An important biofertilizer in paddy fields is :
1. Azospirillum
2. Azotobacter
3. Anabaena
4. Rhizobium
Consider the following statements :
I. | RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence |
II. | It involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to complementary dsDNA molecules that prevents the translation of mRNA |
III. | Fire and Mello got Nobel Prize for the discovery of RNAi |
Which of the above statements are true ?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I,II and III
Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness
associated with vitamin-A deficiency ?
1. Flaver savr tomato
2. Canolla
3. Golden rice
4. Bt-brinjal
Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are
(1) long fibre and resistance to aphids
(2) medium yields, long fibres and resistance to beetle pests
(3) high yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
(4) high yield and resistance to bollworms
Bt toxin is harmful to insects like:
1. | Lepidoterans (tobacco budworm, armyworms) |
2. | Coleopterans (beetles) |
3. | Dipterans (flies and mosquito) |
4. | All are correct |
Which of the following statements is false?
I. | Insulin was originally extracted from pancreas of slaughtered pigs and cattle |
II. | Animal insulin is difficult to obtain |
III. | Animal insulin is identical to human insulin |
IV. | Non-human insulin caused some patients to develop allergy |
V. | Recombinant DNA allowed scientists to insert a human insulin gene into a bacterial expression vector |
VI. | Recombinant insulin is actually obtained from E. coli bacterial cell |
1. Only I and II
2. Only III and IV
3. Only III
4. Only VI
Probes are molecules of
1. | DNA | 2. | RNA |
3. | Proteins | 4. | All of the above |
The Cry toxin does not kill the bacterium in which it is produced because
1. | Bacterium is resistant to the toxin |
2. | The bacterial cytoplasm is highly acidic |
3. | The bacterial cytoplasm is highly alkaline |
4. | The toxin is activated in alkaline medium |
Transgenic animals can be used to
1. Study human physiology
2. Study microbial catalysis
3. Study Weather phenomena
4. All of these
The number of varieties of rice and Basmati rice respectively found in India are
1. 2000 and 20
2. 20000 and 24
3. 200000 and 27
4. 200000 and 32
According to Modern molecular biotechnology, which of the following can be kept under the processes or form in Biotechnology?
1. Making of DNA vaccine
2. Making of curd
3. Making of bread
4. Making of wine
Which of the following restriction site is not comparatively closer than the other sites in pBR322?
1. Cla I
2. Hind III
3. EcoR I
4. Sal I
Which of the following restriction sites is not closer comparatively?
1. BamH I
2. Sal I
3. Pst I
4. Both A and B
The Agitation system of bioreactor has
1. Flat bladed impeller
2. Sharp impellers
3. Foam breaker
4. Steamer
The partial reason of increased yield during green revolution was
1. | Use of improved crop varieties |
2. | Use of better management practices |
3. | Use of agro-chemicals |
4. | Use of fertilisers and pesticides |
Which of the following is not an Abiotic stress?
1. | Pest | 2. | Cold |
3. | Drought | 4. | Heat |
Genetic modifications cannot cause
1. | Made crops more tolerant to Abiotic stresses |
2. | Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides |
3. | Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants |
4. | Early exhaustion of fertility of soil |
Tailor made plants will supply which of the following alternative resources to industries
(1) Golden rice
(2) Starches
(3) Maize
(4) Pesticide
Which of the following coleoptera is killed by proteins produced by a particular strain of Bacillus thuringiensis?
(1) Mosquitoes
(2) Flies
(3) Beetles
(4) Tobacco budworm
Which of the following event will occur before death of insect as an action of Bt toxin?
(1) Lysis
(2) Swelling
(3) Pore formation
(4) Binding to epithelial cells
Most of the Bt toxin genes are
1. | Insect group specific |
2. | Pest specific |
3. | Weed specific |
4. | Bacteria specific |
The Bt toxin is not coded by
(1) CrylAc
(2) CryllAb
(3) CrylAb
(4) CrylIIAc
Cotton bollworms are controlled by
(1) CryIAc
(2) Cry II Ab
(3) Both A and B
(4) Cry I Ab
How many chains does proinsulin consist of?
1. Three
2. Two
3. One
4. Five
Which of the following is not correct about the first clinical gene therapy?
1. | 1990 year |
2. | 5 year old kid |
3. | Adenosine deamide deficiency |
4. | Both B and C |
Transgenic animals:
(1) All are mice
(2) More than 95% are mice
(3) More than 90% are mice
(4) 95% are mice
Transgenic animals are created not to study which of the following options
(1) The regulation of genes
(2) Study of disease
(3) For biological products
(4) Diagnostics
Lactic Acid Bacteria grow in
(1) Milk
(2) Curd
(3) Water
(4) Juice
Which metabolic pathway is taking place if carbon dioxide is causing puffed up appearance in dough of idli and dosa?
(1) Glycolysis
(2) Fermentation
(3) Kreb cycle
(4) PPP
Which of the following is not true about Trichoderma?
(1) Common in the root ecosystem
(2) Free living fungi
(3) Effective Biocontrol Agents of several plant pathogens
(4) Bt-cotton is prepared by it
IPM stands for
(1) Integrated Pest Management
(2) Integrated Part Messenger
(3) International Pollution Management
(4) Inter- Pesticide Management Committee
Which of the following is free living nitrogen fixer?
(1) Baculoviruses
(2) Azotobacter
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Trichoderma
Mycorrhizae is
(1) Symbiotic association of lichen with algae
(2) Symbiotic association of fungi with higher plants
(3) Symbiotic association of bacteria with plants
(4) Symbiotic association of algae with fungi
Mycorrhizal plants have the following benefits except-
(1) Phosphorus from soil by means of fungi
(2) Resistance to root borne pathogens
(3) Tolerance to salinity, drought and extreme low temperature
(4) Overall increase in plant growth and development
You are inserting your gene of interest into the Lac Z gene in a plasmid also containing a tetracycline-resistant gene. You plate your transformed bacteria on media containing tetracycline and X-gal. Which of the following results would indicate a clone with recombinant plasmids?
1. | A clone which did not grow on the tetracycline plates |
2. | A white colony on the tetracycline plates |
3. | A blue colony on the tetracycline plates |
4. | A red colony on the tetracycline plates |
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Trichoderma is free living fungi, present in root ecosystem acts as biocontrol agent
2. Genus of baculoviruses is species group specific broad spectrum insecticide
3. All harmful insect pests should be kept at manageable level as it furthers biodiversity
4. Ladybird and Dragonflies are used as biocontrol agent
Select the mis-match:
1. Monascus purpureus - Statins
2. Trichoderma polysporum - Cyclosporin-A
3. Clostridium butylicum - Citric acid
4. Streptococci - Streptokinase
Ernest Chain and Howard Florey’s contribution was
1. Discovery of streptokinase.
2. Establishment of potential of penicillin as effective drug.
3. Discovery of DNA sequences.
4. Isolating the bacterial plasmid.
In mycorrhiza association the fungal symbiont helpful in :
1. Phosphorus nutrition
2. Resistance to root borne pathogen
3. Tolerance to salinity and drought
4. All the above
Which of the following is not used as a biofertilizers :
1. Rhizobium
2. Fungi-Glomus
3. Cyano bacteria
4. Yeast
Bacterial cells protect their own DNA from degradation by restriction endonucleases by
1. methylating the DNA at the sites that the enzyme recognizes
2. deleting all recognition sites from the genome
3. not producing any restriction endonucleases
4. having anti restriction endonucleases
How is human insulin synthesized using recombinant DNA technology?
1. | By using chemically synthesized DNA sequences for the two chains separately |
2. | By isolating DNA from the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas |
3. | By using cDNA for insulin |
4. | By using chemically synthesized DNA sequences for the complete insulin protein |
Blood-cholesterol lowering agent is and produced by
1. Statins, Monascus purpureus
2. Statins, Trichoderma polysporum
3. Cyclosporin A, Streptococcus
4. Streptokinase, Streptococcus
During secondary treatment, major part of activated sludge is pumped into tanks called
1. Aerobic sludge digesters.
2. Anaerobic sludge digesters.
3. Primary sludge digesters.
4. Settling tanks.
How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
1. By adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines.
2. By reinforcing bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds.
3. By adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA.
4. By forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching.
To obtain microbial product at industrial scale which equipment is used.
1. Auto clave.
2. Fermentors.
3. Laminar flow.
4. Phytotron.
The microbial biocontrol agent with species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal application is
1. Trichoderma
2. Glomus
3. Dragonflies
4. Nucleopolyhedrovirus
GEAC is an Indian Government organization that deals with issues related to:
1. Ozone depletion
2. GM research
3. Loss of biodiversity
4. Use of microbes in dairy products
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organizations without authorization from the concerned country and its people is called?
1. Bio-infringement
2. Biopiracy
3. Biodegradation
4. Bio-exploitation
Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?
1. Methanobacterium: Lactic acid
2. Penicillium notatum: Acetic acid
3. Saccharomyces cerevisiae: Ethanol
4. Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics
Match the following list of microbes and what they are used for:
A. | Saccharomyces cerevisiae | 1. | Production of immunosuppressive agents |
B. | Monascus purpureus | 2. | Ripening of Swiss cheese |
C. | Trichoderma polysporum | 3. | Commercial production of ethanol |
D. | Propionibacterium shermanii | 4. | Production of blood-cholesterol-lowering agents |
1. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
2. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
3. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
1. bioremediation of contaminated soils
2. reclamation of wastelands
3. gene transfer in higher plants
4. biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
The first recombinant DNA was constructed
by linking an antibiotic resistant gene with the
native plasmid of
1. Escherichia coli
2. Salmonella typhimurium
3. Clostridium butylicum
4. Acetobacter aceti
____________ is a thermophilic bacterium that can survive temperatures upto C. Select the option which fills the blank correctly.
1. Thermus aquaticus
2. Salmonella typhi
3. E.coli
4. Lactobacillus
Choose the nematode which infects the roots of tobacco plants causing a great reduction in yield:
1. A. tumefaciens
2. M. incognita
3. S. Typhimurium
4. B. thuringiensis
All of the following characters are related with Bt- toxin except:
1. Kills lepidopteran, dipteran, and coleopteran insects
2. The toxin is coded by a gene named cry
3. Activated in the midgut of insects in acidic medium
4. Causes lysis of cells in the epithelial lining of the midgut
Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in the
1. Root ecosystem
2. Stem ecosystem
3. Leaf ecosystem
4. Both 2 and 3
Which of the following is not a direct method of gene transfer?
1. Microinjection
2. Biolistic
3. Electroporation
4. Disarmed pathogen vector
RNA Interference / antisense RNA technology takes place
1. | In all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. |
2. | During tissue culture. |
3. | In all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. |
4. | In all moconot plant as a method of insect pest resistance. |
During gel electrophoresis for separation of DNA fragment:
1. Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode
2. Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode
3. Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode
4. Largest fragment will move to the farthesr point towards anode
Different varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour and taste that is due to?
1. Flavouring agent used
2. Living agent used
3. It is inherent quality
4. Arise due to molecular interaction between chemicals
If the gene of interest is cloned at ECoRI in pBR322,
the recombinant E-coli after transformation are
1. Susceptible to ampicillin and tetracyline.
2. Sensitive to tetracycline.
3. Resistant to kanamycin.
4. Resistant to ampicillin and tetracycline
Which of the following enzyme is involved in the isolation of genetic material like DNA from a plant cell?
I: | Cellulase |
II: | Lysozyme |
III: | Ribonuclease |
IV: | Protease |
1. I, II, III and IV
2. I and II only
3. I only
4. I, III and IV
The organism found as free living in rhizosphere and is an effective biocontrol agent of several plant pathogens is
1. Cercospora
2. Fusarium
3. Trichoderma
4. Bacillus
The Indian government has set up an organization, ____________ which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public use
1. GEAC
2. Indian Patents Authority
3. Ministry of Forestry
4. Intellectual Properties Authority
Bacillus thuringiensis
1. Provides resistance in plants like Bt cotton, Bt corn, rice, etc. against abiotic stresses
2. Increases efficiency of Bt toxin in alkaline medium
3. Possesses cry gene that confers the ability to synthesize an inactive crystalline protein
4. Creates pores in the foregut of insects
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. | Golden rice in vitamin A |
2. | Human protein obtained from transgenic animals is used to treat emphysema |
3. | Human protein-enriched milk, which contained the human alpha-lactalbumin was produced by the transgenic cow, Molly |
4. | TPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activator) is used by doctors to dissolve clots after a heart attack in patients |
In the STPs, biological process of microbial degradation of organic matter involves
1 Utilisation of activated sludge as inoculant produced in the physical process
2 Mainly involves anaerobic breakdown of organic matter
3 Masses of unicellular bacteria entangled in filamentous bacterial forms represent flocs
4 BOD is greatly reduced by the microbial activity
Match the following micro-organisms to the related products.
Column-l Column-ll
a. Swiss cheese (i) Monascus
b. Statin (ii) Propionibacterium
c. Butyric acid (iii) Trichoderma
d. Cyclosporin (iv) Clostridium
1 a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
2 a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
3 a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
4 a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
Alexander Fleming accidently discovered antibiotic penicillin from a mould, but he was working on
1. Streptococci
2. Streptobacilli
3. Staphylobacilli
4. Staphylococci
Find out which one of the following statement is not correct with respect to biogas plant?
1. It has a floating cover which keeps on rising as gas is produced
2. It consists of a 10-15 feet deep tank in which bio-wastes are collected and a slurry of dung is fed
3. Main gases produced are methane, isobutane and propane
4. Spent slurry may be used as fertiliser
A foreign DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme β galactosidase used as selective marker will distinguish recombinants from non-recombinants. This results into following except
1. | Inactivation of enzyme |
2. | Colonies produce no colour |
3. | Insertional inactivation |
4. | Activation of enzyme which gives blue colour |
The separation and purification of the recombinant products is collectively called
(1) Upstreaming
(2) Downstreaming
(3) Electroporation
(4) Transformation
Following are vectorless gene transfer except one. Mark the except one
1. | Micro injection | 2. | Electroporation |
3. | Cosmid | 4. | Biolistic |
When recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme β-galactosidase. This results in the following except
1. | Insertional inactivation |
2. | Recombinant colonies do not produce any color |
3. | Inactivation of enzyme |
4. | Chromogenic substrate is converted into product by recombinant colonies |
Which of the following is a direct method of gene transfer?
1. | Plasmid vector |
2. | Cosmid |
3. | Ti-plasmid based vector |
4. | Chemical mediated genetic transformation in which certain chemical like polyethylene glycol help in uptake of foreign DNA |
Select the incorrect match
(1) |
Agarose |
- Gel electrophoresis |
(2) |
Ethidium bromide |
- Stained DNA can be |
(3) |
Chilled ethanol |
- Precipitates DNA for |
(4) |
Chitinase |
- Disrupts fungal cell wall |
The vector used to transfer gene to produce pest resistant tobacco plant is
(1) pBR 322
(2) pUC 18
(3) Ti plasmid
(4) λ phage
Select the DNA sequences which would act as a restriction site
(1) AACCGG
TTGGCC
(2) GGTTGG
CCAACC
(3) AAGGCT
TTCCGA
(4) CTGCAG
GACGTC
Which of the following is correct about the Agrobacterium tumefaciens?
1. | Bacteria has tumor inducing plasmid |
2. | Bacteria infects all broad leaved agricultural crops |
3. | Modified bacteria infects monocot plant only |
4. | Both (1) & (2) |
Mark the restriction endonuclease enzyme amongst the following which is active at the given palindromic sequence of
1. Eco RI
2. Barn HI
3. Hind 11
4. Sma I
The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of polymersase chain reaction (PCR). Select the correct identification together with what it represents
1. B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands
2. A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 60°C
3. C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
4. A - Annealing with two sets of primer
By plating cells that contain recombinant pBR322 that was ligated with the help of BamHI restriction endonuclease, it was found that the cells
1. | Had lost their ability to replicate |
2. | Were unable to survive in tetracycline rich medium |
3. | Showed insertional inactivation of ampicillin gene |
4. | Had lost their ability to synthesise β-galactosidase |
'Insertional inactivation' is used for
1. | Selection of recombinants |
2. | Producing pest resistant crops |
3. | Enhancing nutritional value of food |
4. | Reducing post harvest losses |
In the given scheme of events, identify the enzymes that are best suited from the options given below
(1) A - EcoRI for foreign DNA
B - Hind III for plasmid
C - Ligase for joining
(2) A - Hind III for foreign DNA
B - EcoRI for plasmid
C - Lyase for joining
(3) A - Hind Ill for foreign DNA
B - Hind III for plasmid
C - DNA ligase for joining
(4) A - EcoRl for foreign DNA
B - EcoRl for plasmid
C - Phosphodiesterase for joining
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumefaciens?
1. | It is natural genetic engineer |
2. | It induces the formation of cancerous growth as crown gall tumor |
3. | For genetic engineering Agrobacterium strains have been developed, from which tumor forming genes have been deleted |
4. | It infects all crops as soyabean, sunflower, cereals, cotton, etc. |
Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens serves as a vector in recombinant DNA technology when it is
1. | Cloned |
2. | Disarmed |
3. | Linked with host DNA |
4. | Introduced in monocots |
A probe is
1. Single-stranded DNA only
2. Single-stranded RNA only
3. Single-stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a radioisotope
4. Double-stranded DNA tagged with a radioisotope
The enzyme that seals 5’ PO4 and 3’ OH polynucleotide ends while creating a recombinant DNA molecule is
1. Alkaline phosphatase
2. DNA ligase
3. DNAse
4. Restriction endonuclease
If any protein-encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is termed as
1. Recombinant protein
2. Single-cell protein
3. Humulin
4. Transposon
The reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation is
1. R-F>R-Cl>R-Br>R-I
2. R-I>R-Br>R-Cl>R-F
3. R-I>R-Cl>R-Br>R-F
4. R-F>R-I>R-Br>R-Cl
X Benzotrichloride Y
X and Y respectievely are:
1. benzene, benzaldehyde
2. toluene, benzaldehyde
3. toluene, benzoic acid
4. benzene, benzoic acid
A yellow precipitate is obtained when aqueous is added to a solution of the compound:
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the following sequences of reactions;
(A)(B)(C)
the end product (C) is:
1. alkene
2. alkanol
3. alkyne
4. alkyl amine
When vinyl chloride is passed through alcoholic KOH solution:
1. it dissolves
2. it forms vinyl alcohol
3. it forms acetylene
4. it has no action
The reaction, RCl +NaI + NaCl is known as:
1. Wurtz reaction
2. Fittig reaction
3. Frankland's reaction
4. Finkelstein's reaction
Elimination of HBr from 2-bromobutane results in the formation of:
1. equimolar mixture of 1- and 2-butene
2. predominantly 2-butene
3. predominantly 1-butene
4. predominantly 2-butyne
Butanenitrile may be prepared by heating-
1. Propyl alcohol with KCN
2. Butyl chloride with KCN
3. Butyl alcohol with KCN
4. Propyl chloride with KCN
Benzoylchloride is prepared from benzoic acid by
1. , hv
2. ,
3.
4. ,
Product of reaction is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
97%
Product (A) of above reaction is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The major product of the above reaction is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following alkyl halide undergo rearrangement in SN1 reaction?
1.
2.
3.
4. All of these
The product X in the below mentioned reaction is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
AnisoleProduct
1.
2.
3.
4.
Product (A) and (B) respectively are:-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Major product of the reaction is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which is the major product expected from the following SN2 reaction?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Product of reaction is:
(MOM chloride)
(Methoxy methyl chloride)
1.
2.
3.
4.
Alkyl halides can be obtained by all methods except:
1.
2.
3.
4.
In order to prepare 1-chloropropane, which of the following reactants can be employed?
(1) Propane and HCl in the presence of peroxide
(2) Propene and Cl2 followed by treatment with aq. KOH
(3) Propanol-1 and SOCl2/pyridine
(4) Any of the above can be used
Which of the following molecules would have a carbon-halogen bond most susceptible to nucleophilic substitution ?
(1) 2-Fluorobutane
(2) 2-Chlorobutane
(3) 2-Bromobutane
(4) 2-Iodobutane
When benzyl chloride is treated with ethanolic KCN, the major product formed is:-
(1) benzyl ethyl ether
(2) benzyl alcohol
(3) benzyl cyanide
(4) benzyl isocyanide
Which statement is correct ?
(1) C2H5Br reacts with alcoholic KOH to form C2H5OH
(2) C2H5Br when treated with metallic sodium gives ethane
(3) C2H5Br when treated with sodium ethoxide forms diethyl ether
(4) C2H5Br with AgCN forms ethyl cyanide
The given reaction is an example of,
C2H5Br + aqu. KCN → C2H5CN + KBr
1. Elimination
2. Nucleophilic substitution
3. Electrophilic substitution
4. Redox change
In the following sequences of reactions;
the product (C) is:
(1) propene
(2) propyne
(3) propan-1-ol
(4) propan-2-ol
Reagent not used to prepare an alkyl halide from an alcohol is:
(1) HCl+ ZnCl2
(2) NaCl
(3) PCl5
(4) SOCl2
Most readily hydrolysed halide is:-
(1) C6H5Cl
(2) (C6H5)2CHCl
(3) C6H5CH2Cl
(4) (C6H5)3CCl
In the reaction,
the product formed is:
(1) 4-Methylpent-2-yne
(2) propyne
(3) propyne and propene
(4) none of these
Identity ‘Z’ in the following reaction series,
CH3CH2CH2Br (X) (Y) (z)
1. Mixture of
2.
3.
4.
The correct order of increasing C-X bond reactivity toward nucleophiles among the following is:
I | II | ||
III | \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{X}\) | IV | \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{X}\) |
1. | I < II < IV < III | 2. | II < III < I < IV |
3. | IV < III < I < II | 4. | III < II < I < IV |
Which of the following reactions cannot form new carbon-carbon bonds?
1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Cannizaro reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation
What are A & B in the following reaction
1. | ![]() |
2. | ![]() |
3. | ![]() |
4. | None of these |
Sandmeyer's reaction described by among the following is:
1. | |
2. | |
3. | |
4. | |
1. | |
2. | |
3. | |
4. |
Which of the following compounds are optically active?
(i).
(ii).
(iii).
(iv).
1. (i) & (ii)
2. (i) & (iii)
3. (ii) & (iii)
4. (i) & (iv)
Which of the following is not a product of the above reaction?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. | Substitution reaction. | 2. | Addition reaction. |
3. | Elimination reaction. | 4. | Coupling reaction. |
An alkyl halide that can be used as a methylating agent is
1. | C6H5Cl | 2. | C2H5Cl |
3. | CH3I | 4. | C2H5Br |
The molecule among the following with the maximum reactivity towards reaction is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
What is the correct order of boiling points for alkyl halides?
1. C2H5Cl > C2H5Br > C2H5I
2. C2H5I > C2H5Br > C2H5Cl
3. C2H5I > C2H5Cl > C2H5Br
4. C2H5Br > C2H5I > C2H5Cl
Which halide among the following exhibits the highest reactivity in an SN1 reaction?
1. sec-Butyl chloride
2. tert-Butyl chloride
3. n-Butyl chloride
4. Allyl chloride
The decreasing order of dipole moment of methyl halides is represented by:
1. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Cl}, \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Br}, \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{~F} \)
2. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Cl}, \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{~F}, \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Br} \)
3. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Br}, \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Cl}, \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{~F} \)
4. \(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Br}, \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{~F}, \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{Cl} \)
What results from the reaction of 2-bromopentane with alcoholic KOH?
1. | Cis-2-Pentene | 2. | Trans-2-Pentene |
3. | 1-Pentene | 4. | None of the above |
Which of the following molecules has the highest melting point?
1. Chlorobenzene
2. o-Dichlorobenzene
3. m-Dichlorobenzene
4. p-Dichlorobenzene
A converging beam of light is incident on a concave lens of focal length 30cm, in such a way that their point of intersection would lie at a height 1cm above the principal axis and at a distance of 24cm from the position of the lens if there was no lens. Find the nature of the image formed when the beam passes through the lens.
1. Real at a distance 60cm from the lens
2. Real at a distance 120cm from the lens
3. Virtual at a distance 60cm from the lens
4. Virtual at a distance 120 cm from the lens
When a ray is refracted from one medium to another, the wavelength changes from 6000 to 4000. The critical angle for the interface will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two plane mirrors, \(A\) and \(B\) are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at an angle of \(30^\circ\) at a point just inside one end of \(A.\) The plane of incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray undergoes reflections (excluding the first one) before it emerges out is:
1. \(28\)
2. \(30\)
3. \(32\)
4. \(34\)
1. | \(4~\text{cm}^2 \) | 2. | \(6~\text{cm}^2 \) |
3. | \(16~\text{cm}^2 \) | 4. | \(36~\text{cm}^2 \) |
A concave mirror is placed at the bottom of an empty tank with face upwards and axis vertical. When sunlight falls normally on the mirror, it is focused at distance of 32 cm from the mirror. If the tank is filled with water upto a height of 20 cm, then the sunlight will now get focussed at
1. 16 cm above water level
2. 9 cm above water level
3. 24 cm below water level
4. 9 cm below water level
The focal length of the objective lens and the eye lens is 4 mm and 25 mm respectively in a compound microscope. The distance between objective and eyepiece lens is 16 cm. Find its magnifying power for relaxed eye position-
1. 32.75
2. 327.5
3. 0.3275
4. None of the above
In an experiment of find the focal length of a concave mirror a graph is drawn between the magnitudes of u and v. The graph looks like
1. | ![]() |
2. | ![]() |
3. | ![]() |
4. | ![]() |
As the position of an object \((u)\) reflected from a concave mirror is varied, the position of the image \((v)\) also varies. By letting the \(u\) change from \(0\) to infinity, the graph between \(v\) versus \(u\) will be:
1. | ![]() |
2. | ![]() |
3. | ![]() |
4. | ![]() |
For a concave mirror, if the virtual image is formed, the graph between m and u is of the form :
1. | ![]() |
2. | ![]() |
3. | ![]() |
4. | ![]() |
The diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and thickness at the centre is 3 mm. If the
speed of light in the material of the lens is , the focal length of the lens is
1. 15 cm
2. 20 cm
3. 30 cm
4. 10 cm
The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths is
1. 8:27
2. 9:4
3. 3:2
4. 16:81
Two identical glass equi-convex lenses of focal length each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water . The focal length of the combination is
1.
2.
3.
4.
An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is
1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 16
When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index
1. equal to that of glass
2. less than one
3. greater than that of glass
4. less than that of glass
A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed though the lens the rays intersect at a point 15cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meet will move 5cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is:
(1) -10cm
(2) 20cm
(3) -30cm
(4) 5cm
Two thin lenses of focal length are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The refractive index of the material of a prism is \(\sqrt{2}\) and the angle of the prism is \(30^\circ.\) One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards with a silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if the angle of incidence on the prism is:
1. | \(60^\circ\) | 2. | \(45^\circ\) |
3. | \(30^\circ\) | 4. | zero |
Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive index = \(1.5\)) each having radius of curvature of \(20\) cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of a refractive index of \(1.7\). The focal length of the combination is:
1. \(-20\) cm
2. \(-25\) cm
3. \(-50\) cm
4. \(50\) cm
When a biconvex lens of glass having a refractive index of \(1.47\) is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. The liquid must have a refractive index:
1. | equal to that of glass. |
2. | less than one. |
3. | greater than that of glass. |
4. | less than that of glass. |
Pick the wrong statement in the context with a rainbow.
1. | Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion, refraction, and reflection of sunlight. |
2. | When the light rays undergo two internal reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow is formed. |
3. | The order of colors is reversed in the secondary rainbow. |
4. | An observer can see a rainbow when his front is towards the sun. |
A thin plano-convex glass lens ( = 1.5) has its plane surface silvered and R is the radius of curvature of curved part, then which of the following ray diagram is true for an object placed at O?
A microscope has an objective of focal length \(1.5\) cm and an eye-piece of focal length \(2.5\) cm. If the distance between objective and eye-piece is \(25\) cm, what is the approximate value of magnification produced for a relaxed eye?
1. \(75\)
2. \(110\)
3. \(140\)
4. \(25\)
A biconvex lens has power \(P.\) It is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal axis. The power of one part will be:
1. | \(0\) | 2. | \(\dfrac{P}{2}\) |
3. | \(\dfrac{P}{4}\) | 4. | \(P\) |
A person cannot see objects clearly that are closer than 2 m and farther than 4 m. To correct the eye vision, the person will use:
(1) Bifocal lenses of power -3.5 D and 0.25 D
(2) Bifocal lenses of power -0.25D and 3.5 D
(3) Bifocal lenses of power -0.5D and 4.0D
(4) Bifocal lenses of power -4.0D and 0.5 D
1. | smaller in size. |
2. | inverted. |
3. | between the focus and centre of curvature. |
4. | All of the above. |
1. | \(X+Y\) | 2. | \(\dfrac{X +Y}{2}\) |
3. | \(X-Y\) | 4. | \(\dfrac{X -Y}{2}\) |
Two convex lenses of focal lengths 10 cm and 30 cm are kept at a separation of 20 cm. Then the correct statement is:
(1) The effective focal length is 15 cm
(2) Chromatic aberration is minimized
(3) Combination behaves like a convergent lens
(4) All of these
The thickness of a plano-convex glass lens in the middle is 1.5 cm. Viewing from the flat side the thickness of the lens at the centre will appear (refractive index of glass is 1.5) to be
1. 1.5 cm
2. 1.0 cm
3. 2 cm
4. 0.5 cm
A lens forms image of a point object placed at distance 20 cm from it, just in front of the object at distance 4 cm from the object towards the lens. The power of lens is
(1) -2.25 D
(2) 1.75 D
(3) -1.25 D
(4) 1.4 D
A convex mirror of a focal length f (in air) is immersed in water . Focal length of the mirror in water will be
1. f
2.
3.
4. 4f
A thin lens whose power is +2D is cut into two pieces perpendicular to the principal axis. The focal length of each part will be
(1) 1 m
(2) 0.1 m
(3) 75 cm
(4) 0.05 m
The minimum magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is \(40\). If the length of the telescope is \(205\) cm, then the focal length of its field lens is:
1. \(5\) cm
2. \(200\) cm
3. \(40\) cm
4. \(140\) cm
A boy with defective eye-sight cannot see things beyond 50 cm. The corrective lens required has the power:
1. +1 D
2. +2 D
3. -1 D
4. -2 D
A convex mirror of focal length \(20~\text{cm}\) forms an image that is a quarter of the object's size. The distance of the object from the mirror is:
1. \(50~\text{cm}\)
2. \(-60~\text{cm}\)
3. \(-40~\text{cm}\)
4. \(-70~\text{cm}\)
In case of a compound microscope, the image formed by the objective lens is
(1) Virtual, erect and diminished
(2) Real, erect and magnified
(3) Virtual, inverted and enlarged
(4) Real, inverted and enlarged
A concave lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 has both surfaces of the same radius of curvature R. On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will have as a
1. Divergent lens of focal length 3R
2. Divergent lens of focal length 4R
3. Convergent lens of focal length 3.5R
4. Convergent lens of focal length 5R
In the diagram shown below, the image of the point object O is formed at l by the convex lens of focal length 20 cm, where are foci of the lens. The value of x' is
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm
The condition of minimum deviation is achieved in an equilateral prism kept on the prism table of a spectrometer. If the angle of incidence is \(50^{\circ}\), the angle of deviation is:
1. \(25^{\circ}\)
2. \(40^{\circ}\)
3. \(50^{\circ}\)
4. \(60^{\circ}\)
A small air bubble is at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 10 cm and refractive index 1.5. The distance of the bubble from the surface, when viewed from outside the sphere, is
(1) 2.5 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 7.5 cm
(4) 10 cm
A ray of light is incident grazing on an equilateral prism of refractive Index = 2. The angle of emergence is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal table as shown. For minimum deviation, a true statement is:
1. | \(PQ\) is horizontal |
2. | \(QR\) is horizontal |
3. | \(RS\) is horizontal |
4. | Either \(PQ\) or \(RS\) is horizontal |
1. | \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \) | 2. | \(1.5 \) |
3. | \(1.732 \) | 4. | \( 2\) |
A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours in incident on a right-angled prism as shown. The refractive index of the material of prism for red, green and blue wavelength are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. Which of the three colours will come out off the right face of the prism?
1. Green
2. Red
3. Blue
4. No colour will be separated
An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror at a distance of \(1.5f\) ( \(f\) is the focal length). The image will be at:
1. \(-3f\)
2. \(1.5f\)
3. \(-1.5f\)
4. \(3f\)