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The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. This is necessary as:

Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by:
1. Spermatogonia
2. Primary spermatocytes
3. Sertoli cells
4. Both 1 and 3

Leydig cells:
1. Are present in seminiferous tubules and secrete androgens
2. Are present in seminiferous tubules and help in maturation of sperms
3. Are present in interstitial space and secrete androgens
4. Are present in interstitial space and help in maturation of sperms

Seminal plasma is rich in:
1. Sucrose, calcium and certain enzyme
2. Glucose, sodium and certain enzymes
3. Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
4. Fructose, sodium and certain enzymes

Ovaries are the primary sex organs in human females because they:

1. Both I and II
2. Only I
3. Only II
4. None

Each Ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and the uterus by:
1. Peritoneum
2. Adipose tissue
3. Ligaments
4. Areolar tissue

Consider the following two statements:
I. The hymen is often torn during the first coitus.
II. The presence or absence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity.
Of the two statements:
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct and II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

The correct sequence of mammalian mammary gland ducts beginning from alveoli would he:

The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called:
1. Spermiation
2. Spermatocytogenesis
3. Spermiogenesis
4. Spermatolysis

The final release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called:
1. Spermiation
2. Emission
3. Retrograde ejaculation
4. Ejaculation

FSH:
1. Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
2. Acts on Sertoli cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
3. Acts on Leydig cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
4. Acts on Leydig cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis

For normal fertility what percent of the sperm in ejaculation must exhibit vigorous motility?
1. 20
2. 30
3. 40
4. 60

The function of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by:
1. Hypothalamic releasing hormone
2. Pitutary gonadotropins
3. Adrenal cortex steroids
4. Testicular androgens

The division of primary oocyte results in:
1. unequal cells a smaller haploid secondary oocyte and a larger diploid polar body
2. unequal cells a larger haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller haploid polar body
3. unequal cells a smaller diploid secondary oocyte and a larger haploid polar body
4. equal cells - a haploid secondary oocyte and a haploid polar body

The correct sequence of the various phases of a typical menstrual cycle is:
1. Menstrual → Follicular → secretory → Ovulatory
2. Menstrual → Follicular → Ovulatory → secretory
3. Ovulatory → Follicular → secretory → Menstrual
4. Menstrual → secretory → Follicular → Ovulatory

LH surge:

During pregnancy:
1. All events of menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation
2. Events of menstrual cycle continue but there is no menstruation
3. Events of menstrual cycle contInue but there is menstruation only in the first trimester
4. All events of menstrual cycle stop and there is menstruation only in the first trimester

What does RCH stand for?
1. Reproductive and Complete Health
2. Regional and Central Healthcare
3. Reproductive and Child Healthcare
4. Reproductive and Cumulative Health

Statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was necessary because:
1. It is a very expensive
2. It can tell about chromosomal aberrations
3. It is an invasive procedure and carries high risk of abortions
4. It can be used for pre-natal sex determination to be fetus leading to female feticides

Sperm has several components out of which the function of the acrosome is to:

Which of the following is the least effective method of birth control?
1. vasectomy
2. rhythm method
3. the pill
4. IUD

The drug RU-486 is taken after sexual intercourse. It blocks implantation, and in this sense it prevents pregnancy_.
1. like spermicidal foam
2. in a manner similar to tubal ligation
3. like the familiar birth control pill used for the last 30 years
4 by blocking progesterone receptors in the uterus, thus preventing progesterone from maintaining pregnancy

Birth control pills contain synthetic estrogen and progesterone. How might these hormones prevent pregnancy?
1. They cause the corpus luteum to degenerate.
2. They keep the pituitary from secreting FSH and LH, so ovulation does not occur.
3. They cause the lining of the uterus to be sloughed off.
4 They trigger premature ovulation, before an egg is mature.

Which is a true statement about luteinizing hormone in the female reproductive system?

At what point does the secondary oocyte complete meiosis?
1. when acrosomal enzymes begin to break down the egg's jelly coat
2. when the luteinizing hormone triggers ovulation
3 after it is penetrated by a sperm cell
4. when the secondary oocyte implants in the endometrium of the uterus

How do ovulated oocytes get into the uterus?

Which of these structures contributes the greatest percentage to semen ?
1. Bulbourethral glands
2. Prostate
3. Seminal vesicles
4. Testes

Vasectomies:
1. Inhibit testosterone production
2. Prevent sperm from entering the semen
3. Inhibit spem production
4. Interfere with male potency

Mature sperms in humans are stored in:

Menstruation is triggered by an abrupt decline in the amount of:
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. LH
4. FSH

Consider the two surgical procedures given below and choose the correct statement:
 

What structure gets implanted on the wall of the uterus during embryonic development?

1.		2.
3.		4.

In the given diagram, identify A,B,C and D respectively
 
1. LH, FSH, Progesterone and Estrogen
2. FSH, LH, Estrogen and Progesterone
3. Estrogen, Progesterone, LH and FSH
4. Progesterone, Estrogen, FSH and LH

In the given diagram, the part of the female reproductive system that undergoes cylical changes with changes in the secretion of gondadotropins and gonadal steroids during the menstrual cycle is represented by :

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Which of the structures shown in the following diagram contributes to the source of nutrition for the sperms ejaculated in the semen?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Consider the following statements :

Which of the above statements are true?

Consider the following statements :
I. Asexual reproduction preserves the genetic information while sexual reproduction permits variations.
II. Traditional hybridisation often leads to inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes.
III. rDNA technology allows us to isolate and introduce only one or set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes in the target organism
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I,II and III

Consider the following statements :
I. The uterine endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle
II. Estrogen secreted during the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle helps in the development of follicle
III. hCG secreted by trophoblast cells helps in the maintaining corpus luteum.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I,II and III

Consider the following statements :
I. The primary follicles present at birth carry primary oocytes arrested at meiosis I
II. The secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II is released at ovulation
III. The second meiotic division is completed by the secondary oocyte just prior to the entry of the sperm into it.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I,II and III

Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below:

Codes :

Match the column with respect to pollen grain:

Tapetum is:

Which of the following points is incorrect about sporopollenin?

Which of the following statement is not associated with phenomenon of flowering?
(1) Decision for flowering takes place much before actual flower appears.
(2) During flowering several structural and hormonal changes takes place
(3) During flowering differentiation takes place
(4) Flowering is independent of environmental factors

A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca i.e. dithecous. Theca is separated often by:

Following are four statements how many of them are correct?
a. The anther is a tetragonal structure, with four microsporangia at corners, two in each lobe.
b. Microsporangia develops further and becomes pollen sacs.
c. A typical microsporangia is surrounded by four-layered wall, 3-protective and 1 nutritional.
d. The nutritive layer is densely cytoplasmic and with more than one nucleus
Options :
1. 3                        2. 4
3. 2                        4. 1

When anther is young a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells are present in centre it is known as

Which of the following structure is not associated with protection and dehiscence of anther?

1. Tapetum                     2. Epidermis
2. Endothecium               4. Middle layer

Which of the following statement is not correct for pollen grain?

In which of the following plant there will be no seed set even after pollination?

Third integument which is edible is present in:

1. Castor                             2. Litchi
2. Mango                             4. Apple

Look at the diagram given below and answer appropriately

(i) Since ___A___ is associated with fruit, it is called as ___(i)___ .
(ii) Since ___B___ is present, fruit cannot be called as ___(ii)___ .
1. A - Pericarp, (i) - True fruits
2. B - Seed, (ii) - Ex-albuminous
3. A - Thalamus, (i) - True fruit
4. B - Seed, (ii) - Parthenocarpic

 A typical anther shows
a. Two lobes with two theca each
b. Each lobe as dithecous
c. All cells in a given microsporangium as potential PMC
d. Thousands of microspores per microsporangium
Out of these statements :
1. b is incorrect
2. a and b are correct
3. c and d are incorrect
4. a, b, c and d are correct

Find correct match

Arrange the following stages of microspore development into pollen grain, in the correct sequence
     
1. b, c, d, and a 
2. b, d, a and c
3. a, c, b and d 
4. b, a, d and c

How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 480 seeds?
1.  479
2.  600
3.  70
4.  650

Identify the statements that are true for anemophilous flowers
     a.  Pollen grains are light and non-sticky.
     b.  They possess well exposed stamens.
     c.  They have large coloured flowers.
     d.  They have single ovule in each ovary.
     e.  Flowers produce nectar and scent.
1.  a, b and e
2.  a, b and d
3.  b, c and e
4.  c, d and e

Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers, are produced by
1. Pea and Zostera.
2.  Bean and Vallisneria.
3. Maize and bamboo.
4.  Oxalis and Commelina.

Choose the incorrect statement with respect to pollen grain
1. Exine of the pollen grain has prominent apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is absent.
2. Inner wall of the pollen grain is called intine.
3. Pollen grains are generally spherical in shape.
4. In 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen is shed at three-called stage.

Choose the correct statements
a. Perisperm is the persistant nucellus in the seeds of black pepper.
b. Single large cotyledon in grass is situated towards lateral side of the embryonal axis.
c. Seeds are the basis of agriculture.
d. Citrus has only one embryo in a seed.
1. Only a
2. Only a & b
3. Only a, b & c
4. a, b, c & d

From the statements given below choose the option that are not true for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant:
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
(ii) It is cellular during the development
(iii) It is situated inside the nucellus
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
1. i and iv
2. ii and iii
3. i and ii
4. ii and iv

The mature seeds of plants such as gram and peas, posses no endosperm, because
1. These plants are not angiosperms
2. There is no double fertilization in them
3. Endosperm is not formed in them
4. Endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development

Match the following and choose correct option
          Group A                        Group B
A. Aleurone layer               i. without fertilization
B. Parthenocarpic fruit       ii. Nutrition fruit
C. Ovule                           iii. Double fertilization
D. Endosperm                   iv. Seed
1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
2. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
3. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
4. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

Following are four statements find out correct statements
(i) Microsporangia has four layers, outer three are protective and inner one is nutritive
(ii) Each cell of sporogenous tissue within micorsporangia is capable of giving raise to a microspore tetrad.
(iii) Dehydration of anther is important for seperation of pollen grains in a tetrad.
(iv) Generative cell in pollen grain is small with respect to vegetative cell and it floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
Options
1. All are correct
2. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) is correct
3. Except (ii) all are correct
4. Expect (iii) all are correct.

Assertion: Continuous and close inbreeding among milker animals is discouraged by animal breeders.
Reason: Continuous and close inbreeding leads to inbreeding depression.

Heterothallism in algae and fungi corresponds to occurrence of both male and female sex organs
(1) On the same individual
(2) On separate individual that look similar
(3) On separate individual that look dissimilar
(4) both (b) and (c)

Mark the incorrect statement
(1) Lifespan of banyan tree is 200 - 300 years.
(2) Some jellyfish can escape ageing by recycling themselves by ageing backwards.
(3) The angiosperms are the longest living plants.
(4) Lifespan of tortoise is 100 - 150 years.

Cyclic changes in the functioning of ovaries are seen in
(1) all females
(2) all mammalian females
(3) all marsupial mammals
(4) all placental mammals

Overproduction of progeny in nature ensures
(1) more production of resources
(2) better usage of resources
(3) survival of the fittest
(4) none of these

The changes from juvenile to reproductive phase is associated with
(1) environmental factors
(2) hormonal changes
(3) morphological changes
(4) all of these

The maximum number of chromosomes are found in the plant
(1) potato
(2) Ophioglossum
(3) rice
(4) maize

The type of division that the zygote undergoes to form embryo is 
(1) mitotic in diplontic life cycle
(2) meiotic in haplontic life cycle
(3) always mitotic
(4) always meiotic

The pericarp is derived from
(1) carpellary tissues
(2) stigmatic tissues
(3) ovary wall
(4) all of these

Only females are found in the populations of 
(1) rotifers
(2) honey bees
(3) Lacerta
(4) wasps

In which organism the transition from juvenile to adult phase is abrupt and drastic?
(1) Butterfly
(2) Cat
(3) Rose
(4) Pigeon

Type of ovule present in Butomus is 
(1) orthotropous
(2) circinotropous
(3) amphitropous
(4) campylotropous

Which part of pollen grain is bigger and has abundant food reserve?
(1) Intine
(2) Exine
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell

'Gynoecium' in 'Michelia' is 
(1) monocarpellary
(2) bicarpellary
(3) tetracarpellary
(4) multicarpellary

Ategmic ovule is found in
(1) Santalum
(2) Loranthus
(3) Pithecellobium
(4) Both (a) and (b)

Mesogamy is observed in
(1) Populus
(2) Casuarina
(3) Cucurbita
(4) Both (a) and (c)

Turn pipe mechanism of pollination is observed in 
(1) Aristolochia
(2) Ficus
(3) Salvia
(4) Yucca

The white kernel in coconut is 
(1) free nuclear endosperm
(2) cellular endosperm
(3) both (a) and (b)
(4) none of these

In which of the following plant does the embryo completely consumes the endosperms?
(1) Bean, castor, groundnut
(2) Pea, groundnut, castor
(3) Pea, castor, bean
(4) Pea, bean, groundnut

In angiosperm, functional megaspore develops into 
(1) ovule
(2) pollen sac
(3) ovary
(4) embryo sac

What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixis?
(1) Both bypass the flowering phase
(2) Both produce progeny identical to parent
(3) Both occur only in dicots
(4) None of these

Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of young cob of maize are
(1) anthers
(2) styles
(3) hairs
(4) ovary

Protandry and protogyny are respectively observed in
(1) Salvia, Gloriosa
(2) Plantago, Sunflower
(3) Mirabilis, Sunflower
(4) Mirabilis, Plantago

Ubisch bodies are present in 
(1) pollen tube
(2) pollen grain
(3) microspore
(4) tapetum

The ovule curvature is more pronounced and  embryo sac becomes horse shoe shaped in which type of ovule?
(1) amphitropous
(2) anatropous
(3) orthotropous
(4) campylotropous

Pollen grains are long ribbon-like and without exine in
(1) Ceratophyllum
(2) Zostera
(3) Hydrilla
(4) none of these

Which one of the following is not paramagnetic ?
1. NO
2. ${\mathrm{N}}_2^{+}$
3. CO
4. ${\mathrm{O}}_2^{-}$

Which of the following has  $\mathrm{p\pi } -\mathrm{d\pi }$ bonding?
1. ${\mathrm{NO}}_3^{-}$
2. ${\mathrm{SO}}_3^{2-}$
3. ${\mathrm{BO}}_3^{3-}$
4.${\mathrm{CO}}_3^{2-}$

PCl₅ is highly unstable and in a solid-state, it exists as into  [PCl₄]⁺ and [PCl₆]^- ions.
The geometry of [PCl₆]^- is   
1. Octahedral
2. Tetrahedral
3. Square pyramidal
4. Square planar

What is the correct order of increasing acidic strength among (I) p-methoxyphenol, (II) p-methylphenol, and (III) p-nitrophenol?
1. III < I < II           
2. II < I < III             
3. III < II < I             
4. I < II < III

When ${\mathrm{CaC}}_2$ was hydrolysed a gas was obtained. It had a garlic odour due to phosgene present as impurity. The gas was passed through ammoniacal solution of ${\mathrm{Cu}}_2{\mathrm{Cl}}_2$, a red ppt. was obtained. The gas was:
1. ethylene                                       
2. propyne
3. acetylene                                     
4. ethane

Species in which central atom is sp² hybridised
1. (CH₃)₃N
2. (SiH₃)₃N
3. (SiO₂)_n
4 :NH₃

The number of sigma bonds in P₄O₁₀ is 
1. 6
2. 16
3. 20
4. 7

Mark the incorrect order of the bond angle:
1. NH₃ > NF₃
2. NF₃ <  PF₃
3. NH₃ > PH₃
4. NH₃ > H₂O

Which has highest bond energy ?
1. CO
2. CO⁺
3. N₂
4. ${\mathrm{N}}_2^{+}$

Which of the following is the most stable carbocation
 

1.
2.
3.
4.

1.    
2.  
3.
4. ${\mathrm{CH}}_2=\stackrel{\oplus }{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H }$
 

$\stackrel{1\mathrm{eq}.\mathrm{NBS}}{\to }$ X$\stackrel{{\mathrm{PhO}}^{-}}{\to }$Y (major product)   
The product Y is -

 

1.		2.
3.		4.

In the following compounds,

The order of basicity is
1. IV>I>III>II
2. III>I>IV>II
3. II>I>III>IV
4. I>III>II>IV

Hybridisation of N in pyrrole  is
1. sp                               
2. sp²
3. sp³                             
4. sp³d

What is the correct stability order for the following species?

I.
II.
III.
IV.

Which of the following leads to bonding orbital?

1.		2.
3.		4.

Which of the following has a three-dimensional network structure?
1. SiO₂
2. (BN)_y
3. P₄(white)
4. 1 and 2 both

The configuration of given tartaric acid is
 
1. 2R, 3R         2. 2R, 3S
3. 2S, 3S         4. 2S, 3R

Correct IUPAC name of the compound  is
(1) 2-Ethyl-3-methylbut-2-ene-1,4-dioic anhydride
(2) 3-Ethyl_2-methylbut-2-enedioic anhydride
(3) 2-Ethyl-3-Methyl-1,4-diketobut-2-enoic anhydride
(4) 2-Ethyl-3-methylcyclopenatanoxy-1,4-dione

In the following series of reactions the major products P and S are respectively.
$\stackrel{{\mathrm{Br}}_2/\mathrm{hv}}{\to }\left(P\right)\stackrel{tBu{O}^{⊝}}{\to }\left(Q\right)\underset{\underset{}{\left(ii\right)Th{O}_2,∆/\left(iii\right)alc.KOH}}{\overset{\left(i\right)HOBr/H^{+}}{\to }}\left(R\right)\underset{\underset{}{\left(ii\right)Th{O}_2,∆/\left(iii\right)alc.KOH\mathit{,}\mathit{∆}}}{\overset{\left(i\right)HOBr/H^{+}}{\to }}\left(S\right)$
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

In the given reaction, $\stackrel{{\mathrm{B}}_2{\mathrm{H}}_6,\mathrm{THF}}{\to }\stackrel{H_2{O}_2,NaOH}{\to }\stackrel{TSCl}{\to }\stackrel{t-Bu{O}^{-}{K}^{+}}{\to }\left(Y\right)$
 
The product 'Y' is
(1) A positional isomer of X
(2) Identical to X
(3) Chain isomer of X
(4) An oxidation product of X.

$\begin{array}{ccccc}{\mathrm{CH}}_3& -& \stackrel{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{\underset{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{\stackrel{|}{\underset{|}{\mathrm{CH}}}}}& +& {\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{C}\end{array}$ = CH₂$\underset{2.5^0\mathrm{C}}{\overset{\mathrm{HF}}{\to }}$(A);    (A) is:
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) CH₃-$\begin{array}{c}\underset{|}{\mathrm{CH}}\\ {\mathrm{CH}}_3\end{array}$-CH₂-CH=CH₂

Compound (A) is :$$
$$
1.
2. 
3.
4. 

The colour of the solution that gets formed by mixing sodium nitroprusside to an alkaline solution of sulfide ions, is-

In Kjeldahl's method, the nitrogen present is estimated as-
1. N₂ 
2. NH₃
3. NO₂ 
4 None of the above

In Kjeldahl's method of estimation of nitrogen, K₂SO₄ acts as:

The IUPAC name of the compound is:

1. 2-Methyl-6-oxohex-3-enamide
2. 6-Keto-2-methyl hexanamide
3. 2-Carbamoylhexanal
4. 2-Carbamoylex-3-enal

The IUPAC name of the given compound is:

1. 2-Phenylpropan-3-al
2. Formylethylbenzene
3. 2-Phenylpropanal
4. Ethylformylbenzene

The IUPAC name of the given compound is:

1. Tris(chloromethyl)methane
2. 1,3-Dichloro-2-(chloromethyl)propane
3. 1-Chlorobis(chloromethyl) ethane
4. None of the above

The IUPAC name of  is:
(1) 3-Carboxy-3-hydroxypentanedicarboxylic acid
(2) 2-Hydroxypropane-1, 2, 3-tricarboxylic acid
(3) 2-Hydroxypropane-1, 2, 3-trioic acid
(4) 3-Hydroxypropane-1, 2, 3-tricarboxylic acid

The IUPAC name of  is:
 
(1) N, N-Dimethyl aminobenzene
(2) N, N-Dimethyl benzenamine
(3) (1) and (2) both are correct
(4) none of these

Which of the following species is paramagnetic?

Which of the following is singlet carbene?
1. (CH₃)₃C⁺
2. C₂H₅-CH
3. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2{\mathrm{CH}}_2^{-}$
4. CH₂ =CH-${\mathrm{CH}}_2^{+}$

The number of isomers for the compound with molecular formula C₂BrCIFI is:
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

The optically active alkane with lowest molar mass is:
1. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{C}\equiv \mathrm{CH}$
2. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2-\stackrel{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{\stackrel{|}{\mathrm{CH}}}-{\mathrm{CH}}_3$
3. 
4. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2.{\mathrm{CH}}_2{\mathrm{CH}}_3$

Which of the following species contains equal number of $\mathrm{\sigma }$ and $\mathrm{\pi }$ bonds?
1. ${\mathrm{HCO}}_3^{-}$                                   
2. XeO₄
3. (CN)₂                                     
4. CH₂(CN)₂

In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen, 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 ml of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be:
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
1. 16.45
2. 27.45
3. 44.45
4. 35.45

How many stereoisomers does this molecule have?
CH₃CH=CHCH₂C HBrCH₃
1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 2 

Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(1) The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids
(2) The canonical structures have no real existence
(3) Every AB₅ molecule does, in fact, have square pyramid structure
(4) Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds

Least stable hydride is:
(1) stannane 
(2) silane 
(3)  plumbane 
(4) germane

Which of the following species has polar and non-polar bonds but molecule as a whole is non-polar?
(a) ${\mathrm{S}}_2{\mathrm{O}}_3^{2-}$                                           
 (b) $(\mathrm{SCN}{)}_2$
(c) ${\mathrm{Be}}_2{\mathrm{Cl}}_4$                                             
(d) ${\mathrm{Si}}_2{\mathrm{H}}_6$

Incorrect statement regarding ${\mathrm{BF}}_2{\mathrm{NH}}_2$ molecule is :
(1) FBF bond angle $<120\%$                     
(2) HNH bond angle $>109°28\text{'}$
(3) Exhibits intermolecular H-bond             
(4) Hybridization of N-atom is ${\mathrm{sp}}^3$

Nodal planes of $\mathrm{\pi }-\mathrm{bond}\left(\mathrm{s}\right) \mathrm{in} {\mathrm{CH}}_2=\mathrm{C}=\mathrm{C}={\mathrm{CH}}_2 \mathrm{are} \mathrm{located} \mathrm{in}:$
(1) all are in molecular plane
(2) two in a molecular plane and in a plane peerpendicular to moleclar plane which contains $\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{C} \mathrm{\sigma }-\mathrm{bond}$
(3) one in molecular plane and two in plane perpendicular to molecular plane which bisects $\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{C} \mathrm{\sigma }-\mathrm{bonds}$
(4) two in a molecular plane and one in a plane perpendicular to molecular plane which bisects $\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{C} \mathrm{\sigma }-\mathrm{bonds}$ at right angle.

H.O.M.O. (Highest Occupied Molecular Orbital) of CO molecular is :
(1) Non-bonding M.O. with slight antibonding character
(2) Non-bonding M.O. with slight bonding character
(3) Pure non-bonding M.O.
(4) None of the above

An incorrect match among the following is:

In the figure shown, the potential energy U of a particle is plotted against its position 'x' from the origin. Then which of the following statement is correct?
 
1. ${\mathrm{x}}_1$ is in stable equilibrium
2. ${\mathrm{x}}_2$ is in stable equilibrium
3. ${\mathrm{x}}_3$ is in stable equilibrium
4. none of these

A train of mass M is moving on a circular track of radius 'R' with constant speed v. The length of the train is half of the perimeter of the track. The linear momentum of the train will be 
1. 0
2. $\frac{2\mathrm{Mv}}{\mathrm{\pi }}$
3. MvR
4. Mv

A 2 kg toy car can move along an x-axis. The graph shows force ${\mathrm{F}}_{}$, acting on the car which begins at rest at time t = 0. The velocity of the car at t = 10 s is :
   
1. $-\hat{\mathrm{i}}$ m/s
2. $-1.5 \hat{\mathrm{i}}$ m/s
3. $6.5 \hat{\mathrm{i}}$ m/s
4. $13 \hat{\mathrm{i}}$ m/s

In the figure shown, a small solid spherical ball of mass 'm' can move without sliding in a fixed semicircular track of radius R in vertical plane. It is released from the top. The resultant force on the ball at the lowest point of the track is :
 
1. $\frac{10 \mathrm{mg} }{7}$
2. $\frac{17 \mathrm{mg} }{7}$
3. $\frac{3 \mathrm{mg} }{7}$
4. zero

A point charge q is placed over a horizontal square of side L at a normal distance of L/3 from its centre. Electric flux through the square is 
1. $\mathrm{\varphi }=\frac{\mathrm{q}}{6{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0}$
2. $\mathrm{\varphi }<\frac{\mathrm{q}}{6{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0}$
3. $\frac{\mathrm{q}}{6{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0}<\mathrm{\varphi }<\frac{\mathrm{q}}{{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0}$
4. $\mathrm{\varphi }>\frac{\mathrm{q}}{6{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0}$

The forces required to just move a body up an inclined plane is double the force required to just prevent it from sliding down. If $\mathrm{\varphi }$ is angle of friction and $\mathrm{\theta }$ is the angle which the plane makes with horizontal, then
1. $\tan \theta =\tan \varphi$
2. $\tan \theta =2\tan \varphi$
3. $\tan \theta =3\tan \varphi$
4. $\tan \varphi =3\tan \theta$

A heavy uniform chain partly lies on a horizontal table. If the coefficient of friction between the chain and the table surface is \(0.25\), then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang over the edge of the table will be:
1. \(20\%\)
2. \(25\%\)
3. \(33\%\)
4. \(15\%\)

Two blocks A and B of masses 4 kg and 12 kg are placed on a smooth plane surface. A force F of 16 N is applied on A as shown. The force of contact is :
 
1. 4 N
2. 8 N
3. 12 N
4. 16 N

         
1. \(60~\text{N}\)
2. \(\frac{60}{\sqrt{2}}~\text{N}\)
3. \(30~\text{N}\)
4. \(\frac{30}{\sqrt{2}}~\text{N}\)

A particle of mass m collides with another stationary particle of mass M such that the second particle starts moving and the first particle stops just after collision. Then which of the following conditions must always be valid ?
1. $\mathrm{m}/\mathrm{M}\le 1$
2. $\mathrm{m}/\mathrm{M}=1$
3. $\mathrm{e}=1$
4. $\mathrm{e}\ge 1$

The potential energy U between two atoms in a diatomic molecule as a function of the distance x between atoms has been shown in the adjoining figure. The atoms are 
 
1. attracted when x lies between A and B and repelled when x lies between B and C
2. attracted when x lies between B and C and repelled when x lies between A and BA
3. attracted when they reach B
4. repelled when they reach B

A particle performs uniform circular motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency of particle's motion is doubled and its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum becomes :
1. 2L
2. 4L
3. L/2
4. L/4

A particle is dropped from a height h on a horizontal floor. Coefficient of restitution is e. The height of particle after n^th rebound is 
1. ${\mathrm{e}}^{\mathrm{n}}\mathrm{h}$
2. ${\mathrm{e}}^{2\mathrm{n}}\mathrm{h}$
3. $\frac{\mathrm{h}}{{\mathrm{e}}^{\mathrm{n}}}$
4. $\frac{\mathrm{h}}{{\mathrm{e}}^{2\mathrm{n}}}$

A frictionless wire AB fixed on a circle of radius R. A very small spherical ball slips on this wire. The time taken by this ball to slip from A to B is 

1. $\frac{2\sqrt{\mathrm{gR}}}{\mathrm{g} \mathrm{cos\theta }}$
2. $2\sqrt{\mathrm{gR}}\frac{\mathrm{cos\theta }}{g}$
3. $2\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{g}}}$
4. $\frac{gR}{\sqrt{\mathrm{g} \mathrm{cos\theta }}}$

An object is tied to a string and rotated in a vertical circle of radius r. Constant speed is maintained along the trajectory. If ${\mathrm{T}}_{\max }/{\mathrm{T}}_{\min }=2$, then ${\mathrm{v}}^2/\mathrm{rg}$ is 
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

A body is moving under the action of two forces $\overrightarrow{{\mathrm{F}}_1}=2\hat{i}-5\hat{j} , \overrightarrow{{\mathrm{F}}_2}=3\hat{i}-4\hat{j}$. Its velocity will become uniform under an additional third force $\overrightarrow{{\mathrm{F}}_3}$, given by :
1. $5\hat{\mathrm{i}}-\hat{\mathrm{j}}$
2. $-5\hat{\mathrm{i}}-\hat{\mathrm{j}}$
3. $5\hat{\mathrm{i}}+\hat{\mathrm{j}}$
4. $-5\hat{\mathrm{i}}+9\hat{\mathrm{j}}$

A ball of mass 3 kg moving with a speed of 100 m/s, strikes a wall at an angle 60$°$(as shown in fig.). The ball rebounds at the same speed and remains in contact with the wall for 0.2 sec, the force exerted by the ball on the wall is 
 
1. $1500\sqrt{3} \mathrm{N}$
2.  1500 N
3. $300\sqrt{3} \mathrm{N}$
4. 300 N

A block of mass 2 kg is free to move along the x-axis. It is at rest and from t = 0 onwards it is subject to a time-dependent force F(t) in the x direction. The force F(t) varies with t as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the block after 4.5 seconds is 

1. 4.50 J
2. 7.50 J
3. 5.06 J
4. 14.06 J

A particle, which is constrained to move along the x-axis, is subjected to a force  $\mathrm{F}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)=-\mathrm{kx}+{\mathrm{ax}}^3$. Here k and a are positive constants. For $\mathrm{x}\ge 0$, the graphical form of the potential energy U(x) of the particle is 

 

If a spring of spring constant k is stretched by a length x under tension T, the energy stored is 
1. $\frac{2\mathrm{k}}{{\mathrm{T}}^2}$
2. $\frac{2{\mathrm{T}}^2}{\mathrm{k}}$
3. $\frac{{\mathrm{T}}^2}{2\mathrm{k}}$
4. $\frac{2\mathrm{T}}{{\mathrm{k}}^2}$
 

A soldier is firing 20 bullets per second from his gun having muzzle speed of 150 m/s. The mass of each bullet is 50 g. If they strike the wall and rebound with the same speed, then the  force on the wall is
1. 75 N
2. 150 N
3. 300 N
4. 600 N

The length of a spring is l₁ and l₂, when stretched with a force of 4 N and 5 N respectively. Its natural length is
1. l₂ + l₁
2. 2(l₂-l₁)
3. 5l₁ - 4l₂
4. 5l₂ - 4l₁

Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. the magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively

1. g, g/3
2. g/3, g
3. g, g
4. g/3, g/3
 
 

The value M of the hanging block is in figure, which will prevent the smaller block from slipping over the triangular block. All the surfaces are smooth and string and pulley are ideal.
1. 12 kg
2. 15 kg
3. 10 kg
4. 4 kg

A lighter body and heavier body both are moving with same momentum and undergo same retardation. Their stoping distances are s₁ and s₂ respectively. Then the correct relation between s₁ and s₂.
1. s₁ > s₂
2. s₁ < s₂
3. s₁ = s₂
4. None of these

An empty plastic box of mass 5 kg is found to accelerate up at the rate of g / 6, when placed deep inside water. How much sand should be put inside the box so that it may accelerate down at the rate of g / 6.
1. 2 kg
2. 3 kg
3. 4 kg
4. 5 kg

Let θ denote the angular displacement of simple pendulum oscillating in a vertical plane. If mass of bob is m, the tension in the string is mg Cos θ
1. always
2. never
3. at extreme position 
4. at mean position

Tension on the string at point P is T. The graph for tension (T) versus x is shown in figure. Then the string is:

1. massless
2. has mass
3. tension on every point on the string is same when string is having finite mass
4. None of these
 

Relation between velocity (v) and time (t) is $v\alpha \sqrt{t}$ , then which one of the following quantity is constant:
1. Force
2. Power
3. Momentum
4. Kinetic Energy

A car is negociating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at angle $\mathrm{\theta }$. The coefficient of friction between the car and the road is ${\mu }_s$. The maximum safe velocity on this road is 
1.$\sqrt{gR\left(\frac{\tan \theta +\mu s}{1-{\mu }_s\tan \theta }\right)}$ 
2. $\sqrt{\frac{g}{R}\left(\frac{\tan \theta +\mu s}{1-{\mu }_s\tan \theta }\right)}$
3. $\sqrt{\frac{g}{R^2}\left(\frac{\tan \theta +\mu s}{1-{\mu }_s\tan \theta }\right)}$
4.$\sqrt{g{R}^2\left(\frac{\tan \theta +\mu s}{1-{\mu }_s\tan \theta }\right)}$

A stone is projected from a horizontal plane. It attains maximum height 'H' & strikes a stationary smooth wall & falls on the ground vertically below the maximum height. Assume the collision to be elastic, the height of the point on the wall where ball will strike is:
 

1. $\frac{\mathrm{H}}{2}$
2. $\frac{\mathrm{H}}{4}$
3. $\frac{3\mathrm{H}}{4}$
4. None of these

A block A of mass $m_1$ rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the edge of the table and from it another block B of mass $m_2$ is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is $\mu$. When the block A is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is 
1. $\frac{(m_2+\mu m_1)g}{(m_1+m_2)}$
2. $\frac{(m_2- \mu m_1)g}{(m_1+m_2)}$
3. $\frac{m_1{m}_2(1+\mu )g}{(m_1+m_2)}$
4. $\frac{m_1{m}_2(1-\mu )g}{(m_1+m_2)}$ 

The graph below shows how the force F exerted on a body in collision with another body varies with time t,

The area under the graph represents the body's change of
1. Acceleration
2. Kinetic energy
3. Potential energy 
4. Momentum

A body slides down a frictionless track which ends in a circular loop of diameter D. Then the minimum height h of the body in terms of D so that it may just complete the loop is

1. h = (5D/2)
2. h = (5D/4)
3. h = (3D/4)
4. h = (D/4)

A metre stick, of mass 400 g, is pivoted at one end and displaced through an angle $60°$. The increase in its potential energy is 

1. 1 Joule
2. 10 Joule
3. 100 Joule
4. 1000 Joule

Under the action of a force, a 2 kg body moves such that its position x as a function of time t is given by x = $t^2$/3 where x is in m and t in s. The work done by the force in first two second is
1. 1600 J
2. 160 J
3. 16 J
4. 1.8 J 

A particle moves under the effect of a force $F\mathit{ }\mathit{=}\mathit{ }cx$ from $x$ = 0 to $x$ = $x_{\mathit{1}}$. The work done in the process is 
1. $c{x}_1$
2. $\raisebox{1ex}{$1$}\!\left/ \!\raisebox{-1ex}{$2$}\right. c{x_{\mathit{1}}}^{\mathit{2}}$
3. $c{x_{\mathit{1}}}^{\mathit{3}}$
4. Zero

Six charges are placed at the corner of a regular hexagon as shown. If an electron is placed at its centre O, force on it will be:

1. Zero
2. Along OF
3. Along OC
4. None of these

The dipole moment of a system of charge +q distributed uniformly on an arc of radius R subtending an angle $\mathrm{\pi }$/2 at its centre where another charge -q is placed is:
1. $\frac{2\sqrt{2}\mathrm{qR}}{\mathrm{\pi }}$
2. $\frac{\sqrt{2}\mathrm{qR}}{\mathrm{\pi }}$
3.  $\frac{\mathrm{qR}}{\mathrm{\pi }}$
4. $\frac{2\mathrm{qR}}{\mathrm{\pi }}$

Electric flux through a surface of area 100 ${\mathrm{m}}^2$ lying in the xy plane is (in V-m). If $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\hat{\mathrm{i}} + \sqrt{2}\widehat{\mathrm{j} } + \sqrt{3}\hat{\mathrm{k}}$
1. 100
2. 141.4
3. 173.2
4. 200

A point charge is kept at the centre of a metallic insulated spherical shell. Then:
1. Electric field outside the sphere is zero
2. Electric field inside the sphere is zero
3. Net induced charge on the sphere is zero
4. Electric potential inside the sphere is zero

Let $P \left(r\right) = \frac{Q}{\pi R^4}r$ be the charge density distribution for a solid sphere of radius $R$ and total charge $Q$. For a point $P$ inside the sphere at distance $r_1$ from the centre of the sphere, the magnitude of the electric field is:
1. Zero
2. $\frac{Q}{4\pi {\epsilon }_0{r}_1^2}$
3. $\frac{Q{r}_1^2}{4\pi {\epsilon }_0{R}^4}$
4. $\frac{Q{r}_1^2}{3\pi {\epsilon }_0{R}^4}$

A spherical portion has been removed from a solid sphere having a charge distributed uniformly in its volume as shown in the figure. The electric field inside the emptied space is:

1. Zero everywhere
2. Non-zero and uniform
3. Non-uniform
4. Zero only at its centre

Two similar charge +Q, as shown in figure are placed at A and B. -q charge is placed at point C midway between A and B. -q charge will oscillate if

1. It is moved towards A
2. It is moved towards B
3. It is moved perpendicular to AB
4. Distance between A and B is reduced.

A solid metallic sphere has a charge $+3Q$. Concentric with this sphere is a conducting spherical shell having charge -Q. The radius of the sphere is a and that of the spherical shell is b(b>a). What is the electric field at a distance R(a<R<b) from the centre?
1. $\frac{4Q}{2\pi {\epsilon }_0{R}^2}$
2. $\frac{3Q}{4\pi {\epsilon }_0{R}^2}$
3. $\frac{3Q}{2\pi {\epsilon }_0{R}^2}$
4. $\frac{Q}{2\pi {\epsilon }_0{R}^{}}$