overrightarrow{r}}\right)}{r^2}$

Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal resistance 2Ω and the other of emf 12 volt and internal resistance 1Ω, are connected as shown. The voltmeter V will record a reading of.
                 
1.  18 volt
2.  30 volt
3.  14 volt
4.  15 volt

An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to :
1.  $\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{B}}}$
2.  $\frac{\mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{B}}$
3.  $\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{v}}$
4.  $\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{v}}}$

A 5-ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is :
1.  5 ohm
2.  0.04 ohm
3.  0.2 ohm
4.  0.4 ohm

A very long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant when a charge +Q at point P has velocity $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}$, as shown, the force on the charge is-
                               
1.  Along ox
2.  Opposite to oy
3.  Along oy
4.  Opposite to ox

When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length l and resistance R is bent into a complete circle, resistance between any two of diametrically opposite points will be -
1.  R/2
2.  R/4
3.  R/8
4.  4R

A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$ is in plane of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque $\mathrm{\tau }$ acts on it, the side l of the triangle is-
1. $\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{\tau }}{\mathrm{Bi}}\right)$
2.  $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\frac{\mathrm{\tau }}{\mathrm{Bi}}$
3.  $2{\left(\frac{\mathrm{\tau }}{\sqrt{3}\mathrm{Bi}}\right)}^{\frac{1}{2}}$
4.  $\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}{\left(\frac{\mathrm{\tau }}{\mathrm{Bi}}\right)}^{\frac{1}{2}}$

For the network shown in the figure the value of the current, I (in Ampere) is:
                         
1.  $\frac{18\mathrm{v}}{5}$
2. $\frac{5\mathrm{v}}{9}$
3.  $\frac{9\mathrm{v}}{35}$
4.  $\frac{5\mathrm{v}}{18}$

Choose the only false statement from the following-
1.  The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature
2.  Substances with energy gap of the order of 10eV are insulators. 
3.  In conductors the valence and conduction bands may over lap
4.  The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increases in temperature.

A beam of alpha particles passes without deflection through crossed electric and magnetic field with $\mathrm{E}=6.6\times {10}^6$ Newton per Coulomb and $\mathrm{B} = 1.2 \frac{\mathrm{newton}}{\mathrm{amp}-\mathrm{metre}}$. Their speed in metre per sec is
1. $1.8\times {10}^5$
2. $5.5\times {10}^6$
3. $7.8\times {10}^6$
4. $1.1\times {10}^6$

In the shown part of circuit potentials of points A, B and C and capacitance of capacitors are shown. Potential of point P is -
                   
1.  ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{P}}=\frac{5}{6}\mathrm{CV}$
2.  ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{P}}=\frac{7}{6}\mathrm{CV}$
3.  ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{P}}=\frac{5}{3}\mathrm{CV}$
4.  ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{P}}=\frac{7}{3}\mathrm{CV}$

In the shown arrangement capacitance of each capacitor is C and emf of the cell is $\mathrm{\epsilon }$. If switch S is closed, then amount of charge flown through the switch is
               
1.  $\frac{3}{5}\mathrm{C\epsilon }$
2.  $\frac{7}{5}\mathrm{C\epsilon }$
3.  $\frac{2}{5}\mathrm{C\epsilon }$
4.  $\mathrm{C\epsilon }$

Voltage drop across the terminals of a cell of EMF 2V is 1V when 2 A current is drawn from it. Internal resistance of the cell is?
1.  $2\mathrm{\Omega }$
2.  $1\mathrm{\Omega }$
3.  $0.5\mathrm{\Omega }$
4.  $0.25\mathrm{\Omega }$

Ohm's law is true for which of the following?
1. Semiconductors only
2. Metallic conductors only
3. For all the conductors
4. For superconductors only

Maximum voltage which can be applied across a $162\mathrm{\Omega }-0.5\mathrm{W}$ resistor is
1.  81 volt
2.  16.2 volt
3.  9 volt
4.  40.5 volt

Two charged particles having charges q and mass m are moving on circular paths in same uniform magnetic field with speed v and 2v. Ratio of their angular velocities are
1.  $\frac{1}{2}$
2.  $\frac{2}{1}$
3.  $\frac{1}{4}$
4.  $1$

When current flows in steady state in the wire whose area of cross-section decreases as shown. Which of the following is incorrect?
               
1.  Drift speed increases in the direction of current.
2.  Electric field decreases in the direction of current.
3.  Electric Potential decreases in the direction of current.
4.  Current density increases in the direction of current.

For what value of the resistance X, the reading of ammeter will be zero?
                       
1.  $4 \mathrm{\Omega }$
2. $0.5 \mathrm{\Omega }$
3.  $8 \mathrm{\Omega }$
4.  $12 \mathrm{\Omega }$

What is the ratio of the readings of the voltmeter, V₁ and V₂ in the network shown below?

1.  1 : 2
2.  2 : 3
3.  3 : 1
4.  1 : 1

A wire of length l and carrying current i is folded to form double circular loop. The magnetic field at the centre is
1.  $\frac{2{\mathrm{\mu }}_0\mathrm{i}}{\mathrm{l}}$
2.  $\frac{4{\mathrm{\pi \mu }}_0\mathrm{i}}{\mathrm{l}}$
3.  $\frac{{\mathrm{\mu }}_0\mathrm{i}}{2\mathrm{\pi l}}$
4.  $\frac{{\mathrm{\mu }}_0\mathrm{i}}{\mathrm{\pi l}}$

A proton and an $\mathrm{\alpha }$-particle enter with same momentum in a transverse uniform magnetic field. The ratio of the radii of curvature of their circular path will be
1.  1 : 2
2.  2 : 1
3.  3 : 2
4.  1 : 1

A small circular flexible loop of wire of radius r carries a current I. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B. The tension in the loop will be doubled if:-
1.  B is doubled.
2.  I is halved.
3.  r is halved.
4.  Both B and r are doubled.

The magnitude of magnetic moment of the current loop shown in the figure is :-
                       
1.  ${\mathrm{Il}}^2$
2.  $\sqrt{2}{\mathrm{Il}}^2$
3.  Zero
4.  None of these

Two concentric, thin metallic spheres of radii ${\mathrm{R}}_1$ and ${\mathrm{R}}_2 \left({\mathrm{R}}_1>{\mathrm{R}}_2\right)$ bear changes ${\mathrm{Q}}_1$ and ${\mathrm{Q}}_2$ respectively. Then the potential at distance r between ${\mathrm{R}}_1$ and ${\mathrm{R}}_2$ will be $\left(\mathrm{k}=\frac{1}{4{\mathrm{\pi \epsilon }}_0}\right)$
1.  $\mathrm{k}\left(\frac{{\mathrm{Q}}_1+{\mathrm{Q}}_2}{\mathrm{r}}\right)$
2.  $\mathrm{k}\left(\frac{{\mathrm{Q}}_1}{\mathrm{r}}+\frac{{\mathrm{Q}}_2}{{\mathrm{R}}_2}\right)$
3.  $\mathrm{k}\left(\frac{{\mathrm{Q}}_2}{\mathrm{r}}+\frac{{\mathrm{Q}}_1}{{\mathrm{R}}_1}\right)$
4.  $\mathrm{k}\left(\frac{{\mathrm{Q}}_1}{{\mathrm{R}}_1}+\frac{{\mathrm{Q}}_1}{{\mathrm{R}}_2}\right)\mathrm{s}$

Find equivalent capacitance between X and Y if each capacitor is $4 \mathrm{\mu F}$.
     
1.  $4 \mathrm{\mu F}$
2.  $8 \mathrm{\mu F}$
3.  $2 \mathrm{\mu F}$
4.  $1 \mathrm{\mu F}$

Maximum charge stored on a metal sphere of radius \(15\) cm may be \(7.5~\mu\text{C}\)$$. The potential energy of the sphere in this case is:
1. \(9.67\) J
2. \(0.25\) J
3. \(3.25\) J
4. \(1.69\) J

 Resistance of a material at temperature $\mathrm{t}°\mathrm{C} \mathrm{is} \mathrm{R}={\mathrm{R}}_0\left(1+\mathrm{at}+{\mathrm{bt}}^2\right)$. Here ${\mathrm{R}}_0$ is the temperature at $0°\mathrm{C}$. The temperature coefficient of resistance at temperature t is -
1.  $\frac{\mathrm{a}+2\mathrm{bt}}{1+\mathrm{at}+{\mathrm{bt}}^2}$
2.  $\left(\mathrm{a}+2\mathrm{bt}\right)$
3.  $\frac{1+\mathrm{at}+{\mathrm{bt}}^2}{\mathrm{a}+2\mathrm{bt}}$
4.  constant

Three voltmeters A, B  and C having resistance R, 1.5 R and 3R, respectively, are connected as shown. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}, {\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}$ and ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{C}}$ respectively. Then -
   
1.  ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\ne {\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}={\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{C}}$
2.  ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}={\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\ne {\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{C}}$
3.  ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\ne {\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\ne {\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{C}}$
4.  ${\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}={\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}={\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{C}}$

An electric bulb rated for 500W at 100V is used in a circuit having a 200V supply. The resistance R that must be put in series with the bulb, so that the bulb draws 500W is -
1.  $60 \mathrm{\Omega }$
2.  $50 \mathrm{\Omega }$
3.  $20 \mathrm{\Omega }$
4.  $10 \mathrm{\Omega }$

The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf E is balanced at a length l/3 from the positive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is increased by l/2. At what distance will be the same cell give a balance point.
1.  2l/3
2.  l/2
3.  l/6
4.  4l/3

A magnet of moment M is lying in a magnetic field of induction B. ${\mathrm{W}}_1$ is the work done in turning it from $0°$ to $60°$ and ${\mathrm{W}}_2$ is the work done in turning it from $30°$ to $90°$. Then -
1.  ${\mathrm{W}}_2={\mathrm{W}}_1$
2.  ${\mathrm{W}}_2={\mathrm{W}}_1/2$
3.  ${\mathrm{W}}_2=2{\mathrm{W}}_1$
4.  ${\mathrm{W}}_2=\sqrt{3}{\mathrm{W}}_1$

A straight conductor of mass m and carrying a current i is hinged at one end and placed in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic field of intensity B as shown in the figure. At any moment if the conductor is let free, then the initial angular acceleration of the conductor will be (neglect gravity):-

1. $\frac{2iB}{3m}$
2. $\frac{3iB}{2m}$
3. $\frac{iB}{2m}$
4. $\frac{3i}{2mB}$

Adjoining figure shows a rectangular loop of conductor carrying a current i. The length and breadth of the loop are respectively a and b. The magnetic field at the centre of loop is:-

1. $\frac{{\mu }_{0}i(a+b)}{2\pi \sqrt{a^2+b^2}}$
2. $\frac{{\mu }_{0}iab}{2\pi \sqrt{a^2+b^2}}$
3. $\frac{{\mu }_{0}i(a+b)}{\pi \sqrt{a^2+b^2}}$
4. $\frac{2{\mu }_{0}i\sqrt{a^2+b^2}}{\pi ab}$

As shown in the figure, P and Q are two coaxial conducting loops seperated by some distance. When the switch S is closed, a clockwise current $l_P$ flows in P (as seen by E) and an induces current $l_{Q_1}$ flows in Q. The switch remains closed for a long time. Now S is opened, a current $l_{Q_2}$ flows in Q. Then the directions of $l_{Q_1}$ and $l_{Q_2}$ (as seen by E) are:-
                                               
1. Respectively clockwise and anticlockwise.
2. Both clockwise
3. Both anticlockwise
4. Respectively anticlockwise and clockwise.

A particle with charge Q, moving with a momentum p, enters a unifrom magnetic field normally. The magnetic fied has magnitude B and is confined to a region of width d, where $\mathrm{d}<\frac{\mathrm{p}}{\mathrm{BQ}}$. The particle is deflected by an angle $\mathrm{\theta }$ in crossing field. Then :

1. $\sin \theta =\frac{BQd}{p}$
2. $\sin \theta =\frac{p}{BQd}$
3. $\sin \theta =\frac{Bp}{Qd}$
4. $\sin \theta =\frac{pd}{BQ}$

Five parallel infinite wires are placed at the vertices of a regular pentagon. Four wires carry current ${\mathrm{I}}_0$ each while the fifth wire carries current 3${\mathrm{I}}_0$ as shown. The resultant magnetic field at the centre O is :

1. zero
2. $\frac{{\mathrm{\mu }}_0{\mathrm{I}}_0}{2\mathrm{\pi a}}$
3. $\frac{{\mathrm{\mu }}_0{\mathrm{I}}_0}{\mathrm{\pi a}}$
4. Infinite